Practice Test

At grade 7

This test has the first 120 of the 580 questions that match.

Question 1 of 120

2026 Practice Test A English, question 4
Passage Snowy Mountains

Snowy Mountains

by John Gould Fletcher

Higher and still more high,
Palaces made for cloud,
Above the dingy city-roofs
Blue-white like angels with broad wings,
Pillars of the sky at rest
The mountains from the great plateau
Uprise.

But the world heeds them not;
They have been here now for too long a time.
The world makes war on them,
Tunnels their granite cliffs,
Splits down their shining sides,
Plasters their cliffs with soap-advertisements,
Destroys the lonely fragments of their peace.

Vaster and still more vast,
Peak after peak, pile after pile,
Wilderness still untamed,
To which the future is as was the past,
Barrier spread by Gods,
Sunning their shining foreheads,
Barrier broken down by those who do not need
The joy of time-resisting storm-worn stone,
The mountains swing along
The south horizon of the sky;
Welcoming with wide floors of blue-green ice
The mists that dance and drive before the sun.

“Snowy Mountains” by John Gould Fletcher—Public Domain

Question

In which two ways does the poet develop the speaker’s point of view in the second stanza (lines 8–14)?

Select the two correct answers.

Choose every answer that is correct, then check. The DOE has not published how answers with several parts are scored; this site counts one right only when every part is right.

  • Aby describing the mountains’ awe-inspiring size and strength
  • Bby comparing the various methods humans use to control nature
  • Cby criticizing the careless actions of humans that harm the natural environment
  • Dby demonstrating how the mountains and the people are able to benefit from each other
  • Eby depicting the unfortunate plight of the mountains with vivid details
Show the answer

Correct answer: C and E

The question asks for the two ways in which the poet develops the speaker’s point of view in the second stanza (lines 8–14).

A. Incorrect. The speaker’s descriptions of the mountains’ awe-inspiring size and strength mainly occur in the first and third stanzas, while in the second stanza, the speaker focuses on humanity and its negative effect on the mountains.

B. Incorrect. The wording of the second stanza—“makes war” (line 10), “Splits down their shining sides” (line 12), and “Destroys the lonely fragments” (line 14)—communicates the speaker’s position that people’s main impact on the mountains is destructive, but the stanza does not compare the various methods people use to control nature.

C. CORRECT. In the second stanza, the speaker criticizes the careless and destructive actions of society or “the world” (lines 8 and 10) that harm the natural environment. Humans are described as both heedless of the mountains (“heeds them not”) and harmfully warlike (“makes war on them”). The speaker cites the harm done to the mountains when people “[tunnel] their granite cliffs” (line 11) and “[split] down their shining sides” (line 12), thus “[destroying] the lonely fragments of their peace” (line 14).

D. Incorrect. In the second stanza, the speaker does not describe a mutually beneficial relationship between the mountains and the people. Although people clearly derive benefits from the mountains by plastering “their cliffs with soap-advertisements” (line 13), the stanza does not demonstrate that the mountains receive any benefit from the harmful actions of the people.

E. CORRECT. In the second stanza, the speaker depicts the unfortunate plight of the mountains with vivid details. Lines 11–14 feature expressive wording that sharply illustrates the mountains’ misfortune: “Tunnels their granite cliffs, / Splits down their shining sides, / Plasters their cliffs with soap-advertisements.”

Question analysis

This select-two question on John Gould Fletcher’s poem “Snowy Mountains” asks in which two ways the poet develops the speaker’s point of view in the second stanza, lines 8–14. It reworks a one-answer handbook question, now with five choices. Each choice has to be judged on its own, and a choice that fits the poem as a whole is not enough.

NYS standards
  • 7R6 point of view and author position
  • 7R4 word meaning and choice
Grade level
Grade 6 reading and task
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Typical grade 7 point-of-view questions ask for one answer about a longer text. This stanza is only seven short lines with one steady attitude, but students must find two right choices out of five and judge each one separately.
Estimated difficulty
Moderate: several steps, or a close reading with one strong distractor.
What makes it hard
Evidence
Answered from one paragraph or stanza
Reading level
Passage: 161 words (a poem; reading level not measured); question and choices: about grade 8, 79 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

Most students sense the anger at “the world” in lines 8–14 and find the criticism of people quickly. The point is lost on the second pick, because the other right choice names a technique, vivid details of the mountains’ suffering, and can look like plain description. The choice about comparing methods tempts students who see a list of human actions, and the awe of the first and third stanzas pulls those who drift outside the stanza, while both picks must be right to score.

  1. How, not what moderate Working it out

    The stem asks how the viewpoint is built, and both right choices are methods: a judgment of “the world” that “makes war,” and the vivid verbs “Tunnels,” “Splits” and “Plasters” in lines 11–13. (Anderson & Krathwohl, 2001)

  2. Every choice must be checked moderate Choosing the answer

    All five choices must be tested and both picks must be right, so finding the criticism of people is only half the work; the second right choice is about imagery, not message. (Embretson & Wetzel, 1987)

  3. Hard words minor Understanding the question

    One right choice turns on “plight,” a hard situation; a student who does not know the word cannot see that it names the damage done to the mountains in lines 11–14. (Perfetti, 2007; Freedle & Kostin, 1993)

Strategy: Restate in your own words what lines 8–14 say and how they say it, then test each of the five choices on its own and keep only the two that fit this stanza rather than the whole poem.

Traps

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Working it out, step by step

  1. Figure out what the question asks

    This asks about point of view: how the speaker, the voice talking in the poem, feels about the subject. It also asks how the poet shows that feeling. Stay inside the second stanza, lines 8 to 14. You must pick two answers, so test all five choices one at a time.

  2. Read the second stanza closely

    Line 8 says “But the world heeds them not.” To heed something is to pay attention to it. Here “the world” means people in general. Line 10 says “The world makes war on them.” Lines 11 to 13 list what people do: “Tunnels their granite cliffs, / Splits down their shining sides, / Plasters their cliffs with soap-advertisements.” Line 14 ends with “Destroys the lonely fragments of their peace.”

  3. Name how the speaker feels

    The speaker is on the mountains’ side. People ignore the mountains, yet they keep attacking them. The speaker blames people for this harm. Pointing out what someone does wrong is called criticizing. The speaker also makes you feel sorry for the mountains. Strong action words like “Tunnels,” “Splits” and “Plasters” paint a sharp picture of the damage. Sharp word pictures like these are called vivid details.

  4. Check each of the five choices

    • A does not fit. The mountains’ great size fills the first and third stanzas, as in “Higher and still more high.” In lines 8 to 14 they are only being hurt.
    • B does not fit. The stanza lists several things people do, but it never compares them. They are all part of one “war.”
    • C fits. The speaker criticizes people for careless acts that damage nature.
    • D does not fit. The mountains get nothing good from people. The stanza shows only harm.
    • E fits. A plight is a bad or sad situation. The vivid verbs in lines 11 to 13 show the mountains’ plight.

    Watch out: B is tempting because the stanza names several acts. But a list is not a comparison.

  5. Choose both answers

    The speaker’s view comes through two things: blame for people, and a vivid picture of the mountains’ suffering. Select both choices on the screen. You need both to get the point. So the answers are C and E.

Why this answer and not the closest wrong one

E is the right answer that is easiest to miss, because it can look like plain description. But those vivid details are how the speaker makes you feel for the mountains. B is the closest wrong choice. The stanza does list several human acts, yet it never weighs one against another. Each act is just one more blow.

The original DOE question
Question 4 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 7 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test A English, page 7, question 4.
The passage “Snowy Mountains” as printed (page 142)The passage “Snowy Mountains” as printed on page 142 of the DOE handbook.

Question 2 of 120

2026 Practice Test A English, question 7

Uses the passage above: “Snowy Mountains”.

Question

Which quotations from the poem support the theme that nature’s unspoiled beauty is splendid, and which quotations support the theme that human creations detract from natural wonder?

Move each answer to the correct box.

Choose one answer in each row, then check. The DOE has not published how answers with several parts are scored; this site counts one right only when every part is right.

Nature’s Unspoiled Beauty is SplendidHuman Creations Detract from Natural Wonder
“Above the dingy city-roofs / Blue-white like angels with broad wings,” (lines 3–4)
“Pillars of the sky at rest / The mountains from the great plateau / Uprise.” (lines 5–7)
“Tunnels their granite cliffs, / Splits down their shining sides,” (lines 11–12)
“Wilderness still untamed, / To which the future is as was the past,” (lines 17–18)
“The south horizon of the sky; / Welcoming with wide floors of blue-green ice” (lines 24–25)
Show the answer

Correct answer: “Above the dingy city-roofs / Blue-white like angels with broad wings,” (lines 3–4): Human Creations Detract from Natural Wonder; “Pillars of the sky at rest / The mountains from the great plateau / Uprise.” (lines 5–7): Nature’s Unspoiled Beauty is Splendid; “Tunnels their granite cliffs, / Splits down their shining sides,” (lines 11–12): Human Creations Detract from Natural Wonder; “Wilderness still untamed, / To which the future is as was the past,” (lines 17–18): Nature’s Unspoiled Beauty is Splendid; “The south horizon of the sky; / Welcoming with wide floors of blue-green ice” (lines 24–25): Nature’s Unspoiled Beauty is Splendid

The question identifies two themes and asks which quotations from the poem support each theme. Each quotation should be moved to one of the two boxes: “Nature’s Unspoiled Beauty is Splendid” or “Human Creations Detract from Natural Wonder.”

“Above the dingy city-roofs / Blue-white like angels with broad wings,” (lines 3–4)

This quotation supports the theme that human creations detract from natural wonder. The lines describe the city-roofs as “dingy,” suggesting that they mar the lovely background of the blue-white mountains, which are compared to angels, a simile that vividly conveys the wonder of nature. The description in the lines primarily serves to create a contrast between the city’s unsightly appearance and the beauty of the mountains, thereby providing support for the theme that human creations (i.e. the city) detract from natural wonder.

“Pillars of the sky at rest / The mountains from the great plateau / Uprise.” (lines 5–7)

This quotation supports the theme that nature’s unspoiled beauty is splendid. By describing the mountains as “pillars of the sky” that “uprise” dramatically from a large plateau, the lines primarily convey a sense of the mountains’ dramatic and impressive size. The description suggests that the mountains are holding up the sky, a powerful image of an unspoiled, natural landscape.

“Tunnels their granite cliffs, / Splits down their shining sides,” (lines 11–12)

The quotation supports the theme that human creations detract from natural wonder. The words “tunnels” and “splits” emphasize that human intervention in nature is destructive, breaking apart the “shining sides” of the mountain. These lines suggest that human creations—such as building a tunnel through a mountain—detract from natural wonder, diminishing its beauty and serenity.

“Wilderness still untamed, / To which the future is as was the past,” (lines 17–18)

The quotation supports the theme that nature’s unspoiled beauty is splendid by indicating that the natural mountainous landscape is both splendid and unspoiled (“wilderness still untamed”). The phrase “to which the future is as was the past” suggests that nature in its unspoiled state is timeless or eternal, further supporting the theme.

“The south horizon of the sky; / Welcoming with wide floors of blue-green ice” (lines 24–25)

The quotation supports the theme that nature’s unspoiled beauty is splendid. The reference to the “wide floors of blue-green ice” emphasizes that the landscape is beautiful, and the description in the lines conveys the grandiose splendor of nature, conveying an image of the “south horizon of the sky” majestically “welcoming” one’s eye, inviting appreciation of its unspoiled beauty.

Question analysis

This sorting question on the poem “Snowy Mountains” gives two themes, the splendor of unspoiled nature and the way human creations detract from natural wonder, and asks students to place five quotations under them. The quotations come from all three stanzas. Students make five separate judgments, and a line’s most vivid image is not always the best guide to where it belongs.

NYS standards
  • 7R1 textual evidence and inferences
  • 7R2 theme or central idea
Grade level
Grade 7 reading and task
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Matching quotations to a stated theme is routine grade 7 evidence work, and both themes are given. The added demand is volume: five separate judgments on lines from all three stanzas of old-fashioned verse, each of which must land in the right box.
Estimated difficulty
Moderate: several steps, or a close reading with one strong distractor.
Evidence
Answered from several paragraphs or stanzas
Reading level
Passage: 161 words (a poem; reading level not measured); question and choices: about grade 9, 34 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

Most tiles sort quickly once a student asks whether people appear in the lines. The first tile is the hard one: its angel simile is pure splendor, yet the “dingy city-roofs” beneath it set the city against the peaks, and only that contrast fits the second theme. The tunneling lines hide their human actor outside the tile. With five placements that must all be right, one hasty tile loses the question.

  1. Much to keep track of moderate Working it out

    Five tiles from all three stanzas go into two boxes and every placement must be right, so a student holds both themes in mind while judging each quotation on its own. (Sweller, 1988; Carpenter, Just & Shell, 1990)

  2. Reading between the lines moderate Working it out

    Two tiles name no person: in lines 3–4 the human presence is only the “dingy city-roofs,” and in lines 11–12 the subject, “The world,” sits back in line 10, outside the tile. (Graesser, Singer & Trabasso, 1994; Kintsch, 1998)

  3. Figurative or literary language minor Understanding the question

    The splendor is carried by images rather than statements, the mountains as “angels,” “Pillars of the sky” and “wide floors of blue-green ice,” which students must read as praise of untouched nature. (Graesser, Singer & Trabasso, 1994; Kintsch, 1998)

Strategy: Read each quotation to the end and ask whether it shows something people have made or done; then sort it by what the lines as a whole are about, not by one word.

Traps

  • Supports only part of the claim: In a question about evidence: a line that backs one half of the claim but not the other, or a related point rather than the claim itself.
  • Taking figurative language literally: A choice reads a figure of speech or image at face value.
  • Word match: Repeats striking words or phrases from the text, so it looks supported, but its meaning does not fit the question.

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Working it out, step by step

  1. Figure out what the question asks

    This is a sorting question. You get two themes. A theme is a big idea a poem keeps coming back to. The first theme says nature that people have not spoiled is splendid, which means grand and beautiful. The second says things people make detract from nature, which means they take away from its wonder. For each quotation, ask: does it show something people made or did?

  2. Sort the lines about the city

    Lines 3 and 4 say “Above the dingy city-roofs / Blue-white like angels with broad wings.” The angel picture is beautiful. But right under the mountains are “dingy city-roofs.” Dingy means dirty and dull. City roofs are something people built. The lines set the dirty city against the shining mountains. So this quotation shows a human creation taking away from nature’s wonder.

  3. Sort the lines about the pillars

    Lines 5 to 7 say “Pillars of the sky at rest / The mountains from the great plateau / Uprise.” Pillars are tall posts that hold something up. A plateau is a high, flat stretch of land. The mountains rise up like giant posts holding up the sky. No people appear here. This quotation shows how splendid untouched nature is.

  4. Sort the lines about tunnels

    Lines 11 and 12 say “Tunnels their granite cliffs, / Splits down their shining sides.” These lines do not say who does this. Look back at line 10: “The world makes war on them.” So “the world,” meaning people, cuts tunnels and splits the mountains. The cliffs shine, but people are breaking them. This quotation shows human creations hurting nature.

  5. Sort the last two quotations

    Lines 17 and 18 say “Wilderness still untamed, / To which the future is as was the past.” Untamed means not controlled or changed by people. The second line means the mountains will stay as they always were. Lines 24 and 25 say “The south horizon of the sky; / Welcoming with wide floors of blue-green ice.” That is a picture of sky and ice, with no people in it. Both praise unspoiled nature.

  6. Place each quotation in its box

    • Lines 3–4 (the city roofs): Human Creations Detract from Natural Wonder
    • Lines 5–7 (the pillars): Nature’s Unspoiled Beauty is Splendid
    • Lines 11–12 (the tunnels): Human Creations Detract from Natural Wonder
    • Lines 17–18 (the wilderness): Nature’s Unspoiled Beauty is Splendid
    • Lines 24–25 (the ice): Nature’s Unspoiled Beauty is Splendid

    Drag each tile into its box. All five must be right to get the point.

Why this answer and not the closest wrong one

Lines 3 and 4 are the hardest tile. The angel image alone would fit the first box. But that box is about beauty that is unspoiled. These lines put the dingy city right under the shining peaks. The dirty roofs spoil the view, so the tile belongs in the second box.

The original DOE question
Question 7 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 10 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test A English, page 10, question 7.

Question 3 of 120

2026 Practice Test A English, question 8
Passage The Best Laid Plans of Ravens

The Best Laid Plans of Ravens

In Edgar Allan Poe’s poem “The Raven,” a raven visits a lonely man’s home and responds to the man’s pleading questions with only the word “nevermore.” The poem’s narrator interprets the word as a prediction of doom for his future. A talking, prophetic raven may seem to be the wild imaginings of the poet, but a new study published in the journal Science hints that one particular idea behind the poem might not be as far-fetched as it seems. For most of human history, people assumed that animals do not understand the passage of time in the same way people do. Some people believed that animals might remember events from the past and that instinct might drive them to make preparations in order to guarantee survival, but most people did not think that animals had the ability to plan. At Lund University in Sweden, researchers argue that ravens may be able to think ahead and even plan for the future.

It can be difficult to test an animal’s ability to plan because human observers must be certain they are not mistaking instinctual behavior for intentional planning. For example, many animals hoard food so that they will not run out later, but scientists who study animals would not call hoarding a decision to plan for the future. This action is merely instinctual. Cognitive scientists argue that in order for an animal’s behavior to qualify as preparing for the future, the animal must use specific decision-making skills to solve a problem.

To avoid mistaking instinctual behavior for evidence of decision-making, the Lund University researchers designed two experiments to test ravens’ ability to plan. Ravens belong to the corvid family, a group of birds known for their intelligence. A study in 2007 showed that corvids have the tendency to save only certain types of food, which suggests that they are planning for the future rather than acting on instinct. In order to investigate that theory, the researchers had to design experiments that would achieve results that could not be explained by an instinctual behavior of food hoarding. Therefore, the ravens were taught two behaviors that they do not normally perform in the wild.

For the first experiment, the researchers showed the birds how to use a small stone to open a box and get treats. Once the ravens learned the behavior, the researchers presented the birds with four stones. Only one stone was the right size to open the box. The birds learned to select that stone and set it aside until the researchers presented the box. The second experiment involved bartering. A researcher would trade the ravens a large treat for a bottle cap. Later, the researchers presented the ravens with a group of items, including small treats and the bottle cap. The ravens chose the bottle cap over the treats and waited for the original researcher to trade with them again so that they could get more treats. In both experiments, the ravens waited patiently for up to seventeen hours for the researcher to return.

The results of these experiments are exciting, but more evidence needs to be gathered before scientists can fully conclude that ravens can plan for the future. Some scientists argue that the ravens might be choosing the stone and bottle cap because the ravens have been trained to do so, not necessarily because the ravens are thinking ahead. Regardless, like other recent advances in animal science, these experiments show that ravens could be much smarter than first believed, and scientists now believe that ravens do actually think about their own future.

Question

Read this sentence from paragraph 1.

At Lund University in Sweden, researchers argue that ravens may be able to think ahead and even plan for the future.

Which sentence from paragraph 4 provides support for this argument?

  • A“Once the ravens learned the behavior, the researchers presented the birds with four stones.”
  • B“A researcher would trade the ravens a large treat for a bottle cap.”
  • C“Later, the researchers presented the ravens with a group of items, including small treats and the bottle cap.”
  • D“The ravens chose the bottle cap over the treats and waited for the original researcher to trade with them again so that they could get more treats.”
Show the answer

Correct answer: D

The question asks which sentence from paragraph 4 supports the argument presented in the sentence from paragraph 1.

A. Incorrect. This sentence from paragraph 4 refers to the ravens’ ability to adapt and learn but not to plan and think ahead.

B. Incorrect. This sentence from paragraph 4 relates the actions of the researcher rather than the actions of the ravens and does not provide evidence in support of the argument that ravens have the ability to think and plan ahead.

C. Incorrect. This sentence from paragraph 4 does not describe a behavior of the ravens that would support the argument in the sentence from paragraph 1; instead it relates the actions of the researchers without giving any information about the ravens’ responses.

D. CORRECT. This sentence from paragraph 4 shows that the ravens seem to make a decision, which involves a thought process. The ravens chose to wait for the researcher rather than take the treats, suggesting that the ravens understood that the researcher would trade a larger treat for the bottle cap.

Question analysis

This evidence question on the science article “The Best Laid Plans of Ravens” quotes the claim from paragraph 1 that ravens may be able to think ahead and plan for the future. Students choose the sentence from paragraph 4, where two experiments are described, that supports it. Every choice comes from the same experiments, so each must be weighed against the claim.

NYS standards
  • 7R1 textual evidence and inferences
  • 7R8 evaluating arguments and claims
Grade level
Grade 7 reading and task
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Choosing the sentence that backs a quoted claim is standard grade 7 evidence work. The claim is printed in the question and all four choices come from one paragraph, so the search is short, though each sentence must be tested against the claim.
Estimated difficulty
Straightforward: two steps or one careful reading.
Evidence
Answered from one paragraph or stanza
Reading level
Passage: about grade 11, 599 words; question and choices: about grade 8, 107 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

The claim is about what ravens can do, and only one of the four sentences shows the birds deciding anything. Students who read quickly accept any sentence about the experiments, especially the one where the ravens have just learned a skill, because learning sounds like intelligence. Asking who acts in each sentence, the birds or the researchers, settles the question in seconds.

  1. Reading between the lines minor Working it out

    The right sentence never says “plan”; students must see that choosing the cap over the treats and waiting “so that they could get more treats” is acting now for a later reward. (Graesser, Singer & Trabasso, 1994; Kintsch, 1998)

  2. Every choice must be checked minor Choosing the answer

    All four sentences come from paragraph 4’s experiments, and three of them report what the researchers did, so each must be checked for a decision made by the ravens. (Embretson & Wetzel, 1987)

Strategy: Underline “think ahead” and “plan” in the quoted claim, then ask of each sentence whether it, on its own, would convince a doubter that ravens can do that.

Traps

  • Supports only part of the claim: In a question about evidence: a line that backs one half of the claim but not the other, or a related point rather than the claim itself.
  • True but not the answer: A choice says something accurate about the text that does not answer this question.

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Working it out, step by step

  1. Figure out what the question asks

    This asks for evidence: the sentence that best supports a claim. The claim is that ravens “may be able to think ahead and even plan for the future.” To plan is to decide now what you will do later, so you get something you want. You need a sentence from paragraph 4 that shows ravens doing that.

  2. Ask who acts in each sentence

    Only something the ravens do can prove what ravens can do. So check each choice for its doer. In A, B and C, the researchers do most of the acting. They hand out stones, offer a trade and set out items. Only one sentence shows the ravens making a choice of their own.

  3. Find the ravens’ choice

    Paragraph 4 says “The ravens chose the bottle cap over the treats and waited for the original researcher to trade with them again so that they could get more treats.” The ravens could have eaten a small treat right away. Instead they took a bottle cap, which is worthless by itself. They kept it because the researcher would trade a large treat for it later.

  4. Explain why this shows planning

    The words “so that” give the reason for the choice. The ravens gave up something now to get something better later. That is exactly what planning ahead means. You do the same thing when you save your allowance for a bigger toy next month.

  5. Check each choice

    • A does not fit. The ravens have only learned a skill. The rest of the sentence tells what the researchers did next.
    • B does not fit. It tells what a researcher offered, not what the ravens decided.
    • C does not fit. It is the setup of the test, before the ravens choose anything.
    • D fits. The ravens choose now and wait for a later reward.

    Watch out: A sounds smart because the ravens “learned the behavior.” But being taught a skill is not the same as thinking ahead.

  6. Choose the answer

    Only one sentence shows the ravens making a choice now for a reward later. So the answer is D.

Why this answer and not the closest wrong one

A is the closest wrong choice, because learning a skill sounds clever. But learning to open a box shows only that the birds can be taught. It says nothing about the future. In D, the ravens pass up treats today to get more treats later. That is planning.

The original DOE question
Question 8 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 13 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test A English, page 13, question 8.
The passage “The Best Laid Plans of Ravens” as printed (page 12)The passage “The Best Laid Plans of Ravens” as printed on page 12 of the DOE handbook.

Question 4 of 120

2026 Practice Test A English, question 11

Uses the passage above: “The Best Laid Plans of Ravens”.

Question

How does paragraph 5 fit into the overall structure of the passage and contribute to the development of ideas?

  • AIt introduces a problem with the results of the study at Lund University, suggesting that some scientists believe that further research will not lead to a clear answer.
  • BIt summarizes the final steps of the study at Lund University, emphasizing the difficulties researchers had in differentiating between true planning and practiced actions.
  • CIt provides a conclusion to the information about the Lund University study, indicating that some scientists think further research is needed in order to prove the idea.
  • DIt lists the effects of the study at Lund University, implying that researchers should have designed experiments that better differentiated between planning and instinct.
Show the answer

Correct answer: C

The question asks how paragraph 5 fits into the overall structure of the passage and contributes to the development of ideas.

A. Incorrect. While paragraph 5 states that “more evidence needs to be gathered before scientists can fully conclude that ravens can plan for the future,” this statement suggests that more research is needed, not that the results of the Lund University study are problematic.

B. Incorrect. Paragraph 5 does not discuss steps of the study or emphasize difficulties in determining whether the behaviors shown in the study were planned or practiced; instead it simply suggests that more study is required to make such a determination.

C. CORRECT. Paragraph 5 notes that some doubt remains (“Some scientists argue that the ravens might be choosing the stone and bottle cap because the ravens have been trained to do so, not necessarily because the ravens are thinking ahead”) and that more experimentation is needed; the author concludes that there is reason to believe the originally stated theory that ravens are quite smart and can give thought to how future events may affect them.

D. Incorrect. Paragraph 5 does not list the effects of the study or criticize the experiment for not differentiating between planning and instinct. The paragraph explains why the results of the experiments are not conclusive and emphasizes that more research is needed.

Question analysis

This text-structure question asks how the last paragraph of the article “The Best Laid Plans of Ravens” fits into the passage and develops its ideas. Students must see what that paragraph does once the experiments have been described. Each long choice names a role and then adds a claim, so a choice can begin well and end wrong.

NYS standards
  • 7R5 structure and genre features
  • 7R8 evaluating arguments and claims
Grade level
Grade 7 reading and task
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Explaining the role of a final paragraph is regular grade 7 structure work. The choices are long, though, and each pairs a role with a claim about scientists’ views, so both halves must be checked against a paragraph that mixes doubt with enthusiasm.
Estimated difficulty
Moderate: several steps, or a close reading with one strong distractor.
What makes it hard
Evidence
Answered from several paragraphs or stanzas
Reading level
Passage: about grade 11, 599 words; question and choices: about grade 15, 121 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

Paragraph 5 makes three moves, excitement, doubt and a hopeful conclusion, and each wrong choice builds on one of them and then goes too far. Students who notice the doubt but read past “before scientists can fully conclude” pick the claim that research will never settle the question. Summing up the paragraph before reading the choices, and then checking the second half of each, is what earns the point.

  1. A very close wrong answer moderate Choosing the answer

    The choice about a problem with the results matches the right one in its first half, a doubt raised in paragraph 5, and differs only in claiming that more research will not give a clear answer. (Embretson & Wetzel, 1987; Gorin & Embretson, 2006; Ascalon et al., 2007)

  2. How, not what moderate Working it out

    The question asks what paragraph 5 does in the article, closing the account of the Lund study, so students must name its role rather than repeat its caution about training. (Anderson & Krathwohl, 2001)

  3. A lot to read minor Understanding the question

    The choices run 24 to 28 words, and each pairs a role with a second claim about what scientists or researchers think or did, so both halves of every choice have to be checked. (Kintsch, 1998; Gorin & Embretson, 2006; Freedle & Kostin, 1993)

Strategy: Sum up paragraph 5 in one sentence of your own, then check both parts of each choice, the job it names and the idea it attributes to scientists, against that summary.

Traps

  • Half right: One half of a two-part choice is right and the other is not.
  • Twists what the text says: Uses the text's topic and ideas but changes what it says: who did it, how much, when, or why.
  • Reads too much in: A reasonable-sounding conclusion that goes further than the text allows.

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Working it out, step by step

  1. Figure out what the question asks

    This asks about structure: what job paragraph 5 does in the article. Each choice has two parts, a job and an idea about scientists. Both parts must be right.

  2. See where paragraph 5 sits

    Paragraphs 3 and 4 describe the Lund University experiments. Paragraph 5 is the last paragraph. It comes after the whole study has been described. So it is the place where the author sums up what the study means.

  3. Read what paragraph 5 says

    It opens: “The results of these experiments are exciting, but more evidence needs to be gathered before scientists can fully conclude that ravens can plan for the future.” Next, it says some scientists think the ravens may just be trained. Then it says “Regardless,” the experiments show ravens “could be much smarter than first believed.” Regardless means “even so.”

  4. Put the paragraph in your words

    Paragraph 5 wraps up the study. The results are exciting but not proven yet. More research is needed to be sure. A conclusion is the ending part that sums things up. So paragraph 5 is the conclusion to the study, and it says more evidence is needed.

  5. Check each choice

    • A does not fit. Paragraph 5 does raise a doubt. But it never says more research will fail to give a clear answer.
    • B does not fit. Paragraph 5 describes no steps of the study.
    • C fits. It wraps up the study and says more research is needed.
    • D does not fit. It lists no effects and blames no one. The author calls the results “exciting.”
  6. Choose the answer

    Paragraph 5 ends the story of the study and calls for more evidence. So the answer is C.

Why this answer and not the closest wrong one

A is the closest wrong choice, because its first half is right: paragraph 5 raises a doubt. But A says more research will not lead to a clear answer. The paragraph says more evidence is needed “before scientists can fully conclude,” so research is the way to an answer. C says this.

The original DOE question
Question 11 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 16 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test A English, page 16, question 11.

Question 5 of 120

2026 Practice Test A English, question 13

Uses the passage above: “The Best Laid Plans of Ravens”.

Question

With which statement would the author of the passage most likely agree?

  • AScientists are unlikely to be able to conduct an experiment that can genuinely distinguish between instinctual and learned behaviors in animals.
  • BScientists should continue researching to determine whether or not animals can demonstrate advanced intelligence.
  • CScientists should be careful about making conclusions about animal intelligence based on experiments that rely on training animals.
  • DScientists can confirm data on whether animals have the ability to plan by performing experiments on additional species known for their intelligence.
Show the answer

Correct answer: B

The question asks the reader to choose the statement with which the author of the passage would most likely agree.

A. Incorrect. It is very likely that additional experiments or changes to the experiments presented can help scientists tell the difference between the types of behavior that the animals are showing. The current research supports “other recent advances in animal science” and also shows that ravens are “much smarter” (paragraph 5) than previously believed, making them excellent candidates for further research.

B. CORRECT. As paragraph 5 notes, “more evidence needs to be gathered before scientists can fully conclude that ravens can plan for the future.” The evidence is not yet considered definitive because “some scientists argue that the ravens might be choosing the stone and bottle cap because the ravens have been trained to do so, not necessarily because the ravens are thinking ahead” (paragraph 5). Therefore, more research is needed in order to draw a complete conclusion as to whether or not the animals are demonstrating advanced intelligence or simply the results of training.

C. Incorrect. The passage shows that the scientists did not draw conclusions based on one experiment alone. The passage also states in paragraph 5 that additional research and experiments are necessary in order to obtain conclusive evidence of ravens’ abilities to think and plan ahead.

D. Incorrect. The passage claims that more evidence must be gathered in order to make a claim that animals can definitely plan for the future. The evidence presented helps scientists “believe that ravens do actually think about their own future” (paragraph 5), but more confirmation is needed. The passage does not discuss performing experiments on additional species.

Question analysis

This inference question asks which statement the author of “The Best Laid Plans of Ravens” would most likely agree with. Students must work out the author’s own view of the raven experiments and of research into animal thinking. The article reports more than one viewpoint, so students have to keep track of which ideas belong to the author.

NYS standards
  • 7R6 point of view and author position
  • 7R1 textual evidence and inferences
Grade level
Grade 7 reading and task
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Inferring which statement an author would accept is common grade 7 work. The author’s view is stated fairly plainly in the last paragraph, but that paragraph also reports what other scientists argue, so students must separate the author’s position from theirs.
Estimated difficulty
Moderate: several steps, or a close reading with one strong distractor.
Evidence
Answered from one paragraph or stanza
Reading level
Passage: about grade 11, 599 words; question and choices: about grade 15, 87 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

The passage reports several opinions, and the hard part is telling which one is the author’s. Students who notice the training objection in paragraph 5 often adopt it as the author’s warning, but “Regardless” shows the author weighing it and moving on to a hopeful view that still calls for more evidence. The other wrong choices either turn “difficult” into “unlikely” or bring in research the article never mentions.

  1. Reading between the lines moderate Working it out

    The author’s view is never stated as advice; it has to be read from paragraph 5, where “more evidence needs to be gathered” is followed by “Regardless” and a hopeful conclusion. (Graesser, Singer & Trabasso, 1994; Kintsch, 1998)

  2. A very close wrong answer moderate Choosing the answer

    The choice about caution with experiments that train animals shares the right one’s careful stance and differs in one detail, training, the objection the author raises only to set aside. (Embretson & Wetzel, 1987; Gorin & Embretson, 2006; Ascalon et al., 2007)

  3. Much to keep track of minor Working it out

    The article mixes four voices, what people long assumed, the Lund researchers, “some scientists” who doubt them and the author, and each statement must be traced to the right one. (Sweller, 1988; Carpenter, Just & Shell, 1990)

Strategy: Find the sentences where the author speaks in their own voice, especially in paragraph 5, and pick the statement that follows from them without adding claims the article never makes.

Traps

  • Wrong tone or attitude: Misjudges the tone, attitude or point of view, such as reading admiration as criticism, or taking a character's or subject's feelings for the author's.
  • Too broad or too strong: A choice overstates, generalizes, or uses absolute words the text does not support.
  • Outside knowledge: A choice is plausible in the real world but not supported by this text.

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Working it out, step by step

  1. Figure out what the question asks

    This asks which statement the author would most likely agree with. You must find the author’s own view. The article also reports what other people think, so keep those ideas apart.

  2. Sort out the voices in paragraph 5

    Paragraph 5 says “Some scientists argue that the ravens might be choosing the stone and bottle cap because the ravens have been trained to do so.” That is what other scientists think. The author’s own words are “The results of these experiments are exciting, but more evidence needs to be gathered.”

  3. Put the author’s view in plain words

    The author thinks the research is promising but not finished. After the doubt, the author says “Regardless,” which means “even so,” and stays hopeful. So the author wants scientists to keep studying until they can be sure.

  4. Check each choice

    • A does not fit. The author never says a good test is unlikely. The author finds the results exciting.
    • B fits. The author says more evidence must be gathered.
    • C does not fit. The worry about training belongs to “some scientists.” The author sets it aside with “Regardless.”
    • D does not fit. The article never mentions testing other kinds of animals.

    Watch out: C sounds careful, like a scientist. But it repeats the other scientists’ view, not the author’s.

  5. Choose the answer

    The author wants scientists to keep gathering evidence before anyone decides. So the answer is B.

Why this answer and not the closest wrong one

C is the closest wrong choice. It sounds careful, and the author is careful too. But the warning about training comes from “some scientists.” The author answers it with “Regardless” and stays hopeful. The author’s own point is that “more evidence needs to be gathered.” That matches B.

The original DOE question
Question 13 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 18 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test A English, page 18, question 13.

Question 6 of 120

2026 Practice Test A English, question 15
Passage Excerpt from A Voice in the Wilderness

Excerpt from A Voice in the Wilderness

by Grace Livingston Hill

With a lurch the train came to a dead stop and Margaret Earle, hastily gathering up her belongings, hurried down the aisle and got out into the night.

It occurred to her, as she swung her heavy suit-case down the rather long step to the ground, and then carefully swung herself after it, that it was strange that neither conductor, brakeman, nor porter had come to help her off the train, when all three had taken the trouble to tell her that hers was the next station; but she could hear voices up ahead. Perhaps something was the matter with the engine that detained them and they had forgotten her for the moment.

The ground was rough where she stood, and there seemed no sign of a platform. Did they not have platforms in this wild Western land, or was the train so long that her car had stopped before reaching it?

She strained her eyes into the darkness, and tried to make out things from the two or three specks of light that danced about like fireflies in the distance. She could dimly see moving figures away up near the engine, and each one evidently carried a lantern. The train was tremendously long. A sudden feeling of isolation took possession of her. Perhaps she ought not to have got out until some one came to help her. Perhaps the train had not pulled into the station yet and she ought to get back on it and wait. Yet if the train started before she found the conductor she might be carried on somewhere and he justly blame her for a fool.

There did not seem to be any building on that side of the track. It was probably on the other, but she was standing too near the cars to see over. She tried to move back to look, but the ground sloped and she slipped and fell in the cinders1^1, bruising her knee and cutting her wrist.

In sudden panic she arose. She would get back into the train, no matter what the consequences. They had no right to put her out here, away off from the station, at night, in a strange country. If the train started before she could find the conductor she would tell him that he must back it up again and let her off. He certainly could not expect her to get out like this.

She lifted the heavy suit-case up the high step that was even farther from the ground than it had been when she came down, because her fall had loosened some of the earth and caused it to slide away from the track. Then, reaching to the rail of the step, she tried to pull herself up, but as she did so the engine gave a long snort and the whole train, as if it were in league against her, lurched forward crazily, shaking off her hold. She slipped to her knees again, the suit-case, toppled from the lower step, descending upon her, and together they slid and rolled down the short bank, while the train . . . ran giddily off into the night.

The horror of being deserted helped the girl to rise in spite of bruises and shock. She lifted imploring hands to the unresponsive cars as they hurried by her—one, two, three, with bright windows, each showing a passenger, comfortable and safe inside, unconscious of her need.

A moment of useless screaming, running, trying to attract some one’s attention, a sickening sense of terror and failure, and the last car slatted itself past with a mocking clatter, as if it enjoyed her discomfort.

Margaret stood dazed, reaching out helpless hands, then dropped them at her sides and gazed after the fast-retreating train, the light on its last car swinging tauntingly, blinking now and then with a leer in its eye, rapidly vanishing from her sight into the depth of the night.

She gasped and looked about her for the station that but a short moment before had been so real to her mind; and, lo! on this side and on that there was none!

The night was wide like a great floor shut in by a low, vast dome of curving blue set with the largest, most wonderful stars she had ever seen. Heavy shadows of purple-green, smoke-like, hovered over earth darker and more intense than the unfathomable blue of the night sky. It seemed like the secret nesting-place of mysteries wherein no human foot might dare intrude. It was incredible that such could be but common sage-brush, sand, and greasewood wrapped about with the beauty of the lonely night.

No building broke the inky outlines of the plain, nor friendly light streamed out to cheer her heart. Not even a tree was in sight, except on the far horizon, where a heavy line of deeper darkness might mean a forest. Nothing, absolutely nothing, in the blue, deep, starry dome above and the bluer darkness of the earth below save one sharp shaft ahead like a black mast throwing out a dark arm across the track.

As soon as she sighted it she picked up her baggage and made her painful way toward it, for her knees and wrist were bruised and her baggage was heavy.

A soft drip, drip greeted her as she drew nearer; something plashing down among the cinders by the track. Then she saw the tall column with its arm outstretched, and looming darker among the sage-brush the outlines of a water-tank. It was so she recognized the engine’s drinking-tank, and knew that she had mistaken a pause to water the engine for a regular stop at a station.

1^1cinders: track bed made from the residue of burnt coal

From A VOICE IN THE WILDERNESS by Grace Livingston Hill—Public Domain

Question

Which sentence from the excerpt best supports the idea that Margaret is unaccustomed to traveling to new places by train?

  • A“With a lurch the train came to a dead stop and Margaret Earle, hastily gathering up her belongings, hurried down the aisle and got out into the night.” (paragraph 1)
  • B“Perhaps something was the matter with the engine that detained them and they had forgotten her for the moment.” (paragraph 2)
  • C“Did they not have platforms in this wild Western land, or was the train so long that her car had stopped before reaching it?” (paragraph 3)
  • D“She could dimly see moving figures away up near the engine, and each one evidently carried a lantern.” (paragraph 4)
Show the answer

Correct answer: C

The question asks for evidence from the excerpt that best supports the idea that Margaret is unfamiliar with traveling to new places by train.

A. Incorrect. Margaret’s actions in the sentence from paragraph 1 are decisive as she gathers her belongings to exit the train; she is familiar with rail travel.

B. Incorrect. In the sentence from paragraph 2, Margaret is using her knowledge about trains to attempt to interpret the actions of others; she is familiar with trains, even if a particular destination has not been mentioned.

C. CORRECT. If Margaret has never traveled to this region by train before, she must guess or attempt to interpret what she sees. This idea is best represented in the sentence in paragraph 3 where she questions whether the stations in the West have platforms.

D. Incorrect. While the sentence from paragraph 4 shows that Margaret is trying to better understand her situation in the darkness, her ability to identify the train’s engine and the figures carrying lanterns indicates some familiarity with her mode of travel.

Question analysis

Students choose the sentence from Grace Livingston Hill’s A Voice in the Wilderness that best supports the idea that Margaret is unaccustomed to traveling to new places by train. The four choices come from paragraphs 1–4, as she steps down from the train into the dark. Each reveals something about her, so students must test them against this one idea.

NYS standards
  • 7R1 textual evidence and inferences
Grade level
Grade 7 reading and task
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 A typical grade 7 evidence task: the four quotations come from the opening paragraphs and carry paragraph numbers. The challenge is that several show Margaret unsure of herself, so students must match the specific idea in the claim, not any sign of doubt.
Estimated difficulty
Moderate: several steps, or a close reading with one strong distractor.
Evidence
Answered from several paragraphs or stanzas
Reading level
Passage: about grade 8, 981 words; question and choices: about grade 11, 113 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

Uncertainty runs through all four quotations, so the general mood of the opening cannot pick the answer. The claim is specific, a traveler new to such places, and only one sentence ties her confusion to the region itself rather than to a delay, the darkness or her haste. Students who match feelings instead of the claim usually settle on her guess about engine trouble.

  1. Every choice must be checked moderate Choosing the answer

    All four quotations, from paragraphs 1 to 4, show Margaret unsure in the dark, so each has to be tested against the narrower idea of someone new to this kind of journey. (Embretson & Wetzel, 1987)

  2. Reading between the lines minor Working it out

    No sentence says Margaret is new to the West; students must infer it from her puzzled question whether stations in “this wild Western land” lack platforms. (Graesser, Singer & Trabasso, 1994; Kintsch, 1998)

Strategy: Restate the claim in your own words, then ask of each quotation whether it proves that idea specifically or only shows some other feeling Margaret has at that moment.

Traps

  • Supports only part of the claim: In a question about evidence: a line that backs one half of the claim but not the other, or a related point rather than the claim itself.

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Working it out, step by step

  1. Figure out what the question asks

    This asks for evidence: the sentence that best supports an idea. The idea is that Margaret is unaccustomed to traveling to new places by train. Unaccustomed means not used to something. So look for a sentence where a new place puzzles her.

  2. Notice what the choices share

    All four sentences come from paragraphs 1 to 4, just after Margaret steps off the train at night. In most of them she is unsure. So feeling unsure is not enough. The right sentence must tie her confusion to the strange place itself.

  3. Look closely at paragraph 3

    Paragraph 3 asks “Did they not have platforms in this wild Western land, or was the train so long that her car had stopped before reaching it?” A platform is the raised floor beside the tracks where people get on and off. Margaret wonders if stations out West even have them. She does not know how things work in this region. That shows she is not used to traveling here.

  4. Check each choice

    • A does not fit. She is “hastily gathering up her belongings,” which means in a hurry. She knows what to do when her stop comes.
    • B does not fit. Guessing about engine trouble is how someone who knows trains would think.
    • C fits. She does not know what stations are like in this new land.
    • D does not fit. The dark makes it hard to see. Yet she still picks out the engine and the lanterns.

    Watch out: B begins with “Perhaps,” so it sounds unsure. But her doubt is about the train, not the place.

  5. Choose the answer

    Only the question about platforms shows that this place is unfamiliar to her. So the answer is C.

Why this answer and not the closest wrong one

B is the closest wrong choice, since Margaret is unsure in it too. But there she reasons like an experienced rider: maybe the engine broke down. In C, she wonders what stations are like in “this wild Western land.” Only C shows a traveler who is not used to new places.

The original DOE question
Question 15 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 23 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test A English, page 23, question 15.
The passage “Excerpt from A Voice in the Wilderness” as printed (pages 128–129)The passage “Excerpt from A Voice in the Wilderness” as printed on page 128 of the DOE handbook.The passage “Excerpt from A Voice in the Wilderness” as printed on page 129 of the DOE handbook.

Question 7 of 120

2026 Practice Test A English, question 19

Uses the passage above: “Excerpt from A Voice in the Wilderness”.

Question

How does paragraph 11 contribute to the plot of the excerpt?

  • AIt reveals that the reality of the situation is different from Margaret’s assumptions.
  • BIt illustrates that Margaret’s main problem is her own imagination.
  • CIt shows that Margaret is surprised by the unexpected adventure she is about to undertake.
  • DIt provides insight into how Margaret reacts to stressful situations.
Show the answer

Correct answer: A

The question asks how paragraph 11 contributes to the plot of the excerpt.

A. CORRECT. In paragraph 5, Margaret assumes there is a station (“It was probably on the other [side], but she was standing too near the cars to see”), but in paragraph 11, the station that had been “so real” in Margaret’s mind actually does not exist.

B. Incorrect. Margaret’s main problem is not that her imagination has led her astray but rather that her inexperience with this train route has caused her to misinterpret the events that have occurred. Paragraph 11 reveals that she has been acting on faulty assumptions; however, her assumptions are somewhat justified by the events that have occurred.

C. Incorrect. While Margaret seems somewhat in awe of her surroundings in paragraph 12 and she “gasped” in paragraph 11, her exclamation is one of shock at the discovery, not surprise over an unexpected adventure.

D. Incorrect. While paragraph 11 describes how Margaret responds to the distressing situation that her actions and decisions have created, the paragraph does not offer insight into how Margaret generally responds to problems or conflicts.

Question analysis

This plot-structure question asks how paragraph 11 of A Voice in the Wilderness, a single exclaiming sentence that begins “She gasped,” contributes to the plot once Margaret is alone beside the track. Students relate the paragraph to what comes before and after it. Its archaic phrasing, with “lo!” and an inverted clause, makes the plain meaning harder to see.

NYS standards
  • 7R5 structure and genre features
  • 7R3 plot elements and ideas
Grade level
Grade 7 reading and task
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Explaining what a single paragraph adds to a plot is standard grade 7 structure work. Paragraph 11 is one short sentence, but its old-fashioned exclamation has to be linked to the paragraphs around it, which adds a step.
Estimated difficulty
Moderate: several steps, or a close reading with one strong distractor.
What makes it hard
Evidence
Answered from several paragraphs or stanzas
Reading level
Passage: about grade 8, 981 words; question and choices: about grade 10, 58 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

Paragraph 11 is a single exclaiming sentence whose job is to overturn what Margaret, and the reader, have believed since she stepped down. Students who link it to her earlier guesses about a platform and a building see the reversal at once. Those who read it alone fasten on her gasp or on the words “so real to her mind,” and choose a reading about her character or her imagination rather than the plot.

  1. Evidence in several places moderate Working it out

    The assumption the paragraph overturns was built earlier: in paragraph 3 she wonders about a platform, and in paragraph 5 she decides the station is “probably on the other” side. (Kirsch & Mosenthal, 1990; Gorin & Embretson, 2006)

  2. A very close wrong answer moderate Choosing the answer

    The choice about her imagination and the right one both describe a gap between what Margaret pictured and what is there; they differ on whether the fault lies in her mind or in the missing station. (Embretson & Wetzel, 1987; Gorin & Embretson, 2006; Ascalon et al., 2007)

  3. Hard words minor Understanding the question

    The paragraph announces its reversal in old-fashioned words, “lo! on this side and on that there was none,” which students unused to such phrasing may read past. (Perfetti, 2007; Freedle & Kostin, 1993)

Strategy: Translate paragraph 11 into plain modern English, reread the paragraphs just before and after it, and judge each choice by what this paragraph itself shows.

Traps

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Working it out, step by step

  1. Figure out what the question asks

    This asks how paragraph 11 moves the plot, the chain of events, forward. What changes for Margaret in this paragraph?

  2. Read paragraph 11

    Paragraph 11 is one sentence: “She gasped and looked about her for the station that but a short moment before had been so real to her mind; and, lo! on this side and on that there was none!”

  3. Put it in plain words

    “Lo!” is an old word that means “Look!” The words “on this side and on that there was none” mean there was no station on either side of the track. Earlier, in paragraph 5, she guessed the building “was probably on the other” side. An assumption is something you believe without checking. Now she sees that her assumption was wrong. There is no station at all.

  4. Check each choice

    • A fits. What she assumed, a station, is different from what is real, no station.
    • B does not fit. Her imagination is not the problem. The missing station is a real problem.
    • C does not fit. Her gasp is shock, not excitement about an adventure.
    • D does not fit. She gasps, but the paragraph’s job is the discovery. It does not show how she usually handles stress.
  5. Choose the answer

    Paragraph 11 shows that the station Margaret counted on is not there. So the answer is A.

Why this answer and not the closest wrong one

B is the closest wrong choice. Both A and B notice a gap between what Margaret pictured and what is there. But B blames her imagination. Her trouble is real: there is no station, and the train is gone. A says what the paragraph does. It shows the truth is different from what she assumed.

The original DOE question
Question 19 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 27 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test A English, page 27, question 19.

Question 8 of 120

2026 Practice Test A English, question 29
Passage Excerpt from “The Spirit of the Herd”

Excerpt from “The Spirit of the Herd”

by Dallas Lore Sharp

In this excerpt, published in 1914, author and professor Dallas Lore Sharp describes a summer cattle roundup in Oregon. The heat and dust had been relentless for three days. The cowboys were exhausted, and the cattle were restless. The ranch boss, Wade, had led the drive to a watering place, only to find it empty.

Along with the wagon had come the fresh horses—one of them being Peroxide Jim, a supple, powerful, clean-limbed buckskin, a horse, I think, that had as fine and intelligent an animal-face as any creature I ever saw. Wade had been saving this horse for emergency work. And why should he not have been saved fresh for just such a need as this? Are there not superior horses as well as superior men—a Peroxide Jim to complement a Wade?

The horse knew the cattle business and knew his rider perfectly; and though there was nothing like sentiment about the boss of the P Ranch riders, his faith in Peroxide Jim was complete. . . .

The desert, where the herd was camped, was one of the highest of a series of tablelands, or benches; it lay as level as a floor, rimmed by sheer rock, from which there was a drop to the bench of sage below. The herd when overtaken by the dusk had been headed for a pass descending to the next lower bench, but was now halted within a mile of the rim rock on the east, where there was a perpendicular fall of about three hundred feet. . . .

In the taut silence of the stirless desert night, with the tension of the herd at the snapping-point, any quick, unwonted sight or sound would stampede them. The sneezing of a horse, the flare of a match, would be enough to send the whole four thousand headlong—blind, frenzied, trampling—till spent and scattered over the plain.

And so, as he rode, Wade began to sing. The rider ahead of him took up the air and passed it on until, above the stepping stir of the hoofs rose the faint voices of the men, and all the herd was bound about by the slow plaintive measures of some old song. It was not to soothe their savage breasts that the riders sang to the cattle, but rather to preempt the dreaded silence, to relieve the tension, and so to prevent the shock of any sudden startling noise.

So they sang and rode and the night wore on to one o’clock, when Wade, coming up on the rim-rock side, felt a cool breeze fan his face, and caught a breath of fresh, moist wind with the taste of water in it.

He checked his horse instantly, listening as the wind swept past him over the cattle. But they must already have smelled it, for they had ceased their milling, the whole herd standing motionless, the indistinct forms close to him in the dark showing their bald faces lifted to drink the sweet wet breath that came over the rim. Then they started on again, but faster, and with a rumbling now from their hoarse throats that tightened Wade’s grip on the reins.

The sound seemed to come out of the earth, a low, rumbling mumble, as dark as the night and as wide as the plain, a thick, inarticulate bellow that stood every rider stiff in his stirrups. . . .

Then the breeze caught the dust and carried it back from the gray-coated, ghostly shapes, and Wade saw that the animals were still moving in a circle. He must keep them going. He touched his horse to ride on with them, when across the black sky flashed a vivid streak of lightning.

There was a snort from the steers, a quick clap of horns and hoofs from far within the herd, a tremor of the plain, a roar, a surging mass—and Wade was riding the flank of a wild stampede. Before him, behind him, beside him, pressing hard upon his horse, galloped the frenzied steers, and beyond them a multitude borne on, and bearing him on, by the heave of the galloping herd.

Wade was riding for his life. He knew it. His horse knew it. He was riding to turn the herd, too, back from the rim, as the horse also knew. The cattle were after water—water-mad—ready to go over the precipice to get it, carrying horse and rider with them. Wade was the only rider between the herd and the rim. It was black as death. He could see nothing in the sage, could scarcely discern the pounding, panting shadows at his side. He knew that he was being borne toward the rim, how fast he could not tell, but he knew by the swish of the brush against his tapaderos and the plunging of the horse that the ground was growing stonier, that they were nearing the rocks.

To outrun the herd was his only chance for life. If he could come up with the leaders he might not only escape, but even stand a chance of heading them off upon the plain and saving the herd. There were cattle still ahead of him; how many, what part of them all, he could not make out in the dark. But the horse knew. The reins hung on his straight neck, where his rider had dropped them, as, yelling and firing over the wild herd, he had given this horse the race to win, to lose.

They were riding the rim. Close on their left bore down the flank of the herd, and on their right, under their very feet, was a precipice, so close that they felt its blackness—its three hundred feet of fall! . . .

. . . Then Wade found himself racing neck and neck with a big white steer, which the horse, with marvelous instinct, seemed to pick out from a bunch, and to cling to, forcing him gradually ahead, till, cutting him free from the bunch entirely, he bore him off into the swishing sage.

The steers coming on close behind followed their leader, and in, after them, swung others. The tide was turning from the rim. More and more were veering, and within a short time the whole herd, bearing off from the cliffs, was pounding over the open plains.

Whose race was it? It was Peroxide Jim’s, according to Wade, for not by word or by touch of hand or knee had the horse been directed in the run. From the flash of the lightning the horse had taken the bit, had covered an indescribably perilous path at top speed, had outrun the herd and turned it from the edge of the rim rock, without a false step or a tremor of fear.

From “The Spirit of the Herd” by Dallas Lore Sharp—Public Domain

tablelands: plateaus, flat areas of land sharply elevated from the surrounding area
tapaderos: leather covers for stirrups

Question

Which sentence from the excerpt best explains why Wade reserved Peroxide Jim for “emergency work” (paragraph 1)?

  • A“Are there not superior horses as well as superior men—a Peroxide Jim to complement a Wade?” (paragraph 1)
  • B“Before him, behind him, beside him, pressing hard upon his horse, galloped the frenzied steers, and beyond them a multitude borne on, and bearing him on, by the heave of the galloping herd.” (paragraph 10)
  • C“He knew that he was being borne toward the rim, how fast he could not tell, but he knew by the swish of the brush against his tapaderos and the plunging of the horse that the ground was growing stonier, that they were nearing the rocks.” (paragraph 11)
  • D“From the flash of the lightning the horse had taken the bit, had covered an indescribably perilous path at top speed, had outrun the herd and turned it from the edge of the rim rock, without a false step or a tremor of fear.” (paragraph 16)
Show the answer

Correct answer: D

The question asks which sentence from the excerpt best explains why Wade reserved Peroxide Jim for “emergency work” (paragraph 1).

A. Incorrect. While the sentence from paragraph 1 refers to Peroxide Jim as being a superior horse, it does not tell why he would be useful in an emergency. The mention of Peroxide Jim’s superiority does not describe the attributes that would make him an appealing choice for use in an emergency.

B. Incorrect. The sentence from paragraph 10 does not describe the actions of Peroxide Jim. The sentence describes what Wade and the horse were experiencing, but it does not include any reference to how Peroxide Jim was responding to the situation.

C. Incorrect. The sentence from paragraph 11 describes Wade’s experiences and does not focus on the actions of Peroxide Jim. It reveals Wade’s awareness of the danger he was in, but the only reference to Peroxide Jim in this sentence is the description of the horse having to work harder to run on the stonier ground as they neared the edge: from “the plunging of the horse,” Wade knew “that the ground was growing stonier, that they were nearing the rocks.” This quotation does not show that Peroxide Jim was the right horse to use for emergency work because it does not indicate, at this point in the text, that he was responding in a way that saved the herd or Wade.

D. CORRECT. The sentence from paragraph 16 describes Peroxide Jim’s high level of skill and ability to perform in a life-and-death situation. Not only did Peroxide Jim recognize the emergency immediately (“From the flash of the lightning the horse had taken the bit”), but the horse also proved to have the physical capability (“had covered an indescribably perilous path at top speed, had outrun the herd and turned it from the edge of the rim rock”) and the mental toughness (“without a false step or a tremor of fear”) required to respond appropriately to the dangerous situation.

Question analysis

This evidence question on Dallas Lore Sharp’s “The Spirit of the Herd,” a 1914 account of a night stampede on an Oregon cattle drive, asks which sentence best explains why the ranch boss Wade kept his horse Peroxide Jim for “emergency work.” The four quoted sentences come from different parts of the excerpt and are long, so the choice takes careful reading.

NYS standards
  • 7R1 textual evidence and inferences
  • 7R3 plot elements and ideas
Grade level
Grade 8 reading and task
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Finding the sentence that best explains a detail is regular grade 7 evidence work. The four quotations, though, are long sentences from across a dense excerpt written in 1914, so the reading load is heavier than usual.
Estimated difficulty
Moderate: several steps, or a close reading with one strong distractor.
Evidence
Answered from the whole text
Reading level
Passage: about grade 8, 1160 words; question and choices: about grade 13, 160 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

The question links the start of the excerpt to its end, and the nearest quotation is the most tempting: the narrator’s rhetorical question about “superior horses” sits beside the phrase and seems to explain it. It praises the horse without showing what he can do. The two stampede sentences show the emergency itself, so the point goes to students who look for the horse acting on his own and find it in the final paragraph.

  1. Evidence in several places moderate Working it out

    The phrase “emergency work” is in paragraph 1, but the proof of the horse’s worth comes only at the very end, in paragraph 16, after the stampede has been turned. (Kirsch & Mosenthal, 1990; Gorin & Embretson, 2006)

  2. A lot to read minor Understanding the question

    Three of the quotations run 33 to 46 words, and two of them describe the stampede in vivid detail without saying what the horse does, so sorting them takes time. (Kintsch, 1998; Gorin & Embretson, 2006; Freedle & Kostin, 1993)

  3. Reading between the lines minor Working it out

    Students must decide what an emergency horse needs, speed, nerve and judgment without a rider’s guidance, before the last sentence reads as an answer to paragraph 1. (Graesser, Singer & Trabasso, 1994; Kintsch, 1998)

Strategy: Decide what a horse saved for emergencies would need to be able to do, then pick the quotation that gives the clearest proof that Peroxide Jim can do it.

Traps

  • Supports only part of the claim: In a question about evidence: a line that backs one half of the claim but not the other, or a related point rather than the claim itself.
  • True but not the answer: A choice says something accurate about the text that does not answer this question.

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Working it out, step by step

  1. Figure out what the question asks

    This asks for evidence. In paragraph 1, Wade was saving Peroxide Jim for “emergency work.” Which sentence best explains why? You need a sentence that shows what this horse can do when something goes wrong.

  2. Decide what to look for

    An emergency is a sudden, dangerous event. A horse saved for one should be fast, steady and smart. It should act quickly when things go wrong. So look for the sentence that shows the horse himself doing that.

  3. Read the last sentence of the excerpt

    Paragraph 16 says “From the flash of the lightning the horse had taken the bit, had covered an indescribably perilous path at top speed, had outrun the herd and turned it from the edge of the rim rock, without a false step or a tremor of fear.”

  4. Put the sentence in plain words

    The bit is the metal bar in a horse’s mouth that the reins attach to. A horse that “had taken the bit” runs on its own. Perilous means dangerous. A tremor is a small shake. So the moment the stampede began, the horse took charge. He raced along a dangerous path, got ahead of the herd and turned it from the cliff. He never stumbled or showed fear.

  5. Check each choice

    • A does not fit. It calls him “superior,” but it shows no skill.
    • B does not fit. It shows the stampede, but not how the horse handles it.
    • C does not fit. It is about Wade sensing the rocks ahead.
    • D fits. It shows the horse saving the herd in a real emergency.

    Watch out: A sits right next to “emergency work” in paragraph 1, so it seems to explain it. But praise is not proof.

  6. Choose the answer

    The last sentence shows exactly why the horse was worth saving for emergencies. So the answer is D.

Why this answer and not the closest wrong one

A is the closest wrong choice. It sits beside the words “emergency work” and praises the horse. But calling a horse “superior” does not say what it can do. D shows the horse in action: fast, sure-footed and fearless in a real emergency. That explains why Wade saved him.

The original DOE question
Question 29 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 42 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test A English, page 42, question 29.
The passage “Excerpt from “The Spirit of the Herd”” as printed (page 41)The passage “Excerpt from “The Spirit of the Herd”” as printed on page 41 of the DOE handbook.

Question 9 of 120

2026 Practice Test A English, question 30

Uses the passage above: “Excerpt from “The Spirit of the Herd””.

Question

Paragraphs 1–2 contribute to the development of the central idea of the excerpt by

  • Arevealing the respect Wade had for his horse.
  • Bemphasizing Wade’s high expectations of his horse and himself.
  • Cindicating that Wade and his horse understood the cattle business.
  • Ddemonstrating Wade’s ability to gauge a horse’s competence.
Show the answer

Correct answer: A

The question asks how paragraphs 1–2 contribute to the development of the central idea of the excerpt.

A. CORRECT. The description of Peroxide Jim in paragraph 1 indicates that the horse was a fine animal (“Along with the wagon had come the fresh horses—one of them being Peroxide Jim, a supple, powerful, clean-limbed buckskin, a horse, I think, that had as fine and intelligent an animal-face as any creature I ever saw” [paragraph 1]). The statement in paragraph 2 that Wade’s “faith in Peroxide Jim was complete” supports the central idea of the excerpt that Wade believed in Peroxide Jim’s abilities even before the horse turned the herd and saved the cattle.

B. Incorrect. Paragraphs 1–2 do not emphasize Wade’s high expectations for himself, nor are these expectations a central idea of the excerpt. The narrator expresses a high opinion of Wade’s abilities in his comparison of Peroxide Jim and Wade, referring to the horse as a “complement” (paragraph 1) for Wade; however, Wade showed complete trust in the horse’s ability to save the herd without his help, as evidenced by Wade dropping the reins to allow the horse to control the situation (paragraph 12).

C. Incorrect. The paragraphs refer to Peroxide Jim’s ability to handle cattle; in fact, paragraph 2 says that “the horse knew the cattle business.” It can be inferred that Wade had this knowledge as well, but this idea is not the focus of paragraphs 1–2 and is not the central idea of the excerpt.

D. Incorrect. Wade’s ability to judge a horse’s competence is not a central idea of the excerpt. The event described in the text is proof that Wade knew how to judge a horse’s ability: Wade trusted Peroxide Jim, and Peroxide Jim did not let him down. The option puts the focus on Wade and one of his strengths, when the central idea and focus of the excerpt is Peroxide Jim’s abilities and strengths, not Wade’s.

Question analysis

This central-idea question asks how the first two paragraphs of “The Spirit of the Herd,” which introduce the buckskin horse Peroxide Jim and the ranch boss Wade, contribute to the excerpt’s central idea. Students connect these opening details to the story of the stampede that follows. The narrator’s old-fashioned rhetorical questions can make the paragraphs’ point hard to pin down.

NYS standards
  • 7R5 structure and genre features
  • 7R2 theme or central idea
Grade level
Grade 8 reading and task
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Explaining how opening paragraphs build a central idea is typical grade 7 work. The two paragraphs are short, but the narrator’s rhetorical questions and old-fashioned phrasing must be decoded, and the central idea must come from the rest of the excerpt.
Estimated difficulty
Moderate: several steps, or a close reading with one strong distractor.
What makes it hard
Evidence
Answered from several paragraphs or stanzas
Reading level
Passage: about grade 8, 1160 words; question and choices: about grade 9, 48 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

The opening paragraphs talk about both Wade and his horse, so every choice can find a foothold in them. The question turns on the excerpt as a whole, which ends by giving the race to Peroxide Jim, and only Wade’s regard for the horse points toward that ending. Students lose the point by picking a skill of Wade’s own, which his trust only implies, or by repeating “knew the cattle business,” a line said of the horse alone.

  1. Reading between the lines moderate Working it out

    Respect is never named; it must be read from Wade “saving this horse for emergency work” and from his “faith in Peroxide Jim” being “complete” in paragraph 2. (Graesser, Singer & Trabasso, 1994; Kintsch, 1998)

  2. How, not what moderate Working it out

    The question asks how two opening paragraphs serve the excerpt’s central idea, so students must know where the story ends, with the race credited to the horse, before judging them. (Anderson & Krathwohl, 2001)

  3. Complex sentences minor Understanding the question

    Paragraph 1 makes its point through two old-fashioned rhetorical questions, beginning “And why should he not” and “Are there not superior horses,” whose answers students must supply. (Abedi & Lord, 2001; Freedle & Kostin, 1993; Messick, 1989)

Strategy: Restate paragraphs 1 and 2 in plain words, decide what the excerpt as a whole is mainly about, and pick the option that links the two.

Traps

  • Half right: One half of a two-part choice is right and the other is not.
  • Word match: Repeats striking words or phrases from the text, so it looks supported, but its meaning does not fit the question.
  • Reads too much in: A reasonable-sounding conclusion that goes further than the text allows.

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Working it out, step by step

  1. Figure out what the question asks

    This asks how paragraphs 1 and 2 help build the central idea. The central idea is the most important idea of the whole excerpt. So first find the central idea. Then see how the opening leads to it.

  2. Find the central idea

    The excerpt ends in paragraph 16: “Whose race was it? It was Peroxide Jim’s, according to Wade.” The horse saved the herd on his own, and Wade gives him the credit. The central idea is that Peroxide Jim is a remarkable horse who earns Wade’s trust.

  3. Read paragraphs 1 and 2

    Paragraph 1 says “Wade had been saving this horse for emergency work.” Paragraph 2 says “though there was nothing like sentiment about the boss of the P Ranch riders, his faith in Peroxide Jim was complete.”

  4. Work out what they show

    Sentiment means soft, tender feelings. Wade was a tough boss, not a soft one. Faith means trust. Even so, he trusted this horse completely. Saving the horse for the hardest jobs shows the same respect. The rest of the excerpt proves that respect was deserved.

  5. Check each choice

    • A fits. The paragraphs show how much Wade respected his horse.
    • B does not fit. They never say what Wade expects of himself.
    • C does not fit. “The horse knew the cattle business” is said about the horse, and it is only background.
    • D does not fit. His trust may hint that he judges horses well. But the paragraphs show faith in one horse, and the excerpt is about what that horse does.
  6. Choose the answer

    The opening shows Wade’s respect, and the ending shows the horse deserved it. So the answer is A.

Why this answer and not the closest wrong one

D is the closest wrong choice. Wade’s trust does hint that he knows good horses. But paragraphs 1 and 2 show his faith in one horse, not a skill at judging horses. The excerpt is about that horse. Wade’s respect points straight to the end, where he gives the race to Peroxide Jim. That is A.

The original DOE question
Question 30 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 43 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test A English, page 43, question 30.

Question 10 of 120

2026 Practice Test A English, question 32

Uses the passage above: “Excerpt from “The Spirit of the Herd””.

Question

Read this sentence from paragraph 13.

Close on their left bore down the flank of the herd, and on their right, under their very feet, was a precipice, so close that they felt its blackness—its three hundred feet of fall!

The phrase “bore down the flank of the herd” conveys that Wade

  • Astruggled to see the front of the herd.
  • Bhad to ride quickly to keep up with the herd.
  • Cwas forced to ride between the edge of the cliff and the herd.
  • Dknew that the drop of the cliff would frighten the herd.
Show the answer

Correct answer: C

The question asks what the phrase “bore down the flank of the herd” (paragraph 13) conveys about Wade.

A. Incorrect. While Wade struggled to see the front of the herd, the words “bore down the flank of the herd” (paragraph 13) are meant to convey the intensity of the situation Wade was in, not the way the herd is blocking his vision.

B. Incorrect. The sentence from paragraph 13 states that the herd was “close on their left” and includes the phrase “bore down.” Both of these phrases indicate that Wade was trapped between the stampeding herd and the steep cliff. Wade and Peroxide Jim were struggling to reach the very front of the herd to turn it away from the edge.

C. CORRECT. The phrase “bore down the flank of the herd” from paragraph 13 conveys the overwhelming strength of the herd. The herd was forcing Wade toward the cliff. The wording in the quotation emphasizes the immediate danger of the situation and conveys the idea that Wade and Peroxide Jim were almost forced over the edge of the precipice by the stampeding herd.

D. Incorrect. The phrase “bore down the flank of the herd” (paragraph 13) does not indicate anything about the fear felt by the herd. The phrase is about Wade’s position between the edge of the stampeding herd and the drop-off. Wade was aware of the danger the herd was in if he and Peroxide Jim could not turn the cattle from the edge.

Question analysis

This vocabulary-in-context question quotes a sentence from paragraph 13 of “The Spirit of the Herd,” at the height of the stampede, and asks what the phrase “bore down the flank of the herd” conveys about Wade. Students need the meaning of “bore down” and “flank” as they are used here. Some choices describe real moments of the stampede, so students must stick to what this phrase shows.

NYS standards
  • 7R4 word meaning and choice
  • 7L4a context clues
Grade level
Grade 7 reading and task
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Working out a phrase’s meaning from its sentence is routine grade 7 work. The words “bore down” and “flank” are less common, but the full sentence is quoted with the question, so the task stays within one sentence.
Estimated difficulty
Straightforward: two steps or one careful reading.
What makes it hard
Evidence
Answered from one sentence or line
Reading level
Passage: about grade 8, 1160 words; question and choices: about grade 3, 94 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

Once the sentence is untangled, the herd pressing in on the left and the cliff on the right, the answer is a picture of Wade squeezed between them. The trouble is the word order and the phrase itself: students who read “bore down” as speed think about keeping pace, and those who recall the darkness of the paragraph before pick a detail this sentence never mentions.

  1. Complex sentences moderate Understanding the question

    The sentence is inverted: “the flank of the herd” is the subject of “bore down,” placed after its verb, so a quick reader may think Wade bore down along the herd instead. (Abedi & Lord, 2001; Freedle & Kostin, 1993; Messick, 1989)

  2. Hard words minor Understanding the question

    Both “flank,” the side of the herd, and “bore down,” pressed in hard, are uncommon in this sense, and the stem asks about exactly those words. (Perfetti, 2007; Freedle & Kostin, 1993)

Strategy: Read the whole quoted sentence rather than the phrase alone, picture the scene it describes, and pick what this sentence itself shows about Wade.

Traps

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Working it out, step by step

  1. Figure out what the question asks

    This asks what the phrase “bore down the flank of the herd” shows about Wade. To answer, read the whole sentence, not just the phrase.

  2. Learn the hard words

    A flank is the side of an animal or of a group. To bear down, here “bore down,” means to press in hard on something. A precipice is a cliff, a very steep drop.

  3. Untangle the sentence

    The sentence puts its words in an unusual order. In everyday order it would say: The flank of the herd bore down close on their left. So the side of the herd pushed in on Wade and his horse from the left. On the right, “under their very feet, was a precipice.”

  4. Picture where Wade is

    Wade is squeezed. Thousands of running cattle press in on one side. A 300-foot drop sits on the other side. He has no room to move away from either one. He is forced to ride in the narrow space between the herd and the cliff edge.

  5. Check each choice

    • A does not fit. Paragraph 12 says he could not tell how many cattle were ahead, but this sentence is about the sides.
    • B does not fit. Here the herd does the bearing down, not Wade.
    • C fits. He rides between the herd and the cliff.
    • D does not fit. The cattle were “water-mad,” ready to go over the edge. Nothing says the cliff scared them.
  6. Choose the answer

    The phrase shows the herd pushing Wade toward the edge. So the answer is C.

Why this answer and not the closest wrong one

B is the closest wrong choice, because “bore down” can mean rushing forward fast. But in this sentence the herd does the bearing down, not Wade. The herd presses in from the left while the cliff waits on the right. That squeeze is what C describes.

The original DOE question
Question 32 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 45 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test A English, page 45, question 32.

Question 11 of 120

2026 Practice Test A English, question 34

Uses the passage above: “Excerpt from “The Spirit of the Herd””.

Question

How do the details in paragraphs 14–16 help convey a central idea of the excerpt?

  • AThey highlight Peroxide Jim’s natural ability to control the herd.
  • BThey emphasize the danger of the situation from which Peroxide Jim rescued the herd.
  • CThey show that Peroxide Jim’s physical strength allowed him to force the herd to turn.
  • DThey indicate that Peroxide Jim anticipated the herd’s stampede before the men did.
Show the answer

Correct answer: A

The question asks how the details in paragraphs 14–16 help convey a central idea of the excerpt.

A. CORRECT. Paragraphs 14–16 describe how Peroxide Jim’s “marvelous instinct” headed off the herd and drove it away from the cliff. Wade acknowledged that without his instruction, Peroxide Jim knew to find the leader of the herd, cut him off from the rest of the herd, and then lead him to safety, confident that the remainder of the herd would follow. Paragraph 16 confirms this: “Whose race was it? It was Peroxide Jim’s, according to Wade, for not by word or by touch of hand or knee had the horse been directed in the run.” This reinforces a central idea of the excerpt regarding the horse’s amazing intellect and ability.

B. Incorrect. Although paragraphs 14–16 mention the “rim,” the “cliffs,” and the “indescribably perilous path,” these details are not the focus of the paragraphs. They are descriptions of the setting where Peroxide Jim’s able and effective actions saved the stampeding herd, and it is these actions that are the central idea being conveyed.

C. Incorrect. Although Peroxide Jim is called “powerful” in paragraph 1, his physical strength is neither a central idea of the excerpt nor the focus of paragraphs 14–16. His success at turning the herd was attributed to his intellect and instinct, not his physical strength.

D. Incorrect. The excerpt does not suggest that Peroxide Jim anticipated the herd’s stampede before the men did. In fact, the excerpt indicates that Wade led the men in singing to cover sudden noises that might cause the herd to stampede, indicating that Wade was alert to that possibility. Paragraph 7 also indicates that Wade anticipated the stampede, as he “checked his horse instantly” and “tightened [his] grip on the reins” as soon as he smelled water on the wind and heard the low rumbling of the herd that preceded the lightning strike. The narrator notes Wade’s actions well before the horse’s actions. Paragraphs 14–16 describe how Peroxide Jim acted after the stampede began.

Question analysis

This central-idea question asks how the details in the last three paragraphs of “The Spirit of the Herd,” where the stampede is finally turned away from the cliff, help convey a central idea. Students must decide what those details mainly show about Peroxide Jim. Several choices touch on something real in the story, so the paragraphs’ main emphasis decides it.

NYS standards
  • 7R2 theme or central idea
  • 7R3 plot elements and ideas
Grade level
Grade 7 reading and task
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Linking a passage’s final paragraphs to its central idea is a familiar grade 7 task. Paragraphs 14–16 are short and vivid, but several choices mention something those paragraphs touch on, so students must judge what the details mainly emphasize.
Estimated difficulty
Moderate: several steps, or a close reading with one strong distractor.
What makes it hard
Evidence
Answered from several paragraphs or stanzas
Reading level
Passage: about grade 8, 1160 words; question and choices: about grade 8, 66 words.
Corrected from the DOE handbook
  • Details in the explanation that are not in the excerpt were corrected.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

The three paragraphs mix danger with skill, so a choice about danger can quote them and still miss what they emphasize. The detail that carries the central idea is that no word or touch directed the horse: he picked out the lead steer himself and the herd followed. Students who remember that Peroxide Jim was called “powerful” credit his strength, and a few reverse the order of events, putting his reaction before Wade’s.

  1. How, not what moderate Working it out

    The question asks what the details in paragraphs 14–16 do, so students must see that the rim and the “perilous path” are background and the horse’s choices are the point. (Anderson & Krathwohl, 2001)

  2. The right answer is reworded minor Choosing the answer

    The right choice calls the horse’s skill a “natural ability,” a plain paraphrase of “marvelous instinct,” while a wrong choice repeats the danger words the paragraphs use. (Freedle & Kostin, 1993; Kirsch & Mosenthal, 1990)

  3. Complex sentences minor Understanding the question

    Paragraph 14 tells how the horse turns the herd in one 50-word sentence full of commas, “which the horse, with marvelous instinct, seemed to pick out from a bunch, and to cling to.” (Abedi & Lord, 2001; Freedle & Kostin, 1993; Messick, 1989)

Strategy: Note what paragraphs 14–16 mostly focus on, then test each choice by asking whether it names that focus or only a detail mentioned along the way.

Traps

The wrong answers, classified

What was corrected from the DOE handbook, and why

  • Explanation: The handbook’s explanation of Option D says Wade reacted “as soon as he smelled the rain and heard the low rumble of thunder that preceded the lightning strike.” The excerpt has no rain and no thunder. In paragraph 6 Wade catches “a breath of fresh, moist wind with the taste of water in it,” and in paragraph 7 the rumbling comes “from their hoarse throats,” the cattle’s; that rumbling is what “tightened Wade’s grip on the reins.” The site now says “as soon as he smelled water on the wind and heard the low rumbling of the herd that preceded the lightning strike.”

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Working it out, step by step

  1. Figure out what the question asks

    This asks how the details in paragraphs 14 to 16 help show a central idea, a main idea of the excerpt. What do these last three paragraphs mostly focus on?

  2. Read paragraphs 14 to 16

    In paragraph 14, the horse, “with marvelous instinct, seemed to pick out from a bunch” a big white steer. Paragraph 15 says “The steers coming on close behind followed their leader.” Paragraph 16 says the race was the horse’s, “for not by word or by touch of hand or knee had the horse been directed in the run.”

  3. Work out what the details show

    An instinct is a natural sense of what to do, without being taught or told. A steer is one of the cattle. The horse picked out one big steer and pushed it off into the sage, away from the cliff. The rest followed it as their leader. No one guided the horse. So the horse controlled the whole herd using his own natural skill.

  4. Check each choice

    • A fits. The details show the horse’s natural ability to control the herd.
    • B does not fit. The “rim” and the “cliffs” set the scene. The focus is how the horse turned the herd.
    • C does not fit. The horse does not overpower the herd. He picks the leader, and the others follow.
    • D does not fit. In paragraph 7, Wade sensed trouble first. The cattle’s rumbling “tightened Wade’s grip on the reins.” The horse took charge only “From the flash of the lightning.”
  5. Choose the answer

    The last three paragraphs show the horse’s natural skill at turning the herd. So the answer is A.

Why this answer and not the closest wrong one

B is the closest wrong choice, because the paragraphs do mention the rim and a “perilous,” or dangerous, path. But the danger is the background. The paragraphs mostly show what the horse did: he chose the lead steer and turned the herd with no one guiding him. That natural skill is A.

The original DOE question
Question 34 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 47 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test A English, page 47, question 34. This is the DOE’s version, before the corrections listed in the analysis.

Question 12 of 120

2026 Practice Test A English, question 35

Uses the passage above: “Excerpt from “The Spirit of the Herd””.

Question

Which sentence from the excerpt best reveals the mood on the drive before the lightning struck?

  • A“The herd when overtaken by the dusk had been headed for a pass descending to the next lower bench, but was now halted within a mile of the rim rock on the east, where there was a perpendicular fall of about three hundred feet.” (paragraph 3)
  • B“It was not to soothe their savage breasts that the riders sang to the cattle, but rather to preempt the dreaded silence, to relieve the tension, and so to prevent the shock of any sudden startling noise.” (paragraph 5)
  • C“He checked his horse instantly, listening as the wind swept past him over the cattle.” (paragraph 7)
  • D“Then the breeze caught the dust and carried it back from the gray-coated, ghostly shapes, and Wade saw that the animals were still moving in a circle.” (paragraph 9)
Show the answer

Correct answer: B

The question asks which sentence from the excerpt best reveals the mood on the drive before the lightning struck.

A. Incorrect. The sentence from paragraph 3 describes the setting but does not contain words that create a strong mood. In fact, this sentence shows that while there were dangerous surroundings, the riders and the herd were “now halted.”

B. CORRECT. The sentence from paragraph 5 describes the riders singing “to preempt the dreaded silence, to relieve the tension” and to prevent “shock” from any sudden noise. These words provide a strong sense of the tense, heavy mood in which a terrible event such as a stampede could quickly happen.

C. Incorrect. In the sentence from paragraph 7, Wade has become aware of a change in the weather (“caught a breath of fresh, moist wind with the taste of water” [paragraph 6]) and is seeking to verify it. Even though a rainstorm was one concern the riders had, the words describing Wade’s immediate reaction to his discovery do not best convey the mood of dread and foreboding that the men and horses feel just before the lightning strike.

D. Incorrect. While the words “ghostly” and “still moving in a circle” in the sentence from paragraph 9 create a strange and mysterious image, the mood before the lightning struck was not one of mystery or suspense. Instead, these descriptive words are used to indicate Wade’s faint ability to see the herd moving in the dark.

Question analysis

This mood question on “The Spirit of the Herd” asks which sentence best reveals the mood on the cattle drive before the lightning struck and set off the stampede. Students compare four long quotations from paragraphs 3, 5, 7 and 9. All four describe the night leading up to it, so students must weigh which one’s wording does the most to set a mood.

NYS standards
  • 7R4 word meaning and choice
  • 7R1 textual evidence and inferences
Grade level
Grade 7 reading and task
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Picking the sentence that best reveals a mood is ordinary grade 7 work on word choice. The four quotations are long, come from four different paragraphs and are written in 1914 English, so the main demand is reading them closely.
Estimated difficulty
Straightforward: two steps or one careful reading.
What makes it hard
Evidence
Answered from several paragraphs or stanzas
Reading level
Passage: about grade 8, 1160 words; question and choices: about grade 11, 143 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

Only one quotation names a feeling outright, and once students notice “dreaded silence” and “tension,” the question is easy. The losses come from mood-sounding words elsewhere: the “ghostly shapes” of paragraph 9 suggest an eerie mystery, and Wade’s sudden stop in paragraph 7 suggests alarm. Neither captures the strained waiting that hangs over the whole drive.

  1. Hard words minor Understanding the question

    The right sentence is the hardest to read: “preempt” and the old saying about soothing “savage breasts” surround the plain mood words “dreaded” and “tension.” (Perfetti, 2007; Freedle & Kostin, 1993)

  2. A lot to read minor Understanding the question

    The quotations from paragraphs 3 and 5 run 44 and 37 words, and all four describe the night before the stampede, so each must be read for words that carry feeling. (Kintsch, 1998; Gorin & Embretson, 2006; Freedle & Kostin, 1993)

Strategy: Underline the words in each quotation that carry feeling, then pick the one whose wording most directly captures the mood of the drive before the lightning.

Traps

  • Supports only part of the claim: In a question about evidence: a line that backs one half of the claim but not the other, or a related point rather than the claim itself.
  • Wrong tone or attitude: Misjudges the tone, attitude or point of view, such as reading admiration as criticism, or taking a character's or subject's feelings for the author's.

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Working it out, step by step

  1. Figure out what the question asks

    This asks about mood, the feeling a piece of writing gives you. Which sentence best shows the feeling on the drive before the lightning struck? Look for words that name or carry a feeling.

  2. Read the sentence from paragraph 5

    Paragraph 5 says “It was not to soothe their savage breasts that the riders sang to the cattle, but rather to preempt the dreaded silence, to relieve the tension, and so to prevent the shock of any sudden startling noise.”

  3. Work out what it means

    “Soothe their savage breasts” is an old saying about calming wild feelings with music. To preempt something is to act early to stop it. So the singing was not meant as soothing music. The riders sang to fill a silence they dreaded, or feared, and to ease the tension. They also wanted to keep any sudden noise from scaring the herd. The mood is tense and nervous.

  4. Check each choice

    • A does not fit. It tells where the herd stopped and how far the drop was. It gives facts, not feelings.
    • B fits. Words like “dreaded” and “tension” name the feeling.
    • C does not fit. Wade stops to listen. That is one quick action, not the mood of the night.
    • D does not fit. “Ghostly shapes” sounds spooky, but it describes cattle seen dimly through dust.
  5. Choose the answer

    Only one sentence names the tense feeling of the night. So the answer is B.

Why this answer and not the closest wrong one

D is the closest wrong choice, because “ghostly” sounds eerie. But that word only describes how the cattle looked in the dark and the dust. B names the feeling outright: a “dreaded silence” and “tension.” That is the mood on the drive before the lightning struck.

The original DOE question
Question 35 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 48 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test A English, page 48, question 35.

Question 13 of 120

2026 Practice Test A English, question 36
Passage Massachusetts: Lowell National Historical Park

Massachusetts: Lowell National Historical Park

During the first half of the 19th century, Lowell, Massachusetts, quickly transformed itself from a farm town to a bustling industrial city. In time, Lowell became a model of industry, gaining global recognition for its state-of-the-art technology, innovative canal and dam system, mill architecture, boardinghouses, churches, and ethnic neighborhoods. Young Yankee women, immigrant families, and European tourists all flocked to Lowell to find work at one of the many textile mills, or visit the industrious city that was becoming a popular tourist destination. As one Scottish traveler observed during his visit to America, “Niagara and Lowell are the two objects I will longest remember in my American journey, the one the glory of American scenery, the other of American industry.” Today, Lowell National Historical Park welcomes visitors to enjoy the sights of Lowell and learn about the history of one of America’s most significant industrial cities.

The Boston merchants who founded Lowell in 1821 and named it after Francis Cabot Lowell chose to locate the town along Massachusetts’s Merrimack River to take advantage of the kinetic energy offered by the Pawtucket waterfalls. Over six miles of canals powered the waterwheels of Lowell’s mills, whose massive five- and six-story brick buildings dominated the city’s landscape. . . . The most recognized of these buildings are the Lowell Manufacturing Company chartered in 1821, the Suffolk or Wannalancit Mill completed around the 1880s, the Boott Mill Company established in 1835, and the Boott Mill Boardinghouse that opened in 1838. By the 1850s, 40 textile mills employing over 10,000 workers stretched for about a mile along the river. . . .

The city’s female workforce was significant in the history of Lowell. From the early to mid-1800s, women left the constricted lifestyle of small rural towns and rural areas for independent industrial city life. Most were young single Yankee girls, who were tired of the limited opportunities offered by their domestic work. Women found that Lowell’s mills offered monthly wages for their services and provided them room and board. Although these women gained economic independence in Lowell, the mill boardinghouse keepers constantly supervised their social activities, for which they hardly had any time, considering their daily 12- to 14-hour work schedules. At the end of the day, the factory bell signaled the “mill girls” to return to their boardinghouses. They were expected to adhere to the strict code of conduct respecting curfew and attending church.

Yankee “mill girls” continued to dominate the Lowell workforce until the 1840s, when the city began to find it difficult to compete with the growing industrial development in other New England communities. As profits fell, the mill industry cut wages. These wage cuts, deteriorating working conditions, and long workdays led the “mill girls” to protest and organize strikes. When their demands went unheard, the women left Lowell, and immigrant groups replaced them in the workforce. Despite the low wages and unhealthy work conditions, immigrants were eager to find work.

The immigrants replacing the Yankee “mill girls” during the 1840s were predominantly Irish Catholics, who traveled to America during the Great Potato Famine. Although Lowell received an influx of Irish families during this time, the Irish were a part of the city’s history from its birth, and before the “mill girls” arrived, they built Lowell’s historic canals, mills, and boardinghouses. Initially, Lowell’s Protestant community was slow to welcome Irish immigrants, but the hostility between Yankee Protestants and Irish Catholics eventually disappeared. Irish immigrants dominated the industrial scene until the Civil War, when other immigrant groups began to work in the city mills.

Like the Irish, the French-Canadians, Greeks, Poles, Portuguese, Russian Jews, and Armenians who came to work in Lowell’s mills faced long work hours, low wages, and poor living conditions in the city’s crowded tenements. By the time Lowell’s industry declined, the city had become an ethnic melting pot, where each group claimed its own distinct neighborhood, like the Irish immigrants’ “New Dublin” or “Acre,” and the French-Canadians’ “Little Canada.” The city officially began to close down its mills in the 1920s and ’30s after Lowell’s outdated mills could no longer compete against the state-of-the-art cotton mills in other communities and working conditions continued to decline as Lowell’s companies stopped reinvesting in their mills. . . . Despite a brief resurgence during World War II, the city shut down its last surviving mill by the mid-1950s.

From “Massachusetts: Lowell National Historical Park”—Public Domain/National Park Service

Yankee: native to New England
Niagara: a town in northwestern New York State well known as the location of Niagara Falls, a series of waterfalls on the Canadian border
domestic work: household duties like cooking and cleaning

Question

Read this sentence from paragraph 1.

As one Scottish traveler observed during his visit to America, “Niagara and Lowell are the two objects I will longest remember in my American journey, the one the glory of American scenery, the other of American industry.”

The author most likely includes the quotation from the Scottish traveler in order to

  • Asuggest that people around the world saw the direct contribution of nature and industry to the United States.
  • Bcompare the natural and industrial attractions in the United States at that time.
  • Cconvey the idea that the United States offered both natural and industrial attractions.
  • Dimply that the natural resources in the United States contributed to the development of industry.
Show the answer

Correct answer: C

The question asks why the author most likely includes the quotation from the Scottish traveler in paragraph 1 of the passage.

A. Incorrect. While it is likely that people outside the United States recognized that both the natural landscape and the bustling industry were significant, the quotation from the Scottish traveler is meant to convey the variety of the types of attractions in the U.S., not to make a general statement about their contribution.

B. Incorrect. The Scottish traveler mentions both “American scenery” and “American industry” in the quotation, but the intent is to highlight that they are each points of interest. The quotation does not provide a comparison of the two attractions.

C. CORRECT. The quotation emphasizes the idea that the United States offers different attractions. The Scottish traveler highlights the two places in the United States that he will most remember: first, the beautiful natural formation of Niagara Falls (“ ‘the glory of American scenery’ ”) and second, the industrial city of Lowell (“ ‘the glory . . . of American industry’ ”).

D. Incorrect. The Scottish traveler mentions both “American scenery” and “American industry” in the quotation but does not imply that the natural resources contributed to the development of industry.

Question analysis

This reading question asks why the author of a National Park Service article about Lowell, Massachusetts, quotes a Scottish traveler who named Niagara and Lowell as the sights he would remember longest from his American journey. Students must work out the job a quotation does in an opening paragraph, and the traveler's compressed, old-fashioned wording has to be untangled first.

NYS standards
  • 7R5 structure and genre features
Grade level
Grade 7 reading and task
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Grade 7 readers regularly explain why an author includes a quotation. This one adds a sentence in older English built on a compressed “the one…, the other…” pattern, but it is a single sentence in a plainly organized opening paragraph, so the demand stays typical.
Estimated difficulty
Moderate: several steps, or a close reading with one strong distractor.
What makes it hard
Evidence
Answered from one sentence or line
Reading level
Passage: about grade 15, 764 words; question and choices: about grade 11, 115 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

Most of the work is translating the traveler's compressed remark into plain words: Niagara stands for American scenery, Lowell for American industry, and both are high points of his trip. Students who see the two placed side by side often take the pairing for a comparison, while others read more into it, a worldwide verdict or a link between waterfalls and mills. The question rewards stating only what the remark does in the paragraph, which is to set Lowell beside Niagara as a sight worth the journey.

  1. A very close wrong answer moderate Choosing the answer

    The comparison choice names the same pair as the key, Niagara's scenery and Lowell's industry; it differs only in the verb, “compare” instead of conveying that the country offered both kinds of attraction. (Embretson & Wetzel, 1987; Gorin & Embretson, 2006; Ascalon et al., 2007)

  2. How, not what moderate Working it out

    The stem asks why the author placed the traveler's remark in paragraph 1, so its job, backing the sentence before it about tourists visiting the industrious city, matters more than its content. (Anderson & Krathwohl, 2001)

  3. Complex sentences minor Understanding the question

    The 37-word sentence ends in the compressed, old-fashioned “the one the glory of American scenery, the other of American industry,” where the verb and the second “glory” are left out. (Abedi & Lord, 2001; Freedle & Kostin, 1993; Messick, 1989)

Strategy: Put the traveler's remark into plain modern words, reread the sentence before it about who came to Lowell, and pick the purpose that fits both without reading more into the remark than it says.

Traps

  • Wrong purpose or structure: Names a purpose, structure or effect that the part does not serve, or describes what a part says when the question asks what it does.
  • Reads too much in: A reasonable-sounding conclusion that goes further than the text allows.
  • Too broad or too strong: A choice overstates, generalizes, or uses absolute words the text does not support.

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Working it out, step by step

  1. Figure out what the question asks

    This question asks about the author’s purpose. You need to say why the author put the Scottish traveler’s words into paragraph 1. Don’t just restate what he says. Ask what job his words do in the paragraph.

  2. Find the quotation and its neighbor

    The traveler’s words are in paragraph 1: “Niagara and Lowell are the two objects I will longest remember in my American journey.” He ends with “the one the glory of American scenery, the other of American industry.” Now look at the sentence just before it. It says European tourists came to “visit the industrious city that was becoming a popular tourist destination.”

  3. Put his words in plain English

    The old-fashioned ending leaves words out. “The one” means the first place he named, Niagara. “The other” means the second place, Lowell. Glory means the finest thing, the pride. Industry means factories and the work done in them. So he is saying: Niagara Falls is the best of America’s natural beauty, and Lowell is the best of its industry. Both are the sights he will remember longest.

  4. Check each choice

    • A is wrong. One visitor is not “people around the world.” He also never says nature or industry made a “direct contribution” to the country.
    • B is wrong. He names the two places side by side, but he never weighs one against the other.
    • C is right. He names a natural wonder and an industrial wonder as the two highlights of his trip. So America offered both kinds of attraction.
    • D is wrong. He never says nature helped industry grow. The waterfalls that powered the mills come up in paragraph 2, not in his words.

    Watch out: “The one” and “the other” set the two places side by side. That can feel like a comparison, which leads to B. But he praises both. He does not compare them.

  5. Choose the answer

    The author uses the quotation to show that America had two kinds of sights worth the trip: natural ones like Niagara and industrial ones like Lowell. So the answer is C.

Why this answer and not the closest wrong one

B is the closest wrong answer. It names the same pair, nature and industry. But to compare is to show how two things are alike or different. The traveler doesn’t do that. He simply names Niagara and Lowell as two highlights. C says just that: the country offered both kinds of attraction.

The original DOE question
Question 36 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 51 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test A English, page 51, question 36.
The passage “Massachusetts: Lowell National Historical Park” as printed (page 50)The passage “Massachusetts: Lowell National Historical Park” as printed on page 50 of the DOE handbook.

Question 14 of 120

2026 Practice Test A English, question 38

Uses the passage above: “Massachusetts: Lowell National Historical Park”.

Question

Which sentence from paragraph 2 best supports the idea that Lowell became “a bustling industrial city” (paragraph 1) in a short period of time?

  • A“The Boston merchants who founded Lowell in 1821 and named it after Francis Cabot Lowell chose to locate the town along Massachusetts’s Merrimack River to take advantage of the kinetic energy offered by the Pawtucket waterfalls.”
  • B“Over six miles of canals powered the waterwheels of Lowell’s mills, whose massive five- and six-story brick buildings dominated the city’s landscape.”
  • C“The most recognized of these buildings are the Lowell Manufacturing Company chartered in 1821, the Suffolk or Wannalancit Mill completed around the 1880s, the Boott Mill Company established in 1835, and the Boott Mill Boardinghouse that opened in 1838.”
  • D“By the 1850s, 40 textile mills employing over 10,000 workers stretched for about a mile along the river.”
Show the answer

Correct answer: D

The question asks for the sentence in paragraph 2 that best supports the idea that Lowell became “a bustling industrial city” (paragraph 1) in a short period of time.

A. Incorrect. While the sentence provides details on when the town of Lowell was founded and the natural features of the area, it does not support the idea that the city became “a bustling industrial city” in a short period of time.

B. Incorrect. Although this sentence indicates that the mill buildings were a noticeable feature of the city and provides details on how the mills worked, it does not specifically show that Lowell had become “a bustling industrial city” in a short period of time.

C. Incorrect. While this sentence lists some recognizable mill buildings along the river and notes when their associated businesses were established, it does not support the idea that Lowell had become “a bustling industrial city” in a short period of time.

D. CORRECT. This sentence indicates that within only a few decades of the city’s founding, it experienced massive industrial growth, with “40 textile mills employing over 10,000 workers,” supporting the idea that Lowell became “a bustling industrial city” in a short period of time.

Question analysis

Here students choose which sentence from the second paragraph of an article about Lowell, Massachusetts, best supports the claim that the town became a bustling industrial city in a short period of time. All four sentences describe Lowell's founding, mills or canals, and several carry dates, so students must weigh what each one actually shows about how fast the city grew.

NYS standards
  • 7R1 textual evidence and inferences
Grade level
Grade 7 reading and task
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Picking the sentence that best supports a claim is standard grade 7 evidence work. The claim carries a time condition as well as a description, and all four choices come from one short paragraph, so the demand is typical of grade 7.
Estimated difficulty
Moderate: several steps, or a close reading with one strong distractor.
Evidence
Answered from one paragraph or stanza
Reading level
Passage: about grade 15, 764 words; question and choices: about grade 14, 131 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

The claim has two parts, a bustling industrial city and a short time to get there, and most sentences in paragraph 2 meet only one. The list of mills with their founding dates is the strongest pull, because its dates seem to answer the time half, yet they run into the 1880s and show four buildings, not a busy city. The question rewards pairing the 1850s figures with the 1821 founding.

  1. Reading between the lines moderate Working it out

    The 1850s sentence shows speed only beside the founding date in the paragraph's first sentence: getting from 1821 to 40 mills and 10,000 workers took about thirty years, a span students must work out. (Graesser, Singer & Trabasso, 1994; Kintsch, 1998)

  2. Every choice must be checked minor Choosing the answer

    All four sentences come from paragraph 2 and describe Lowell's mills or canals, and three carry dates, so each must be tested for both the scale and the speed of growth. (Embretson & Wetzel, 1987)

Strategy: Split the claim into its two parts, a busy industrial city and a short span of time, and check each sentence for evidence of both rather than accepting one that fits only half.

Traps

  • Supports only part of the claim: In a question about evidence: a line that backs one half of the claim but not the other, or a related point rather than the claim itself.
  • True but not the answer: A choice says something accurate about the text that does not answer this question.

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Working it out, step by step

  1. Split the claim into two parts

    This is an evidence question. You need the sentence that best supports a claim, and the claim has two parts. First, Lowell became “a bustling industrial city,” a busy factory town. Second, it happened “in a short period of time.” The best sentence must support both parts, not just one.

  2. Find the starting date

    Paragraph 2 opens with the town’s start. The Boston merchants “founded Lowell in 1821.” That gives you a starting point. Now look for a sentence that shows how big Lowell got, and by when.

  3. Work out how long it took

    The last sentence of paragraph 2 says: “By the 1850s, 40 textile mills employing over 10,000 workers stretched for about a mile along the river.” From 1821 to the 1850s is only about 30 years. In that time, Lowell went from a new town to 40 mills and over 10,000 workers. That is fast growth, and it is clearly bustling.

  4. Check each choice

    • A is wrong. It tells why the town was built by the waterfalls. It says nothing about how the city grew.
    • B is wrong. Six miles of canals and “massive five- and six-story brick buildings” do sound busy. But there is no date, so it can’t show speed.
    • C is wrong. It has dates, but they run from 1821 to the 1880s, about 60 years. And it names just four buildings, not a whole busy city.
    • D is right. It shows a big city of mills and workers only about 30 years after Lowell began.

    Watch out: C is tempting because it is full of dates. But dates alone don’t prove speed, and these are spread over decades.

  5. Choose the answer

    Only one sentence shows both a busy industrial city and a short time to get there. So the answer is D.

Why this answer and not the closest wrong one

C is the closest wrong answer, since its dates seem to answer the time part. But they stretch from 1821 to the 1880s, and they cover only four buildings. D gives the size of the whole mill city, 40 mills and over 10,000 workers, about 30 years after the founding.

The original DOE question
Question 38 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 53 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test A English, page 53, question 38.

Question 15 of 120

2026 Practice Test A English, question 40

Uses the passage above: “Massachusetts: Lowell National Historical Park”.

Question

Read this sentence from paragraph 5.

Although Lowell received an influx of Irish families during this time, the Irish were a part of the city’s history from its birth, and before the “mill girls” arrived, they built Lowell’s historic canals, mills, and boardinghouses.

How does this sentence contribute to the development of ideas in the passage?

  • AIt implies that Lowell was founded by early Irish immigrants.
  • BIt emphasizes the important role Irish immigrants played in Lowell’s history.
  • CIt suggests that the new Irish immigrants were readily accepted into the community.
  • DIt highlights the working relationship between the mill girls and the new Irish immigrants.
Show the answer

Correct answer: B

The question asks how the sentence in paragraph 5 contributes to the development of ideas in the passage.

A. Incorrect. The sentence from paragraph 5 does not imply that Lowell was founded by early Irish immigrants. The sentence explains how Irish immigrants had been settling in Lowell since the city was established and that they contributed to the construction of the city, which allowed it to become an industrial center several decades later.

B. CORRECT. The sentence from paragraph 5 shows that early Irish immigrants were critical to the success of Lowell as an industrial city. This information supports the development of the idea that the work of Irish immigrants and immigrants from other places is an important element in the historical significance of industry in Lowell.

C. Incorrect. The sentence from paragraph 5 does not suggest that new Irish immigrants were readily accepted into the community. Paragraph 5 states that “initially, Lowell’s Protestant community was slow to welcome Irish immigrants, but the hostility between Yankee Protestants and Irish Catholics eventually disappeared.”

D. Incorrect. The sentence from paragraph 5 does not highlight the relationship between the mill girls and the new Irish immigrants. Paragraph 4 explains how the mill girls left Lowell, and paragraph 5 states that the mill girls were replaced by “predominantly Irish Catholics, who traveled to America during the Great Potato Famine” but does not discuss a relationship between them.

Question analysis

This question quotes a sentence from paragraph 5 of the Lowell article about Irish families, who arrived in large numbers in the 1840s but had been part of the city since its birth. Students explain how the sentence contributes to the development of the passage's ideas, and because it packs several groups and periods into one line, they must keep straight who did what and when.

NYS standards
  • 7R5 structure and genre features
  • 7R3 plot elements and ideas
Grade level
Grade 7 reading and task
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Explaining how one sentence develops a passage's ideas is a core grade 7 skill. The sentence is long but its meaning is direct, and the text around it settles most of the choices, so the demand is typical.
Estimated difficulty
Straightforward: two steps or one careful reading.
What makes it hard
Evidence
Answered from one paragraph or stanza
Reading level
Passage: about grade 15, 764 words; question and choices: about grade 10, 103 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

Once the long sentence is untangled, its point is plain: the Irish were in Lowell from the start and built its canals, mills and boardinghouses. The likeliest slip is reading “from its birth” as founding the city, which paragraph 2 credits to Boston merchants. The other wrong choices invent a welcome or a partnership that the surrounding sentences contradict or never mention, so a quick check of paragraph 5 settles them.

  1. Complex sentences minor Understanding the question

    The 37-word sentence moves through three times at once, the influx “during this time,” the city's birth and the years before the mill girls arrived, so who did what and when must be sorted out. (Abedi & Lord, 2001; Freedle & Kostin, 1993; Messick, 1989)

  2. Evidence in several places minor Working it out

    Ruling out the founding choice needs paragraph 2's “Boston merchants who founded Lowell,” and ruling out a warm welcome needs the next sentence's “slow to welcome Irish immigrants.” (Kirsch & Mosenthal, 1990; Gorin & Embretson, 2006)

Strategy: Put the quoted sentence into your own words, then check each choice against the sentences around it in paragraph 5 and against what earlier paragraphs say about the city's beginnings.

Traps

  • Twists what the text says: Uses the text's topic and ideas but changes what it says: who did it, how much, when, or why.
  • Reads too much in: A reasonable-sounding conclusion that goes further than the text allows.

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Working it out, step by step

  1. Figure out what the question asks

    This structure question asks what one sentence adds to the passage’s ideas. First you need to understand the sentence. It is long and jumps between three times, so take it apart piece by piece.

  2. Break the sentence into parts

    The sentence is in paragraph 5. Here are its three parts:

    • “Although Lowell received an influx of Irish families during this time”: an influx is a big wave of people arriving, and “this time” means the 1840s.
    • “the Irish were a part of the city’s history from its birth”: its birth means the city’s very beginning.
    • “they built Lowell’s historic canals, mills, and boardinghouses”: this happened before the mill girls came.
  3. Say it in your own words

    Put together, the sentence says: Many Irish families came in the 1840s, but the Irish had been in Lowell from the start. They built its canals, mills and boardinghouses. Without those canals and mills, there would be no industrial city. So the sentence shows how much the Irish mattered to Lowell’s story.

  4. Check each choice

    • A is wrong. Being there “from its birth” is not the same as founding the city. Paragraph 2 names the founders: “The Boston merchants who founded Lowell in 1821.”
    • B is right. The Irish were there from the start and built the city’s mills and canals. That is an important role.
    • C is wrong. The very next sentence says “Lowell’s Protestant community was slow to welcome Irish immigrants.” So they were not readily, or easily, accepted.
    • D is wrong. The passage never says the Irish and the mill girls worked together. Later, the Irish replaced them.

    Watch out: “From its birth” can sound like they started the city, which leads to A. Check paragraph 2 to see who founded Lowell.

  5. Choose the answer

    The sentence makes clear that the Irish helped build Lowell from its first days. So the answer is B.

Why this answer and not the closest wrong one

A is the closest wrong answer, because the sentence links the Irish to the city’s “birth.” But being part of a city from the start is different from founding it. Boston merchants founded Lowell. The Irish built its canals and mills. B fits, because it names that important role without stretching it.

The original DOE question
Question 40 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 55 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test A English, page 55, question 40.

Question 16 of 120

2026 Practice Test A English, question 42

Uses the passage above: “Massachusetts: Lowell National Historical Park”.

Question

The reason Lowell lost its status as an industrial leader is best illustrated through the

  • Adescription of poor living and working conditions.
  • Bexplanation for why some immigrant groups struggled to live together.
  • Ccomparison with other mills that used modern methods.
  • Dinformation about the mills opening temporarily during World War II.
Show the answer

Correct answer: C

The question asks for the reason that best illustrates why Lowell lost its status as an industrial leader.

A. Incorrect. While the passage discusses the “long work hours, low wages, and poor living conditions in the city’s crowded tenements” (paragraph 6) in Lowell, these details highlight the living and working conditions of immigrant groups. The author does not state that poor living and working conditions are the reason Lowell lost its status as a “model of industry.”

B. Incorrect. Paragraph 5 in the passage acknowledges that there was some tension between the different ethnic and religious groups in Lowell, but this idea is not what led to Lowell’s decline as a “model of industry.”

C. CORRECT. When Lowell was initially established, the mills in the city thrived because of their advanced manufacturing methods (“gaining global recognition for its state-of-the-art technology, innovative canal and dam system, [and] mill architecture” [paragraph 1]). However, manufacturing technology changed and improved over time, and many mill owners chose to close the mills rather than modernize them, resulting in Lowell’s loss of status as a “model of industry” (“The city officially began to close down its mills in the 1920s and ’30s after Lowell’s outdated mills could no longer compete against the state-of-the-art cotton mills in other communities” [paragraph 6]).

D. Incorrect. The details about the temporary revival of the mills during World War II do not show why Lowell is no longer considered a “model of industry.” The mills were used briefly during wartime because of an increased need for supplies, but this use of the mills was short-lived.

Question analysis

Why did Lowell lose its place as an industrial leader, a decline that ended with its last mill closing by the mid-1950s? This evidence question asks which part of the article best illustrates the reason, so students must find where the passage explains the cause and match it to a choice worded in general terms, while other late details compete for attention.

NYS standards
  • 7R1 textual evidence and inferences
  • 7R3 plot elements and ideas
Grade level
Grade 7 reading and task
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Using a text to explain a cause is typical grade 7 work. The reason is stated directly near the end of the passage, but the choices name it in abstract terms, so a careful match is needed, as in ordinary grade 7 reading.
Estimated difficulty
Moderate: several steps, or a close reading with one strong distractor.
Evidence
Answered from one paragraph or stanza
Reading level
Passage: about grade 15, 764 words; question and choices: about grade 9, 50 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

The reason is stated, but in a sentence that pairs it with worsening working conditions, and conditions get far more space in the passage, from paragraph 4's wage cuts to paragraph 6's crowded tenements. Students who match the choices to familiar words land on the conditions, which the passage presents as a result of companies not reinvesting. The key has to be recognized in new wording, as a comparison with modern mills elsewhere.

  1. The right answer is reworded moderate Choosing the answer

    The key's “comparison with other mills that used modern methods” rewords “could no longer compete against the state-of-the-art cotton mills,” while wrong choices repeat the text's “poor living conditions,” “working conditions” and “World War II.” (Freedle & Kostin, 1993; Kirsch & Mosenthal, 1990)

  2. Complex sentences minor Understanding the question

    The 47-word sentence that gives the reason joins two clauses under one “after,” outdated mills that “could no longer compete” and working conditions that “continued to decline,” so both can look like causes. (Abedi & Lord, 2001; Freedle & Kostin, 1993; Messick, 1989)

  3. Evidence in several places minor Working it out

    The cause echoes earlier hints, paragraph 1's “state-of-the-art technology” and paragraph 4's trouble competing with “other New England communities,” which confirm that competition is the passage's explanation. (Kirsch & Mosenthal, 1990; Gorin & Embretson, 2006)

Strategy: Find the sentence that tells why Lowell's mills shut down, restate the cause in your own words, then choose the description that matches that cause rather than a detail that merely appears nearby.

Traps

  • Supports only part of the claim: In a question about evidence: a line that backs one half of the claim but not the other, or a related point rather than the claim itself.
  • True but not the answer: A choice says something accurate about the text that does not answer this question.
  • Twists what the text says: Uses the text's topic and ideas but changes what it says: who did it, how much, when, or why.

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Working it out, step by step

  1. Figure out what the question asks

    This evidence question asks why Lowell lost its place as an industrial leader. First find where the passage gives the reason. Then pick the choice that matches it, even if it uses different words.

  2. Find the reason in paragraph 6

    Look near the end of the passage, where the mills close. Paragraph 6 says the city began to close its mills “after Lowell’s outdated mills could no longer compete against the state-of-the-art cotton mills in other communities.” This is the reason the passage gives.

  3. Put the reason in plain words

    Outdated means old-fashioned. State-of-the-art means the newest and best. To compete is to keep up with rivals. So mills in other places had newer machines, and Lowell’s old mills couldn’t keep up. That is a comparison: Lowell’s mills next to more modern mills elsewhere. It is a big change, too. In paragraph 1, Lowell was famous for its own “state-of-the-art technology.”

  4. Rule out the working conditions

    Choice A is the hard one to rule out. The same sentence says working conditions got worse “as Lowell’s companies stopped reinvesting in their mills.” Reinvesting means putting money back in, for repairs and new machines. Mills that get no new money also fall out of date. So the worse conditions came along with the decline. Falling behind modern mills elsewhere is what cost Lowell its lead. The passage’s longer descriptions of poor conditions, in paragraphs 4 and 6, tell how hard life was for workers. They don’t explain why the mills closed.

  5. Check the other choices

    • B is wrong. The passage tells of tension between Yankee Protestants and Irish Catholics, which “eventually disappeared.” It never links this to the mills closing.
    • C is right. It matches the reason: Lowell’s mills fell behind more modern mills.
    • D is wrong. The World War II “brief resurgence” was a short comeback. It doesn’t explain why Lowell fell behind.

    Watch out: A repeats words from the passage, so it feels safe. But matching the words is not the same as matching the reason.

  6. Choose the answer

    The passage says Lowell’s outdated mills could not keep up with modern mills in other places. Choice C names that comparison. So the answer is C.

Why this answer and not the closest wrong one

A is the closest wrong answer, because the closing sentence also says “working conditions continued to decline.” But the passage ties that to the companies no longer spending on their mills. A leader loses its place when others get ahead. C names that: other mills used modern methods, and Lowell’s did not.

The original DOE question
Question 42 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 57 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test A English, page 57, question 42.

Question 17 of 120

2026 Practice Test A English, question 43
Passage The Benefits of Indoor Plants

The Benefits of Indoor Plants

(1) In an age of endless media content, it is easy to see why people might prefer to stay inside. (2) According to a study sponsored by the Environmental Protection Agency, Americans spend an average of 87 percent of their time indoors. (3) Scientists say that this separation between people and nature puts people at risk for physical and psychological issues.

(4) During the process of photosynthesis, plants convert carbon dioxide into oxygen and remove many harmful toxins from the air. (5) Spending prolonged periods of time indoors, away from plants, deprives people of these benefits. (6) Air that is not regularly detoxified can lead to a condition known as sick building syndrome. (7) This disorder first came to light in the 1970s when many office workers in the United States began to complain of unexplained flu-like symptoms. (8) Researchers determined the cause to be volatile organic compounds, or VOCs. (9) VOCs are harmful chemicals that are emitted by everyday objects such as carpet, furniture, cleaning products, and computers. (10) The NASA Clean Air Study found a simple way to remove a significant number of VOCs within a 24-hour period: add plants to indoor spaces.

(11) Adding plants to indoor spaces has psychological benefits too. (12) Research has long linked time spent in natural environments with increased energy and feelings of contentment. (13) While being outdoors is an excellent option for improving a person’s mental health, recent research has indicated that encountering natural elements while indoors can also help. (14) To experience the maximum benefit of natural elements, experts suggest placing at least one live plant per 100 square feet of home or office space.

(15) Connecting with nature, even just by being near an indoor plant, is a significant factor in a person’s well-being. (16) Sitting in front of an electronic screen all day isn’t natural, and today’s workers need to get up and get outdoors. (17) Richard Ryan, a psychology professor at the University of Rochester, puts it this way: “Nature is something within which we flourish, so having it be more a part of our lives is critical, especially when we live and work in built environments.”

Question

Which sentence should follow sentence 3 to best introduce the topic of the passage?

  • APlacing plants in homes and offices can provide a healthy bridge between nature and the indoors.
  • BIt is important for people to realize that they need to spend more time near plants, whether indoors or out in nature.
  • CFor their personal health and well-being, people need to spend more time outdoors or bring the outdoors in.
  • DIndividuals with little connection to nature can experience illness, depression, and higher levels of stress.
Show the answer

Correct answer: A

The question asks which sentence should follow sentence 3 to best introduce the topic of the passage.

A. CORRECT. The sentence introduces the overall topic by previewing the main ideas in the passage. It introduces the connection between natural elements and well-being (“a healthy bridge”) and sets up the main argument of the passage (“Placing plants in homes and offices” can increase people’s well-being).

B. Incorrect. Although sentence 3 mentions the connection between “people and nature,” this sentence references the importance of spending time near plants while both indoors and outdoors. However, the passage focuses specifically on the benefits of having indoor plants.

C. Incorrect: Though the sentence describes a reason why indoor plants are important (“For [people’s] personal health and well-being”), the topic of the passage is related to the need for indoor plants, not the need for people to spend more time outdoors.

D. Incorrect. While the sentence refers to how time away from nature can affect health and well-being, the vague wording (“little connection to nature”) makes this sentence too broad to introduce the topic of the passage, and thus, it should not follow sentence 3.

Question analysis

This revising question works with the four-paragraph passage “The Benefits of Indoor Plants” and asks which sentence should follow sentence 3 to introduce the passage's topic. The opening paragraph ends on the health risks of time spent away from nature, and every choice continues that thought in some way, so students must judge which one prepares a reader for what the passage goes on to cover.

NYS standards
  • 7W2a introducing and organizing a topic
Grade level
Grade 7 reading and task
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Introducing a topic so that it previews what follows is a grade 7 writing standard, practised often in class. The passage is short and plainly worded, and the choices differ in focus rather than in grammar, typical grade 7 revision.
Estimated difficulty
Moderate: several steps, or a close reading with one strong distractor.
Evidence
Answered from the whole text
Reading level
Passage: about grade 12, 346 words; question and choices: about grade 9, 84 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

The first paragraph ends on a problem, and all four choices continue it plausibly, so the decision is about scope. The passage is about plants indoors, and the near miss offers outdoor time as an equal remedy, while another widens the subject to plants anywhere and a third simply restates the danger. Students who skim the topic sentences of the later paragraphs before choosing see that only an indoor solution introduces what follows.

  1. A very close wrong answer moderate Choosing the answer

    The choice ending “or bring the outdoors in” sounds like the key's “bridge between nature and the indoors,” but it adds spending more time outdoors, a remedy the passage does not develop. (Embretson & Wetzel, 1987; Gorin & Embretson, 2006; Ascalon et al., 2007)

  2. Evidence in several places moderate Working it out

    The topic only emerges from the later paragraphs: plants cleaning indoor air in sentences 4–10, their psychological benefits in 11–14, and nature brought indoors in 15–17. (Kirsch & Mosenthal, 1990; Gorin & Embretson, 2006)

  3. How sentences fit together minor Working it out

    The new sentence must follow sentence 3's warning about “separation between people and nature” and lead into sentence 4's photosynthesis, so it has to name plants as the remedy. (Halliday & Hasan, 1976)

Strategy: Skim the first sentence of each later paragraph to see what the passage actually covers, then test each choice: would it set up those paragraphs without promising something they never discuss?

Traps

  • Half right: One half of a two-part choice is right and the other is not.
  • Too broad or too strong: A choice overstates, generalizes, or uses absolute words the text does not support.
  • Says it twice: Repeats an idea that the sentence or passage already states.

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Working it out, step by step

  1. Figure out what the question asks

    This revising question asks you to add a sentence that introduces the topic. Such a sentence tells the reader what the passage will be about. For example, an essay about why dogs make good pets might start: Dogs make loyal, loving pets. The new sentence goes after sentence 3, so it must also follow from it.

  2. Find the passage’s topic

    Skim the rest of the passage. Sentences 4–10 tell how plants clean indoor air. Sentences 11–14 say plants indoors help the mind. Sentences 15–17 say even an indoor plant connects you with nature. So the topic is plants inside homes and offices. The title says it too: “The Benefits of Indoor Plants.”

  3. Connect it to sentence 3

    Sentence 3 names a problem: “this separation between people and nature puts people at risk for physical and psychological issues.” Psychological means having to do with the mind and feelings. The best next sentence should name the fix the passage talks about: bringing plants indoors.

  4. Check each choice

    • A is right. It names plants “in homes and offices” as “a healthy bridge between nature and the indoors.” A bridge connects two things, so plants bring nature inside. That sets up every later paragraph.
    • B is wrong. “Whether indoors or out in nature” widens the topic to plants anywhere. The passage only discusses plants inside.
    • C is wrong. It offers two fixes: more time outdoors, or bringing the outdoors in. The passage develops only the second. C never even mentions plants.
    • D is wrong. It just repeats sentence 3’s problem in new words. It never brings up plants, the subject of the passage.
  5. Look closely at choice C

    Watch out: C sounds close because of “bring the outdoors in.” But the passage gives no tips for spending more time outside. Sentence 13 mentions being outdoors only on its way to the indoor point. So half of C promises something the passage never delivers.

  6. Choose the answer

    Only one choice moves from sentence 3’s problem to the passage’s answer, plants inside. So the answer is A.

Why this answer and not the closest wrong one

C is the closest wrong answer, because “bring the outdoors in” sounds like A. But C gives equal weight to spending more time outdoors, and the passage never develops that idea. A points only to plants indoors, which is exactly what the rest of the passage is about.

The original DOE question
Question 43 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 61 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test A English, page 61, question 43.
The passage “The Benefits of Indoor Plants” as printed (page 60)The passage “The Benefits of Indoor Plants” as printed on page 60 of the DOE handbook.

Question 18 of 120

2026 Practice Test A English, question 44

Uses the passage above: “The Benefits of Indoor Plants”.

Question

Which transition word or phrase should be added to the beginning of sentence 5 to emphasize the relationship between sentences 4 and 5?

Move the correct answer to the box.

(5) ____ spending prolonged periods of time indoors, away from plants, deprives people of these benefits.

On the test you drag one of the tiles into the box; here, choose it.

  • AAs a result,
  • BPrimarily,
  • CIn contrast,
  • DUnfortunately,
Show the answer

Correct answer: D

The question asks for the transition word or phrase that should be added to the beginning of sentence 5.

“As a result,” is incorrect and should not be added. The transition phrase “As a result” conveys a cause-and-effect relationship that does not exist between the ideas in sentence 4 and sentence 5. Although the plants’ conversion of carbon dioxide into oxygen removes harmful toxins from the air, the process of photosynthesis (sentence 4) does not deprive people of the plants’ benefits (sentence 5).

“Primarily,” is incorrect and should not be added. Although the passage describes why people should spend time nearby or in close proximity to plants, the idea in sentence 5 shifts from the benefits described in sentence 4 to what people lose without them, rather than elaborating on sentence 4. The transition word “Primarily” incorrectly suggests that the sentences describe the same idea.

“In contrast,” is incorrect and should not be added. Although sentence 4 describes a positive idea (plants are beneficial) and sentence 5 describes a negative idea (deprivation), the transition phrase “In contrast” conveys an inaccurate relationship between the ideas in the sentences. Sentence 5 is not arguing against the beneficial effect of plants and should not begin with a transition that implies opposition.

“Unfortunately,” is correct and should be added. The relationship between the ideas in the sentences is correctly conveyed with the transition word “Unfortunately,” which signals the shift from the positive effect described in sentence 4 (plants are helpful) to the emphasis in sentence 5 that the positive effect is dependent on proximity or nearness to plants.

Question analysis

In this revising question, sentence 5 of the indoor-plants passage has a blank at its start, and on the test students move one of four word tiles into the box. They must decide how sentence 5, on what long stretches indoors cost people, relates to sentence 4, on what plants do for the air, since every tile is a common transition that sounds possible.

NYS standards
  • 7W2d transitions in informative writing
Grade level
Grade 7 reading and task
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Choosing a transition that shows how two sentences relate is routine grade 7 writing work. The two sentences are short and the four options familiar, but more than one sounds acceptable on a first reading, so the demand is a careful but typical one.
Estimated difficulty
Moderate: several steps, or a close reading with one strong distractor.
Evidence
Answered from one paragraph or stanza
Reading level
Passage: about grade 12, 346 words; question and choices: about grade 7, 48 words.
Corrected from the DOE handbook
  • The explanation contradicted itself about how sentences 4 and 5 relate; one sentence was corrected.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

Two of the tiles name relationships that seem to fit at first: sentence 5 does follow from sentence 4, and it does turn from good news to bad. Neither is exact, because spending time indoors is not caused by photosynthesis, and missing out on a benefit does not oppose it. The answer is a word of regret rather than a logical connector, which students trained on cause and contrast words may not consider first.

  1. How sentences fit together moderate Working it out

    Sentence 5's “these benefits” points back to sentence 4's cleaner air, and the link is a downside of what was just praised, people indoors missing out, which neither cause nor opposition captures. (Halliday & Hasan, 1976)

  2. Reading between the lines minor Working it out

    The right tile signals the writer's regret rather than a logical link, so students who look only for cause, contrast or emphasis must infer that a negative turn is what the sentences need. (Graesser, Singer & Trabasso, 1994; Kintsch, 1998)

Strategy: Say in your own words what sentence 4 states and what sentence 5 adds, name the link between them before looking at the tiles, then reject any tile that claims a relationship the sentences do not have.

Traps

  • Wrong transition: A connecting word or phrase that signals the wrong relationship, such as contrast where the idea continues.

The wrong answers, classified

What was corrected from the DOE handbook, and why

  • Explanation: Rejecting “Primarily,”, the handbook's explanation says sentence 5 “is actually in opposition to the idea in sentence 4”. Rejecting “In contrast,”, the same explanation says sentence 5 “is not arguing against the beneficial effect of plants and should not begin with a transition that implies opposition”, and it explains the answer as a shift from the benefits to what people lose. The first sentence now describes that shift. The answer, “Unfortunately,”, is unchanged.

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Working it out, step by step

  1. Figure out what the question asks

    You need a transition to start sentence 5. A transition is a word or phrase that shows how two ideas connect. On the test, you drag one tile into the box. To choose, first work out how sentence 5 connects to sentence 4.

  2. Read sentences 4 and 5

    Sentence 4 gives good news. Photosynthesis is how plants make food from sunlight, air and water. As they do it, plants “convert carbon dioxide into oxygen and remove many harmful toxins from the air.” Toxins are poisons. Sentence 5 says that spending long stretches indoors, away from plants, “deprives people of these benefits.” To deprive means to keep someone from having something.

  3. Name the link between them

    “These benefits” points back to sentence 4. So sentence 5 doesn’t argue with sentence 4. It agrees that plants help. Then it adds bad news: people stuck indoors miss out on that help. You need a word that turns from good news to a downside.

  4. Learn what each tile signals

    • As a result, shows cause and effect: It rained hard. As a result, the game was canceled.
    • Primarily, means mainly. It ranks one thing above others.
    • In contrast, shows two things that are opposites: Cats like to be alone. In contrast, dogs like company.
    • Unfortunately, signals bad news: The pool is great. Unfortunately, it is closed today.
  5. Test each tile in sentence 5

    • A, As a result, is wrong. Photosynthesis doesn’t cause people to stay indoors. Sentence 4 is not the cause of sentence 5.
    • B, Primarily, is wrong. It shows no link to sentence 4 at all.
    • C, In contrast, is wrong. Sentence 5 doesn’t oppose sentence 4. It builds on “these benefits.”
    • D, Unfortunately, is right. It turns from what plants do for us to what we lose without them.

    Watch out: The ideas do go from good to bad, so “In contrast” is tempting. But missing out on a benefit is not the opposite of the benefit. That is the trap in C.

  6. Choose the answer

    With the tile in place, sentence 5 reads: Unfortunately, spending prolonged periods of time indoors, away from plants, deprives people of these benefits. Prolonged means long. So the answer is D: move the tile “Unfortunately,” into the box.

Why this answer and not the closest wrong one

“In contrast,” is the closest wrong tile, since sentence 5 does turn from good news to bad. But a contrast needs two ideas that pull against each other. Sentence 5 depends on sentence 4’s “these benefits” and says people miss them. “Unfortunately,” fits that turn exactly.

The original DOE question
Question 44 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 62 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test A English, page 62, question 44. This is the DOE’s version, before the corrections listed in the analysis.

Question 19 of 120

2026 Practice Test A English, question 46

Uses the passage above: “The Benefits of Indoor Plants”.

Question

Which sentence presents ideas irrelevant to the topic of the passage and should be deleted?

  • Asentence 11
  • Bsentence 14
  • Csentence 15
  • Dsentence 16
Show the answer

Correct answer: D

The question asks for the sentence that presents ideas irrelevant to the topic of the passage and should be deleted.

A. Incorrect. Sentence 11 presents one of the key reasons why plants are so important in indoor spaces: they have a positive effect on mental health. The idea that plants provide psychological benefits is relevant to the topic of the passage, and the sentence should not be deleted.

B. Incorrect. Sentence 14 is relevant to the topic because it explains how many plants a person should add to a space in order to experience “the maximum benefit of natural elements.” This idea addresses the main topic of the passage, and the sentence should not be deleted.

C. Incorrect. Although “connecting with nature” is somewhat broader than the topic of the passage, sentence 15 is relevant and belongs in the passage because it specifically refers to using indoor plants as one way to connect with nature (“even just by being near an indoor plant”). Therefore, the sentence should not be deleted.

D. CORRECT. While the topic of the passage is the harm caused by the “separation between people and nature” (sentence 3), the reference in sentence 16 to “an electronic screen” is irrelevant to the topic of the passage. The idea that “today’s workers need to get up and get outdoors” (sentence 16) is, in fact, the opposite of what the passage argues, and the sentence should be deleted.

Question analysis

Which sentence in the last two paragraphs of the indoor-plants passage presents ideas irrelevant to its topic and should be deleted? Each of the four listed sentences mentions nature, plants or well-being in some way, so students must pin down exactly what the passage argues before deciding which one does not serve it.

NYS standards
  • 7W2b developing a topic
Grade level
Grade 7 reading and task
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Spotting a sentence that strays from a passage's topic is regular grade 7 revision work. The passage is short and plainly worded, and its topic is named in its title, so this is a typical grade 7 demand.
Estimated difficulty
Straightforward: two steps or one careful reading.
Evidence
Answered from the whole text
Reading level
Passage: about grade 12, 346 words; question and choices: about grade 6, 19 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

The stray sentence is camouflaged by its links to the opening: screens recall the media of sentence 1, and “isn't natural” sounds like the passage's theme. What gives it away is its advice, to leave the building, when the passage argues for bringing nature into it, along with its chatty tone. Students who cut a sentence for being general or practical have judged by style rather than by the passage's claim.

  1. How sentences fit together moderate Working it out

    Sentence 16 echoes sentence 1's “endless media content” with its “electronic screen,” so it seems connected, yet its call to “get outdoors” pulls against a passage about bringing plants inside. (Halliday & Hasan, 1976)

  2. Every choice must be checked minor Choosing the answer

    The four listed sentences span paragraphs 3 and 4, and each mentions nature, plants or well-being, so each must be read in place and tested against the passage's point. (Embretson & Wetzel, 1987)

Strategy: Say in one phrase what the whole passage argues, then read each listed sentence in place and ask whether it supports that argument or steers the reader toward a different idea.

Traps

  • Fixes what isn't broken: Changes a part of the sentence that was already correct, while the real error stays; or, where the question asks which sentence has an error or should go, picks one that is correct and belongs.

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Working it out, step by step

  1. Figure out what the question asks

    You need to find the sentence that is off topic. Every sentence in a passage should support its main point. For example, in a paragraph about why dogs make good pets, My cousin has a red bike doesn’t belong. You would cut a sentence like that.

  2. Name the passage’s topic

    The title is “The Benefits of Indoor Plants.” The passage says plants inside clean the air and help the mind. Its fix for too much time indoors is to bring nature inside, with plants in homes and offices.

  3. Read sentence 16 in place

    Sentence 16 says, “Sitting in front of an electronic screen all day isn’t natural, and today’s workers need to get up and get outdoors.” It switches to screens. It tells workers to go outside. It never mentions plants. The passage doesn’t object to going outdoors. Sentence 13 even calls it “an excellent option.” But sentence 16 steers away from the topic, plants indoors, to a different fix.

  4. Check each choice

    • A is wrong. Sentence 11 is the third paragraph’s topic sentence: plants indoors help the mind.
    • B is wrong. Sentence 14 tells how many plants to use, one per 100 square feet. That helps readers get the benefit.
    • C is wrong. “Connecting with nature” sounds broad. But it adds “even just by being near an indoor plant,” which ties it to the topic.
    • D is right. Sentence 16 is about screens and going outside, not indoor plants.

    Watch out: Sentence 15 is tempting because it starts with a big idea. Read the whole sentence before you cut it.

  5. Choose the answer

    Without sentence 16, sentence 15 leads straight into the professor’s words about nature in our lives. Nothing is lost. So the answer is D, sentence 16.

Why this answer and not the closest wrong one

Sentence 15 is the closest wrong answer, because “connecting with nature” sounds wider than the topic. But it names an indoor plant, so it supports the passage. Sentence 16 names no plant at all. It sends workers outdoors, a different idea from bringing nature inside.

The original DOE question
Question 46 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 64 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test A English, page 64, question 46.

Question 20 of 120

2026 Practice Test A English, question 47

Uses the passage above: “The Benefits of Indoor Plants”.

Question

Which concluding sentence should follow sentence 17 to best support the information presented in the passage?

  • ABecause indoor plants absorb the carbon dioxide in our air and release the oxygen we need to breathe, they are vital to our wholeness and wellness.
  • BExperts say that adding a Boston fern, a spider plant, or an aloe vera plant is a good place to start if you want to begin to incorporate nature into your home or office.
  • CMore people should consider bringing natural elements inside to improve general wellness and reverse some of the negative effects of an indoor-centered society.
  • DAs one study has confirmed, houseplants are a wise investment because they can remove almost 90 percent of the toxins in the air within the span of 24 hours.
Show the answer

Correct answer: C

The question asks for the concluding sentence that should follow sentence 17 to best support the information presented in the passage.

A. Incorrect. Although the sentence describes plants as “vital to our wholeness and wellness,” the detail about the absorption of carbon dioxide from the air is overly specific and does not capture the broader argument presented in the passage (that placing plants indoors “is a significant factor in a person’s well-being” [sentence 15]).

B. Incorrect. The sentence’s reference to particular types of plants suitable for indoor spaces supports the idea of incorporating nature into a home or office, but the sentence does not address the benefits people can experience for doing so and thus does not present a logical conclusion for the information in the passage.

C. CORRECT. The sentence directly presents the argument of the passage (“More people should consider bringing natural elements inside”) and supports the central ideas in the second and third paragraphs relating to the health and psychological benefits of having indoor plants.

D. Incorrect. Although the sentence notes the positive impact that houseplants can have on air quality, the sentence does not logically follow the preceding information about the overall benefits to a person’s health and well-being.

Question analysis

This conclusion question asks which sentence should follow the last line of the indoor-plants passage, a quotation from a psychology professor about nature and people who live and work in built environments. Students must choose an ending that fits the passage as a whole, not only its last paragraph, and every option sounds like a reasonable closing line when read on its own.

NYS standards
  • 7W2e concluding informative writing
Grade level
Grade 7 reading and task
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Choosing a concluding sentence that reflects a whole passage is standard grade 7 writing work. The passage is seventeen plain sentences, so keeping its main points in view is manageable, and the task matches typical grade 7 revision.
Estimated difficulty
Straightforward: two steps or one careful reading.
Evidence
Answered from the whole text
Reading level
Passage: about grade 12, 346 words; question and choices: about grade 13, 125 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

Three of the endings sound like conclusions: one praises plants as “vital,” one offers practical first steps, and one cites a striking statistic. Only one, though, restates the passage's whole argument, that people should bring nature indoors for their health. Students lose the point when an ending repeats a single fact, such as photosynthesis or toxin removal, or adds new specifics, and the question rewards weighing each ending against all four paragraphs.

  1. Evidence in several places moderate Working it out

    A fitting ending must gather the air-cleaning benefits of sentences 4–10, the psychological benefits of 11–14 and the closing case for keeping nature near, ideas that lie across three paragraphs. (Kirsch & Mosenthal, 1990; Gorin & Embretson, 2006)

  2. The right answer is reworded minor Choosing the answer

    The key speaks of “natural elements” and “an indoor-centered society,” new wording for the passage's argument, while two wrong endings repeat its carbon dioxide, oxygen and toxins. (Freedle & Kostin, 1993; Kirsch & Mosenthal, 1990)

Strategy: List what each paragraph contributes, then choose the ending that sums up the passage's message rather than repeating a single fact or adding a new one.

Traps

  • Too narrow: A single detail offered as the central idea or a summary, or a summary that keeps minor details and leaves out an essential part.
  • Off the point: Adds or keeps something that does not support the paragraph's or the passage's focus, or an introduction or conclusion that misses the main point.

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Working it out, step by step

  1. Figure out what the question asks

    You need a concluding sentence, the last line of the passage. A good conclusion sums up the main point of the whole passage. It doesn’t add new facts. For example, an essay about recess might end: Recess helps kids’ bodies and minds, so schools should keep it.

  2. Sum up the passage

    • Sentences 1–3: People spend most of their time indoors, away from nature, and that puts their health at risk.
    • Sentences 4–10: Indoor plants clean the air.
    • Sentences 11–14: Indoor plants help the mind.
    • Sentences 15–17: Being near nature, even one plant, matters for well-being.

    So the main point is: bring nature indoors to help both body and mind.

  3. Check each choice

    • A is wrong. It rests on one fact from sentence 4, about carbon dioxide and oxygen. It leaves out the benefits for the mind.
    • B is wrong. It adds new details, three kinds of plants. It doesn’t say why plants help.
    • C is right. “Bringing natural elements inside” is the passage’s fix. Wellness means good health, of body and mind. “An indoor-centered society” recalls sentences 1 and 2, about people staying inside.
    • D is wrong. It brings back only the toxins, with a new number, “almost 90 percent.” It drops the benefits for the mind.

    Watch out: A sounds like an ending because it calls plants “vital to our wholeness and wellness.” But its reason covers only the air we breathe.

  4. Choose the answer

    Only one ending sums up the whole passage: people should bring nature inside for their health. So the answer is C.

Why this answer and not the closest wrong one

A is the closest wrong answer, because it sounds like a strong ending. But it repeats one fact, that plants turn carbon dioxide into oxygen. The passage also argues that plants help the mind. C covers the whole argument: bring nature inside to improve wellness.

The original DOE question
Question 47 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 65 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test A English, page 65, question 47.

Question 21 of 120

2026 Practice Test A English, question 49

Question

Which pair of revisions is needed to correct the errors in the paragraph?

(1) Yalina, Michael, and Malcolm love making pancakes with their granddad on Saturday mornings. (2) Yalina’s job is to open the box and pour the pancake mix into a bowl, slowly adding water, eggs, melted butter, and blueberries. (3) Michael uses a wooden spoon to vigorously stir the mixture until it is smooth, and Malcolm helps Granddad carefully pour the batter onto a griddle one-fourth cup at a time. (4) Granddad turns each pancake when they start to bubble, while all three siblings get the table ready for a sweet delicious breakfast.

  • ASentence 1: Delete the comma after Yalina, AND change their to her.
  • BSentence 2: Change is to are, AND delete the comma after bowl.
  • CSentence 3: Change it is to they are, AND delete the comma after smooth.
  • DSentence 4: Change they start to it starts, AND insert a comma after sweet.
Show the answer

Correct answer: D

The question asks which two revisions are needed to correct the paragraph.

A. Incorrect. The comma is needed after “Yalina” to separate the first and second names in the series of three names (Yalina, Michael, and Malcolm). The possessive determiner “their” is also correct as written because it refers back to “Yalina, Michael, and Malcolm,” a plural group of people.

B. Incorrect. Changing “is” to “are” would introduce an error in subject-verb agreement into the sentence; the singular subject “Yalina’s job” requires the singular verb “is.” The comma after “bowl” is required because it separates the phrase “slowly adding water, eggs, melted butter, and blueberries,” which modifies how Yalina prepares the batter, from the remainder of the sentence.

C. Incorrect. “It is” refers to the singular noun “mixture,” so this singular pronoun and verb form is correct. The comma after “smooth” is necessary because this is a compound sentence where two independent clauses (“Michael uses a wooden spoon to vigorously stir the mixture until it is smooth” and “Malcolm helps Granddad carefully pour the batter onto a griddle one-fourth cup at a time”) are joined using a coordinating conjunction, which requires a comma.

D. CORRECT. The plural pronoun “they” refers incorrectly to a singular antecedent, “each pancake.” The pronoun should be changed to a singular one to match its antecedent. A comma is needed between two adjectives of equal importance that modify the noun “breakfast.” Because “sweet” and “delicious” could be written as “sweet and delicious,” they are of equal importance, and a comma is needed.

Question analysis

This editing question gives a four-sentence paragraph about three siblings making blueberry pancakes with their granddad and asks which pair of revisions corrects its errors. Eight words or commas are underlined, and each choice bundles a pronoun or verb change with a comma change in one sentence, so a choice is right only if both of its edits are needed.

NYS standards
  • 7L1 grammar and usage conventions
  • 7L2 capitalization, punctuation, and spelling
Grade level
Grade 7 reading and task
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Pronoun and verb agreement and comma use are grade 6 and 7 conventions. Checking eight underlined spots across four long sentences, and accepting a pair only when both edits are needed, matches typical grade 7 editing.
Estimated difficulty
Moderate: several steps, or a close reading with one strong distractor.
Evidence
Answered from one paragraph or stanza
Reading level
Question and choices: about grade 8, 149 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

The errors sit together in the paragraph's last sentence, and neither is heard easily, so students who judge by ear look for problems elsewhere. The strongest pull applies two familiar but wrong rules, no comma before “and” and a plural pronoun for a mixture of several ingredients, to a sentence that is already correct. The question rewards testing each pronoun against its noun and each comma against a rule before reading the pairs.

  1. A rule that doesn't sound wrong moderate Working it out

    Both real errors sound natural: “each pancake … when they start to bubble” passes because several pancakes are cooking, and “sweet delicious breakfast” seldom sounds as if it needs a comma between its adjectives. (Connors & Lunsford, 1988)

  2. Every choice must be checked moderate Choosing the answer

    Eight underlined spots are paired into four proposed revisions, one pair per sentence, and a pair is right only if both of its edits fix real errors, so every edit has to be tried in place. (Embretson & Wetzel, 1987)

Strategy: Before reading the choices, test each underlined spot yourself: find what each pronoun and verb refers to, and decide whether each comma is needed. Then look for the pair whose two edits both fix real errors.

Traps

  • Fixes what isn't broken: Changes a part of the sentence that was already correct, while the real error stays; or, where the question asks which sentence has an error or should go, picks one that is correct and belongs.
  • Agreement: A verb that does not agree with its subject, or a pronoun that does not agree with the word it stands for.
  • Punctuation: A comma, semicolon, colon, dash or apostrophe used where it does not belong, or missing where it does.

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Working it out, step by step

  1. Figure out what the question asks

    Eight spots are underlined. Each choice offers two changes in one sentence. A choice is right only if both of its changes fix real errors. So test each underlined spot yourself first.

  2. Test sentence 1

    Commas go between the items in a list of three or more: ham, eggs, and toast. So the comma after “Yalina” is needed. “Their” is plural, and it means all three kids, so it is correct too. Nothing needs fixing here, so A is out.

  3. Test sentence 2

    A verb must match its subject, the word the sentence is about. Here the subject is “Yalina’s job,” one job, so “is” is right. Example: My chore is easy, not My chore are easy. The comma after “bowl” is needed too. It shows that “slowly adding water” tells what Yalina does. Without it, the bowl seems to be adding the water. So B is out.

  4. Test sentence 3

    “It” means “the mixture,” one thing, so “it is” is correct. The comma after “smooth” comes before “and.” When and joins two complete sentences, put a comma before it. Example: I made the salad, and Dad grilled the fish. Here both halves are complete: Michael stirs, and Malcolm pours. So C is out.

    Watch out: Some students learn that a comma never goes before and. That is not true when and joins two complete sentences. Believing it leads to C.

  5. Fix the pronoun in sentence 4

    A pronoun must match its noun in number. One thing takes it, and more than one takes they. Here the noun is “each pancake,” one at a time. So “they start” should be “it starts.” Example: Each cookie is done when it turns brown.

    Watch out: Many pancakes are on the griddle, so they sounds fine. But each means you are talking about one pancake at a time.

  6. Fix the comma in sentence 4

    Two describing words of equal weight need a comma between them. Test: can you put and between them, or swap them? Sweet and delicious breakfast and delicious, sweet breakfast both work. So write sweet, delicious breakfast. Compare three small dogs. You can’t say three and small dogs, so no comma there.

  7. Choose the answer

    Both changes in sentence 4 fix real errors. Fixed, it reads: Granddad turns each pancake when it starts to bubble, while all three siblings get the table ready for a sweet, delicious breakfast. So the answer is D.

Why this answer and not the closest wrong one

C is the closest wrong answer. It relies on two wrong ideas: that a comma never comes before and, and that a mix of many ingredients needs they. But the comma joins two complete sentences, and “it” means the one mixture. Only D’s two changes both fix real errors.

The original DOE question
Question 49 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 69 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test A English, page 69, question 49.

Question 22 of 120

2026 Practice Test A English, question 50

Question

Which sentence in the paragraph contains an error in construction?

(1) The blobfish, a creature that certainly resembles its name, is an unusual fish whose body is mostly composed of pink, gelatinous flesh. (2) Because it has very few muscles and its density is close to that of water, the blobfish spends its life floating slightly above the ocean floor. (3) It must wait patiently for whatever edible matter might float by its mouth. (4) The blobfish’s downturned mouth, slimy skin, and pale coloring caused them to be voted the World’s Ugliest Animal in 2013.

Move the answer to the box. There is only one error in construction.

Contains an error in construction

On the test you drag one of the tiles into the box; here, choose it.

  • ASentence 1
  • BSentence 2
  • CSentence 3
  • DSentence 4
Show the answer

Correct answer: D

The question asks for identification of the one sentence in the paragraph that contains an error in construction.

Sentence 1: Construction is correct. The singular pronoun “its” matches the number of the word it refers to, the singular noun “blobfish.” Additionally, the appositive phrase “a creature that certainly resembles its name” is correctly set off by commas to provide an extra, but not essential, detail about the blobfish. The comma separating “pink” and “gelatinous” is correct because these are coordinate adjectives. There are no errors in sentence 1.

Sentence 2: Construction is correct. The singular pronouns “it” and “its” match the number of the word they refer to, the singular noun “blobfish.” Additionally, the structure of the sentence correctly shows that the clause “Because it has very few muscles and its density is close to that of water” explains why “the blobfish” spends its life floating. There are no errors in sentence 2.

Sentence 3: Construction is correct. The “it” and “its” in the sentence refer to “the blobfish” mentioned in the previous sentence. The use of singular pronouns in sentence 3 is consistent with the rest of the paragraph. There are no errors in sentence 3.

Sentence 4: Contains an error in construction. Sentence 4 erroneously uses the plural pronoun “them” to refer to the blobfish, when the singular “it” should have been used. Although sentence 4 starts by correctly referring to the blobfish in the singular (“the blobfish’s”), it erroneously switches to plural usage midway through: “caused them to be voted.” This is an error because the rest of the paragraph refers to the blobfish in the singular. The singular construction of the paragraph starts with “a creature” and “an unusual fish” in sentence 1 and continues throughout sentence 2 (“it has,” “its density,” “the blobfish,” and “its life”), sentence 3 (“It must” and “its mouth”), and the first half of sentence 4 (“the blobfish’s”). Proper construction requires sentence 4 to maintain the paragraph’s consistent use of singular references. To fix the construction error in sentence 4, the plural pronoun “them” should be changed to the singular pronoun “it” (i.e., “The blobfish’s downturned mouth, slimy skin, and pale coloring caused it to be voted the World’s Ugliest Animal in 2013.”).

Question analysis

This editing question gives a four-sentence paragraph describing the blobfish, a pink, jelly-like fish that floats just above the ocean floor, and asks which sentence contains an error in construction. On the test students move a sentence tile into a box; the kind of error is not named, so every sentence, with its commas, describing phrases and pronouns, must be checked.

NYS standards
  • 7L1 grammar and usage conventions
Grade level
Grade 7 reading and task
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 The grammar here is taught by grade 6, but the question does not say what kind of error to look for, and the correct sentences carry commas, describing phrases and pronouns of their own, which is typical of grade 7 editing.
Estimated difficulty
Moderate: several steps, or a close reading with one strong distractor.
Evidence
Answered from one paragraph or stanza
Reading level
Question and choices: about grade 6, 112 words.
Corrected from the DOE handbook
  • Two grammar terms in the explanation were wrong; both sentences were corrected.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

The faulty pronoun is camouflaged by the list right before it, which makes a plural sound natural, so students who read by ear pass the last sentence and flag a correct one. The likeliest victim is sentence 2, where “it” comes before the noun it stands for, which some students wrongly believe is not allowed. The question rewards asking, for each pronoun, what noun it stands for and whether the number matches.

  1. A rule that doesn't sound wrong moderate Working it out

    “Them” in sentence 4 follows the plural list “downturned mouth, slimy skin, and pale coloring,” so it sounds right, though what was voted ugliest is the singular blobfish. (Connors & Lunsford, 1988)

  2. Every choice must be checked moderate Choosing the answer

    The stem names no kind of error, and every sentence has a pronoun or a set-off phrase that could be suspect, from the opening appositive to the “Because it has” clause, so all four must be checked. (Embretson & Wetzel, 1987)

Strategy: Check each sentence in turn: the subject and verb, what every pronoun refers to, and what each describing phrase attaches to, without trusting how smoothly the sentence sounds.

Traps

  • Fixes what isn't broken: Changes a part of the sentence that was already correct, while the real error stays; or, where the question asks which sentence has an error or should go, picks one that is correct and belongs.

The wrong answers, classified

What was corrected from the DOE handbook, and why

  • Explanation: The handbook's explanation of sentence 1 calls “a creature that certainly resembles its name” a clause; it is an appositive phrase, a noun phrase that renames “the blobfish”, and now says so. Its explanation of sentence 2 says the “Because…” clause “modifies the words ‘the blobfish’”; an introductory “because” clause tells why something happens, so it modifies the verb, and the sentence now says it explains why the blobfish spends its life floating. The answer, sentence 4, is unchanged.

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Working it out, step by step

  1. Figure out what the question asks

    You need the one sentence with an error in construction, a mistake in how the sentence is built. The question doesn’t say what kind of error. So check each sentence’s commas, phrases and pronouns. A pronoun is a word like it or them that stands in for a noun.

  2. Check sentence 1

    “A creature that certainly resembles its name” is an extra phrase that renames the blobfish. Commas around an extra phrase are correct: Max, my brother, plays drums. In “pink, gelatinous,” a comma sits between two describing words of equal weight. Gelatinous means jelly-like. You could say pink and gelatinous, so the comma is right.

  3. Check sentences 2 and 3

    Sentence 2 starts, “Because it has very few muscles.” This part tells why the blobfish floats. Here “it” comes before “the blobfish.” That is allowed when the noun follows soon after: Because she was tired, Maya went to bed. In sentence 3, “It” can only mean the blobfish. Only the fish could wait for food to float by its mouth. Both sentences are correct.

    Watch out: Some students think a pronoun can never come before its noun. That makes sentence 2 look wrong, which leads to B.

  4. Find the error in sentence 4

    Sentence 4 says the fish’s features “caused them to be voted the World’s Ugliest Animal in 2013.” What was voted the ugliest animal? The blobfish, one animal. A pronoun must match its noun in number. So it should be it, not them. The rest of the paragraph calls the blobfish it every time.

    Watch out: The list just before, “downturned mouth, slimy skin, and pale coloring,” is plural. That makes them sound right. But a mouth, skin and coloring can’t be voted an animal.

  5. Show the fix

    Fixed, the sentence reads: The blobfish’s downturned mouth, slimy skin, and pale coloring caused it to be voted the World’s Ugliest Animal in 2013. Now the pronoun matches the one blobfish.

  6. Choose the answer

    Sentences 1, 2 and 3 are built correctly. Only sentence 4 has a pronoun that doesn’t match its noun. So the answer is D: move the tile “Sentence 4” into the box labeled “Contains an error in construction.”

Why this answer and not the closest wrong one

Sentence 2 is the closest wrong answer, because “it” comes before the word “blobfish.” That is allowed, since the noun follows right away. In sentence 4, though, “them” is plural but stands for one blobfish. That mismatch is the real error.

The original DOE question
Question 50 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 70 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test A English, page 70, question 50. This is the DOE’s version, before the corrections listed in the analysis.

Question 23 of 120

2026 Practice Test A Math, question 10

Question

Three expressions are given:

−2(2.5n+4)-2(2.5n + 4)

5−n5 - n

3(2n+7)3(2n + 7)

Which of these are equivalent to the sum of these three expressions?

Select the two correct answers.

Choose every answer that is correct, then check. The DOE has not published how answers with several parts are scored; this site counts one right only when every part is right.

  • A5−n+6n+21−5n−85 - n + 6n + 21 - 5n - 8
  • B5−n+6n+21−5n+85 - n + 6n + 21 - 5n + 8
  • C5−n+5n+21−5n−85 - n + 5n + 21 - 5n - 8
  • D18−n18 - n
  • E18
  • F34
Show the answer

Correct answer: A and E

Add the three expressions: 5−n+3(2n+7)+(−2)(2.5n+4)5 - n + 3(2n + 7) + (-2)(2.5n + 4).

Distribute 3 and −2: 5−n+6n+21−5n−85 - n + 6n + 21 - 5n - 8.

Combine the variable terms and combine the constants: (−n+6n−5n)+(5+21−8)=18(-n + 6n - 5n) + (5 + 21 - 8) = 18.

Question analysis

This algebra question gives three expressions, one with a decimal coefficient and a negative factor, and asks which two of six choices are equivalent to their sum. It tests distributing, combining like terms and recognizing equivalent expressions. Signs from the negative factor are easy to lose, and several choices are built from exactly those slips.

NYS standards
  • 7.EE.1 linear expressions with rational coefficients
  • 6.EE.4 identifying equivalent expressions
Grade level
Grade 7 content, by NYS standard
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Expanding and combining linear expressions with a negative factor and a decimal coefficient is standard grade 7 work. Choosing the two equivalent ones out of six, where each common slip appears as a choice, takes more care than one simplification.
Estimated difficulty
Moderate: several steps, or a close reading with one strong distractor.
Solution
4 steps
Reading level
Question and choices: about grade 8, 28 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

The six choices form three consistent pairs, each an expansion with its simplified total: the right pair, a pair built on a sign slip with −2 × 4 that totals 34, and a pair built on 3 × 2n read as 5n that totals 18 − n. A student who makes either slip finds two choices that agree with each other and seem to confirm the work. The question rewards one careful simplification and the confidence to accept a sum with no n left.

  1. Error-prone arithmetic moderate Working it out

    The first expression puts a negative factor in front of a decimal term: −2 times 2.5n is −5n, and the −2 must reach the 4 as well, giving −8, not +8. (Brown & Burton, 1978; Junker & Sijtsma, 2001)

  2. A very close wrong answer moderate Choosing the answer

    The first two expansions are identical except for their last sign, − 8 against + 8, and the third differs from the first only in 5n for 6n, so only a term-by-term check separates them. (Embretson & Wetzel, 1987; Gorin & Embretson, 2006; Ascalon et al., 2007)

  3. Many steps minor Working it out

    Two distributions come first, then the n terms and the constants are collected separately, and six choices are compared with the result; both right ones must be picked to score. (Daniel & Embretson, 2010; Enright, Morley & Sheehan, 2002)

  4. An answer in an unexpected form minor Choosing the answer

    One right answer is the expansion before any terms are combined and the other is the plain number 18, which has to be accepted as equal to a sum in which every expression held n. (Enright, Morley & Sheehan, 2002)

Strategy: Distribute each factor across its parentheses, keeping the sign with every product, then combine the n terms and the constants separately and test each of the six choices against the result.

Traps

  • Order of operations: Working left to right, or distributing a minus sign wrongly, gives a choice.
  • Misunderstands the concept: A wrong belief about a concept: that percents can be added, that area grows like length, that averages can be averaged, that a bigger denominator means a bigger fraction.
  • Answer in another form: The right answer is written differently from the way you worked it out.

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Worked solution, step by step

Formulas used

The distributive property
a(b+c)=a×b+a×ca(b + c) = a \times b + a \times c
a is the number in front of the parentheses, and b and c are the terms inside. You multiply a by every term inside, not only the first one. If a is negative, its minus sign goes into every product. It works because a groups of b + c is a groups of b plus a groups of c.
Multiplying signed numbers
(−a)×b=−(a×b)(-a) \times b = -(a \times b)
a and b are positive numbers, so −a is negative. A negative number times a positive number is negative. Use it whenever a minus sign sits in front of the parentheses: −2 times 4 is −8, not 8.
Combining like terms
an+bn=(a+b)nan + bn = (a + b)n
Like terms have the same letter part, such as 6n and −5n. a and b are their coefficients, the numbers in front of n. Add the coefficients and keep the n. Constants, the plain numbers, combine only with other constants.
  1. Sort out the question

    An expression is a math phrase made of numbers, letters and signs, with no equal sign. The sum of the three expressions means you add all of them:

    −2(2.5n+4)+(5−n)+3(2n+7)-2(2.5n + 4) + (5 - n) + 3(2n + 7)

    You need the two choices that are equivalent to this sum. Equivalent means equal for every value of n. Some choices show the sum before it is simplified. Others show the result.

  2. Distribute the 3

    To distribute means to multiply the number outside the parentheses by each term inside.

    3(2n+7)=3×2n+3×7=6n+213(2n + 7) = 3 \times 2n + 3 \times 7 = 6n + 21

    Watch out: 3 times 2n is 6n. Adding 3 and 2 instead gives 5n. That slip leads to choice C, and then to 18 − n, choice D.

  3. Distribute the −2

    Now multiply −2 by both terms. A negative times a positive is negative, so both products are negative.

    −2(2.5n+4)=−2×2.5n+(−2)×4=−5n−8-2(2.5n + 4) = -2 \times 2.5n + (-2) \times 4 = -5n - 8

    Watch out: the −2 multiplies the 4 too. Writing +8 instead of −8 leads to choice B. That sum works out to 34, choice F.

  4. Write the whole sum

    Put the three pieces together, starting with 5 − n:

    5−n+6n+21−5n−85 - n + 6n + 21 - 5n - 8

    This matches choice A exactly, term by term. So A is one of the answers.

  5. Combine like terms

    Gather the n terms first. Remember that −n means −1 times n.

    −n+6n−5n=(−1+6−5)n=0n=0-n + 6n - 5n = (-1 + 6 - 5)n = 0n = 0

    Then gather the constants:

    5+21−8=185 + 21 - 8 = 18

    The n terms cancel out, so the whole sum is just 18.

    Watch out: a sum with no n left is fine. Keeping an extra −n leads to choice D.

  6. Pick the two answers

    Choice A is the sum before you combine like terms. Choice E, 18, is the sum after you combine them. Both equal the sum for every value of n. So the answers are A and E.

Check your answer

Try a value, such as n = 2, in each expression. −2(2.5×2+4)=−2×9=−18-2(2.5 \times 2 + 4) = -2 \times 9 = -18. 5−2=35 - 2 = 3. 3(2×2+7)=3×11=333(2 \times 2 + 7) = 3 \times 11 = 33. The sum is −18+3+33=18-18 + 3 + 33 = 18, which matches E. Choice D would give 18 − 2 = 16 instead.

The original DOE question
Question 10 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 81 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test A Math, page 81, question 10.

Question 24 of 120

2026 Practice Test A Math, question 17

Question

Consider this expression:

|(−8)−(−3)+6|−|6−11||(-8) - (-3) + 6| - |6 - 11|

Create an equivalent expression.

Move the correct answer to each box. Not all answers will be used.

|| − ||

On the test you drag tiles into the boxes; here, choose each box’s tile from its menu. Each tile can be used once. The DOE has not published how answers with several parts are scored; this site counts one right only when every part is right.

Show the answer

Correct answer: blank 1: 1; blank 2: −5

To create an expression equivalent to |(−8)−(−3)+6|−|6−11||(-8) - (-3) + 6| - |6 - 11|:

Step 1: Simplify the first absolute value term.

(−8)−(−3)=−8+3=−5(-8) - (-3) = -8 + 3 = -5

−5+6=1-5 + 6 = 1

Simplify the second absolute value term.

6−11=−56 - 11 = -5

Therefore the equivalent expression is

|1|−|−5||1| - |-5|.

Question analysis

This absolute value question shows an expression with two pairs of bars and asks students to build an equivalent one by placing number tiles in two boxes. It tests subtracting negative integers and understanding what absolute value bars do. Not every tile is used, and several tiles match the results of common sign mistakes.

NYS standards
Grade level
Grade 7 content, by NYS standard
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Simplifying signed integers inside absolute value bars, including subtracting a negative, is core grade 7 work. This asks only for the values inside the bars, not the final number, but one sign slip leads straight to a wrong tile.
Estimated difficulty
Straightforward: two steps or one careful reading.
Solution
3 steps
Reading level
Question and choices: about grade 6, 21 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

Every move here involves a sign, and the tiles are built from the usual misreadings of absolute value: 11 for making each number positive before combining, 17 for erasing every minus sign. A slip on − (−3) gives −5 for the first pair, but the second pair needs the only −5 tile, so that slip leaves a box with no tile to fit. Students who simplify each inside completely, and leave the bars untouched, finish quickly.

  1. Error-prone arithmetic moderate Working it out

    Inside the first bars, subtracting −3 must become adding 3, so −8 + 3 = −5, and adding 6 then crosses zero to reach 1; reading − (−3) as − 3 gives −5 instead. (Brown & Burton, 1978; Junker & Sijtsma, 2001)

  2. Many steps minor Working it out

    Two pairs of bars are simplified separately, and both boxes need the right tile, kept in the original order, before the answer is right. (Daniel & Embretson, 2010; Enright, Morley & Sheehan, 2002)

  3. An answer in an unexpected form minor Choosing the answer

    Each box takes what is left inside a pair of bars, not its absolute value, so the second box needs the tile −5 rather than a 5, and the expression's value, −4, is never entered. (Enright, Morley & Sheehan, 2002)

Strategy: Rewrite subtracting −3 as adding 3, then simplify the inside of each pair of bars separately, left to right; each box replaces the inside of one pair, in the same order.

Traps

  • A faulty procedure: A systematic but wrong procedure: adding fractions straight across, applying an exponent to each term of a sum, dropping a sign when moving a term.
  • Misunderstands the concept: A wrong belief about a concept: that percents can be added, that area grows like length, that averages can be averaged, that a bigger denominator means a bigger fraction.
  • Negatives and direction: Arithmetic with negative numbers, the order of a subtraction, or direction on a number line. (Moving a term across the equals sign without changing its sign is a faulty procedure.)

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Worked solution, step by step

Formulas used

Subtracting a negative number
a−(−b)=a+ba - (-b) = a + b
a is any number, and b is a positive number, so −b is negative. Subtracting a negative number is the same as adding its opposite, the same number with the other sign. Think of money: taking away a debt of $3 leaves you $3 richer.
Absolute value
|a|=the distance from a to 0|a| = \text{the distance from } a \text{ to } 0
The bars around a number stand for its absolute value. a is any number. The absolute value is how far a is from 0 on a number line, so it is never negative. Both |5| and |−5| equal 5. Always simplify inside the bars first.
  1. Sort out the question

    The expression has two pairs of absolute value bars. The new expression keeps both pairs, with a box inside each one:

    |□|−|□||\square| - |\square|

    Each box gets the number you reach when you simplify inside that pair of bars. The bars stay, so you do not take the absolute value yet. Some tiles are not used.

  2. Simplify inside the first bars

    Inside the first bars is (−8)−(−3)+6(-8) - (-3) + 6. Subtracting −3 is the same as adding 3. Work from left to right:

    (−8)−(−3)=−8+3=−5(-8) - (-3) = -8 + 3 = -5

    −5+6=1-5 + 6 = 1

    The first box gets the tile 1.

    Watch out: the bars do not make each number positive before you combine. Changing −8 and −3 to 8 and 3 first gives 8 − 3 + 6 = 11. Dropping every minus sign gives 8 + 3 + 6 = 17. Both are tiles, and both are wrong.

  3. Simplify inside the second bars

    Inside the second bars is 6−116 - 11. You take a bigger number from a smaller one, so the result is negative:

    6−11=−56 - 11 = -5

    The second box gets the tile −5.

    Watch out: do not change −5 to 5. The bars are still there in the new expression, so the box holds what is inside them.

  4. Keep the boxes in order

    The first bars came first, so 1 goes in the first box and −5 in the second. The new expression has the same value as the old one:

    |1|−|−5|=1−5=−4|1| - |-5| = 1 - 5 = -4

    Swapping the tiles gives |−5|−|1|=5−1=4|-5| - |1| = 5 - 1 = 4, which is not equal. So the boxes get 1 and −5, making |1| − |−5|.

    On the test, you drag each tile into its box. On this site, you choose it from the box’s menu.

Check your answer

Use a number line for the first pair. Start at −8 and move 3 to the right to reach −5. Then move 6 more to the right to reach 1. For the second pair, start at 6 and move 11 to the left. You land on −5. Both boxes check out.

The original DOE question
Question 17 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 88 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test A Math, page 88, question 17.

Question 25 of 120

2026 Practice Test A Math, question 27

Question

Complete the steps to show one way to solve the equation 24=−0.5(x+8)24 = -0.5(x + 8) for x.

Move the correct answer to each box. Each answer may be used more than once. Not all answers will be used.

24=−0.5(x+8)24 = -0.5(x + 8)

24=−0.5x+24 = -0.5x +

=−0.5x= -0.5x

=x= x

On the test you drag tiles into the boxes; here, choose each box’s tile from its menu. A tile can be used more than once. The DOE has not published how answers with several parts are scored; this site counts one right only when every part is right.

Show the answer

Correct answer: blank 1: −4; blank 2: 28; blank 3: −56

Solution:

Answer for second equation: −4

Answer for third equation: 28

Answer for fourth equation: −56

24=−0.5(x+8)24 = -0.5(x + 8)

Distribute the −0.5 on the right side of the equation: 24=−0.5x−424 = -0.5x - 4.

Add 4 to both sides of the equation to eliminate the −4 on the right side: 28=−0.5x28 = -0.5x.

Divide both sides by −0.5: −56=x-56 = x.

Question analysis

Students complete a step-by-step solution of the equation 24 = −0.5(x + 8) by dragging number tiles into three boxes: one after distributing, one after collecting the constants, and one for x. It tests solving a two-step linear equation with a negative decimal. Tiles may be reused, and many come in positive and negative pairs, so every sign counts.

NYS standards
  • 7.EE.4a two-step equations
  • 7.EE.1 linear expressions with rational coefficients
Grade level
Grade 7 content, by NYS standard
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Solving equations of the form p(x + q) = r with rational numbers is named in the grade 7 standards. Here the steps are laid out, but the negative decimal factor forces a sign decision at every one of the three boxes.
Estimated difficulty
Moderate: several steps, or a close reading with one strong distractor.
Solution
3 steps
Reading level
Question and choices: about grade 3, 39 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

The layout settles the method, so the question comes down to one sign at each box. The printed plus before the first box nudges students toward the positive 4, and the pool then supplies every number that follows from it, down to −40. Students who distribute correctly can still lose the item at the last box by dividing 28 by 0.5. Substituting −56 back, −0.5 × (−48) = 24, confirms the final box.

  1. Error-prone arithmetic moderate Working it out

    Two of the three boxes turn on a negative decimal: −0.5 times 8 must give −4, and dividing 28 by −0.5 means multiplying by −2, which doubles the size and makes it negative. (Brown & Burton, 1978; Junker & Sijtsma, 2001)

  2. A very close wrong answer minor Choosing the answer

    The pool pairs −4 with 4, −40 with 40 and −56 with 56, so a box filled with the right size and the wrong sign looks just as finished; estimating cannot separate −56 from 56. (Embretson & Wetzel, 1987; Gorin & Embretson, 2006; Ascalon et al., 2007)

  3. Many steps minor Working it out

    The three boxes form a chain and all three must be right, so a slip in the first carries through; the pool even holds the whole wrong chain 4, 20 and −40. (Daniel & Embretson, 2010; Enright, Morley & Sheehan, 2002)

  4. An answer in an unexpected form minor Choosing the answer

    The second line prints a plus sign before its box, so the distributed −0.5x − 4 must be written as −0.5x + (−4), with the negative tile in the box. (Enright, Morley & Sheehan, 2002)

Strategy: Multiply −0.5 by both x and 8, undo the constant term by doing the opposite operation to both sides, then divide by −0.5, which is the same as multiplying by −2.

Traps

  • Order of operations: Working left to right, or distributing a minus sign wrongly, gives a choice.
  • Negatives and direction: Arithmetic with negative numbers, the order of a subtraction, or direction on a number line. (Moving a term across the equals sign without changing its sign is a faulty procedure.)
  • A faulty procedure: A systematic but wrong procedure: adding fractions straight across, applying an exponent to each term of a sum, dropping a sign when moving a term.

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Worked solution, step by step

Formulas used

The distributive property
a(b+c)=a×b+a×ca(b + c) = a \times b + a \times c
a is the number in front of the parentheses, and b and c are the terms inside. Multiply a by each term inside. If a is negative, the minus sign goes into every product. It works because a groups of b + c is the same as a groups of b plus a groups of c.
Signs when you multiply or divide
(−)×(+)=(−)(−)×(−)=(+)(-) \times (+) = (-) \qquad (-) \times (-) = (+)
A negative number times a positive number gives a negative result. A negative times a negative gives a positive result. The same rules hold when you divide. Use them at every step where a negative number appears.
Doing the same to both sides
if a=b, then a+c=b+c and ac=bc\text{if } a = b \text{, then } a + c = b + c \text{ and } \frac{a}{c} = \frac{b}{c}
a and b are the two sides of an equation, and c is any number (not zero when you divide). An equation is like a balanced scale. Doing the same thing to both sides keeps it level. That is how you get x by itself.
  1. Sort out the question

    You solve 24=−0.5(x+8)24 = -0.5(x + 8) by filling three boxes:

    • Box 1 comes after −0.5x+-0.5x +, once the parentheses are gone.
    • Box 2 is the number equal to −0.5x-0.5x.
    • Box 3 is the value of x.

    A tile can be used more than once, and some tiles are not used.

  2. Distribute the −0.5

    Multiply −0.5 by each term inside the parentheses. A negative times a positive is negative:

    −0.5×x=−0.5x-0.5 \times x = -0.5x

    −0.5×8=−4-0.5 \times 8 = -4

    So 24=−0.5x+(−4)24 = -0.5x + (-4). The line already shows a plus sign, so box 1 gets −4.

    Watch out: the −0.5 multiplies the 8 too. Writing 4 instead starts a wrong chain: 4, then 20, then −40. Every number in that chain is a tile.

  3. Add 4 to both sides

    You want −0.5x alone on one side, and the −4 is in the way. Adding 4 undoes subtracting 4, so add 4 to both sides:

    24+4=−0.5x−4+424 + 4 = -0.5x - 4 + 4

    28=−0.5x28 = -0.5x

    Box 2 gets 28.

    Watch out: taking 4 away from 24 instead gives 20, another tile.

  4. Divide both sides by −0.5

    Now x is multiplied by −0.5. Dividing undoes multiplying, so divide both sides by −0.5:

    28÷(−0.5)=−5628 \div (-0.5) = -56

    Dividing by 0.5 is the same as multiplying by 2, since every whole holds two halves. A positive divided by a negative is negative. So x=−56x = -56.

    Watch out: dropping the minus sign gives 56, which is also a tile.

  5. Name the three tiles

    From top to bottom, the finished steps read:

    24=−0.5x+(−4)24 = -0.5x + (-4)

    28=−0.5x28 = -0.5x

    −56=x-56 = x

    So the boxes get −4, 28 and −56, in that order. On the test, you drag each tile into its box. On this site, you choose it from the box’s menu.

Check your answer

Put x=−56x = -56 back into the first equation. −56+8=−48-56 + 8 = -48. Then −0.5×(−48)=24-0.5 \times (-48) = 24, since a negative times a negative is positive. That gives 24, the left side, so −56 is right.

The original DOE question
Question 27 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 98 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test A Math, page 98, question 27.

Question 26 of 120

2026 Practice Test A Math, question 32

Question

What is the value of x in the equation 6x=9x+136x = 9x + 13?

Enter your answer in the space provided. Enter only your answer.

On the test you build the answer on an on-screen keypad; here, type it. Use ^ for a power, sqrt( ) or √ for a root, pi for π, and <= or >= for ≤ and ≥.

Show the answer

Correct answer: x = -13/3

Solution:

Start with 6x=9x+136x = 9x + 13.

Subtract 9x9x from both sides to move all terms involving x to one side.

6x−9x=136x - 9x = 13

Combine like terms.

−3x=13-3x = 13

Divide both sides by −3 to solve for x.

x=−133x = -\frac{13}{3}

x=−413x = -4\frac{1}{3}

Question analysis

This equation question asks for the value of x when 6x equals 9x plus 13, typed into a box after "x =". Students solve a linear equation with the variable on both sides by gathering the x terms and dividing. With no answer choices to check against, keeping the sign of each moved term is the main challenge.

NYS standards
  • 8.EE.7b linear equations with rational coefficients
  • 7.NS.2b rational number division
Grade level
Grade 8 content, by NYS standard
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 The variable appears on both sides, a grade 8 topic, yet collecting it takes one subtraction and one division, much like a grade 7 two-step equation. The typed answer, with no choices to compare, adds some risk.
Estimated difficulty
Straightforward: two steps or one careful reading.
Solution
2 steps
Reading level
Question and choices: about grade 5, 21 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

Two moves solve the equation, so the method is not in doubt; the points are lost in the result. Subtracting 6x instead, which gives 0 = 3x + 13, works as well but moves the sign onto the 13, and either route ends in a division that must keep the negative. The answer is not a whole number, which unsettles students who expect one, and a switch to decimals leads to a rounded entry that is not exact.

  1. Error-prone arithmetic moderate Working it out

    Collecting the x terms gives 6x − 9x = −3x, a negative coefficient, and 13 ÷ (−3) is a negative fraction that does not come out whole, so both the sign and the fraction must survive. (Brown & Burton, 1978; Junker & Sijtsma, 2001)

  2. An answer in an unexpected form minor Choosing the answer

    The answer is typed after the printed x =, with no choices to compare, and its decimal form, −4.333…, repeats forever, so only a fraction or mixed number is exact. (Enright, Morley & Sheehan, 2002)

Strategy: Subtract 9x from both sides so that x appears once, divide both sides by the coefficient left on x, and check by substituting the result into both sides of the original equation.

Traps

  • Negatives and direction: Arithmetic with negative numbers, the order of a subtraction, or direction on a number line. (Moving a term across the equals sign without changing its sign is a faulty procedure.)
  • Wrong operation: Adds instead of multiplying, divides the wrong way round, turns a ratio or rate upside down, or undoes a step in the wrong direction (subtracts what should be added back).
  • Rounds too early: Rounds a value partway through, or rounds the wrong way, so the final answer drifts from the exact one.

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Worked solution, step by step

Formulas used

Doing the same to both sides
if a=b, then a−c=b−c and ac=bc\text{if } a = b \text{, then } a - c = b - c \text{ and } \frac{a}{c} = \frac{b}{c}
a and b are the two sides of an equation, and c is any number or term (not zero when you divide). Taking the same thing away from both sides, or dividing both by the same number, keeps the sides equal. That is how you get x by itself.
Dividing by a negative number
a−b=−ab\frac{a}{-b} = -\frac{a}{b}
a and b are positive numbers, so −b is negative. A positive number divided by a negative number is negative. You can write the minus sign in front of the whole fraction.
Changing a fraction to a mixed number
ab=qrb\frac{a}{b} = q\frac{r}{b}
Use this when the top of a fraction is bigger than the bottom. Divide a by b. q is the number of whole times b fits into a. r is the remainder, what is left over. The remainder goes on top of the leftover fraction.
  1. Sort out the question

    You need the value of x that makes 6x=9x+136x = 9x + 13 true. The letter x appears on both sides, so first gather the x terms on one side. There are no choices to check against, so work carefully.

  2. Move the x terms to one side

    Subtract 9x from both sides. This clears the x term off the right side:

    6x−9x=9x+13−9x6x - 9x = 9x + 13 - 9x

    −3x=13-3x = 13

    Since 6 − 9 = −3, the left side is −3 times x.

  3. Divide both sides by −3

    x is multiplied by −3, so divide both sides by −3:

    x=13−3=−133x = \frac{13}{-3} = -\frac{13}{3}

    A positive divided by a negative is negative, so x is negative.

    Watch out: dropping the minus sign gives 13/3, which is wrong. Also, the number you divide by goes on the bottom. Writing −3/13 turns the fraction upside down.

  4. Write it as a mixed number

    A mixed number is a whole number with a fraction, like 4 1/3. Divide 13 by 3. The 3 fits 4 times, with 1 left over.

    133=413\frac{13}{3} = 4\frac{1}{3}

    So x=−413x = -4\frac{1}{3}.

    Watch out: as a decimal, −13/3 is −4.333…, and the 3s never end. Rounding to −4.33 is close, but it is not exact. Keep the fraction.

  5. Enter the answer

    The box already shows x =, so you enter only the number. On the test, press the minus key first. Then press the fraction key, a small box over a small box. Type 13 in the top box and 3 in the bottom box. On this site, type −13/3 or −4 1/3.

    So the finished answer reads x = −13/3. You type only the −13/3, which is the same as −4 1/3.

Check your answer

Put x=−133x = -\frac{13}{3} into both sides. The left side is 6×(−133)=−266 \times \left(-\frac{13}{3}\right) = -26. The right side is 9×(−133)+13=−39+13=−269 \times \left(-\frac{13}{3}\right) + 13 = -39 + 13 = -26. Both sides equal −26, so the answer is right.

The original DOE question
Question 32 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 103 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test A Math, page 103, question 32.

Question 27 of 120

2026 Practice Test A Math, question 37

Question

When a student buys 4 notebooks, the total cost is $12. Each notebook costs the same amount. Select each point on the graph that best represents y, the total cost of x notebooks.

Select all the correct answers.

A graph titled BUYING NOTEBOOKS, with Number of Notebooks on the x-axis from 0 to 6 and Total Cost (dollars) on the y-axis from 0 to 15, with grid lines every 1 unit. Seven points are plotted: (1, 1), (1, 3), (2, 5), (3, 7), (3, 9), (4, 12) and (5, 14).

On the test you click the points in the figure; here, choose them below. The DOE has not published how answers with several parts are scored; this site counts one right only when every part is right.

  • A(1, 1)
  • B(1, 3)
  • C(2, 5)
  • D(3, 7)
  • E(3, 9)
  • F(4, 12)
  • G(5, 14)
Show the answer

Correct answer: B, E, and F

Solution:

There are three correct points: (1, 3), (3, 9), and (4, 12).

Find the cost per notebook: 124=3\frac{12}{4} = 3.

The equation of the line is y=3xy = 3x, where y is the total cost of x notebooks.

Check each point by plugging the x-value into the equation y=3xy = 3x. If the y-value from the equation matches the y-value of the point, then the point is on the line y=3xy = 3x.

Check all seven points:

(1, 1) y=3(1)=3y = 3(1) = 3 y-values do not match; incorrect point

(1, 3) y=3(1)=3y = 3(1) = 3 y-values match; CORRECT point

(2, 5) y=3(2)=6y = 3(2) = 6 y-values do not match; incorrect point

(3, 7) y=3(3)=9y = 3(3) = 9 y-values do not match; incorrect point

(3, 9) y=3(3)=9y = 3(3) = 9 y-values match; CORRECT point

(4, 12) y=3(4)=12y = 3(4) = 12 y-values match; CORRECT point

(5, 14) y=3(5)=15y = 3(5) = 15 y-values do not match; incorrect point

Question analysis

A graph titled Buying Notebooks shows seven points, and students select every point that fits the total cost of buying notebooks, given the cost of a few notebooks and that each costs the same. It tests finding a unit rate and recognizing points of a proportional relationship. Some points line up in tempting patterns, and the item does not say how many to select.

NYS standards
  • 7.RP.2b constant of proportionality
  • 7.RP.2c proportional relationship equations
  • 6.RP.3a tables of equivalent ratios
Grade level
Grade 7 content, by NYS standard
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Finding a unit rate and deciding which points fit a proportional relationship are grade 7 skills, and the arithmetic here is easy. What adds demand is testing all seven points with no count given, since one miss or extra pick loses the item.
Estimated difficulty
Straightforward: two steps or one careful reading.
Solution
2 steps
Reading level
Question and choices: about grade 5, 36 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

Finding the price is one division, 12 ÷ 4 = 3, so the question is really about checking: each chosen dot must fit y = 3x exactly, and the item does not say how many do. The graph punishes judging by eye, since a straight row of dots climbs from (1, 3) at $2 a notebook and two dots sit a single gridline off the true line. Multiplying each x by 3 and reading each y from the axis, not from the pattern, settles all seven.

  1. Every choice must be checked moderate Choosing the answer

    Seven dots must each be tested against $3 a notebook, and the item never says how many fit; one missed point or one extra loses the whole item, so no dot can be skipped. (Embretson & Wetzel, 1987)

  2. Reading a figure, table or graph minor Understanding the question

    The graph stacks two dots above 1 notebook and two above 3, and each total cost has to be read off a grid ruled at every dollar up to 15. (Lesh, Post & Behr, 1987; Kirsch & Mosenthal, 1990)

  3. A very close wrong answer minor Choosing the answer

    (5, 14) sits one gridline below (5, 15), where 5 notebooks at $3 would be, and (2, 5) sits one below (2, 6), so judging by the line's direction cannot rule either out. (Embretson & Wetzel, 1987; Gorin & Embretson, 2006; Ascalon et al., 2007)

Strategy: Work out the cost of one notebook from the total given in the question, then multiply each point's x-coordinate by that price and keep only the points whose y-coordinate matches exactly.

Traps

  • Misunderstands the concept: A wrong belief about a concept: that percents can be added, that area grows like length, that averages can be averaged, that a bigger denominator means a bigger fraction.
  • Misreads the figure: Reads a value, label or tick spacing in a figure, table or graph wrongly.

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Worked solution, step by step

Formulas used

Unit price
price of one=total cost÷number bought\text{price of one} = \text{total cost} \div \text{number bought}
The unit price is what one item costs. Divide the total cost by the number of items bought. This works because every notebook costs the same, so the total splits into equal parts.
A proportional relationship
y=kxy = kx
y is the total cost in dollars, and x is the number of notebooks. k is the price of one notebook, the number you always multiply by. A point fits only if its y is exactly k times its x. The graph is a straight line through (0, 0).
  1. Sort out the question

    Four notebooks cost $12, and each one costs the same. On the graph, x is the number of notebooks, and y is the total cost in dollars. The graph shows seven points. You must select every point that fits. The question does not say how many fit, so test all seven.

  2. Find the price of one notebook

    Split the $12 equally among the 4 notebooks:

    12÷4=312 \div 4 = 3

    Each notebook costs $3. So the total cost is 3 times the number of notebooks:

    y=3xy = 3x

  3. Test each point

    For each point, multiply its x by 3. Keep the point only if the result equals its y.

    ChoicePoint3 × xFits?
    A(1, 1)3No
    B(1, 3)3Yes
    C(2, 5)6No
    D(3, 7)9No
    E(3, 9)9Yes
    F(4, 12)12Yes
    G(5, 14)15No
  4. Watch for look-alike points

    Watch out: the dots (1, 3), (2, 5) and (3, 7) sit in a neat straight row. But that row climbs $2 per notebook, not $3. Lining up is not enough: (2, 5) and (3, 7), choices C and D, do not fit.

    Watch out: 5 notebooks cost 5×3=155 \times 3 = 15 dollars. The dot above 5 sits one gridline lower, at 14. Read the y-axis carefully, and you will skip choice G.

  5. Name the points

    Three points fit: (1, 3), (3, 9) and (4, 12). On the test, you click each of these dots on the graph. On this site, you check their boxes. So the answers are B, E and F.

Check your answer

All three points fit y=3xy = 3x: 3=3×13 = 3 \times 1, 9=3×39 = 3 \times 3 and 12=3×412 = 3 \times 4. They also line up with (0, 0), since 0 notebooks cost $0. And (4, 12) is the fact the question gave you.

The original DOE question
Question 37 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 108 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test A Math, page 108, question 37.

Question 28 of 120

2026 Practice Test A Math, question 43

Question

Graph the solution set for the inequality −3≤2x−5-3 \leq 2x - 5.

Select a ray. Then, move the endpoint of the ray to the correct position on the number line.

On the test you draw the ray on the number line; here, choose its endpoint, whether the endpoint is closed or open, and its direction. The DOE has not published how answers with several parts are scored; this site counts one right only when every part is right.

-5-4-3-2-1012345

Show the answer

Correct answer: a ray with a closed endpoint at 1, pointing right

Solution:

A number line from −5 to 5 with a tick at every integer, labeled at −5, 0 and 5. A solid dot at 1, with the line drawn thick from 1 to the right and ending in an arrow.

Solve the inequality for x, then graph the solution on the number line:

−3≤2x−5-3 \leq 2x - 5

Add 5 to both sides of the inequality: 2≤2x2 \leq 2x

Divide both sides by 2: 1≤x1 \leq x

Rewrite the inequality with x on the left side: x≥1x \geq 1

The graph of x≥1x \geq 1 is a closed ray (solid point) beginning at 1 and extending to the right on the number line.

Question analysis

Students graph the solution set of a two-step inequality on a number line by choosing a ray: where it starts, whether its endpoint is open or closed, and which way it points. It tests solving a linear inequality and reading its solution. The variable sits on the right of the inequality symbol, so reading the result the right way round is part of the challenge.

NYS standards
Grade level
Grade 7 content, by NYS standard
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Solving a two-step inequality and graphing its solution set is a named grade 7 skill. This one puts the variable on the right of the symbol and asks students to build the graph themselves rather than pick it from four.
Estimated difficulty
Moderate: several steps, or a close reading with one strong distractor.
Solution
3 steps
Reading level
Question and choices: about grade 6, 26 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

Solving takes two routine moves; the points are lost in turning 1 ≤ x into a picture. Because x sits on the right, the symbol seems to point left, and a student who shades the way it points draws the values below 1, which all fail. The dot must also be solid, since x = 1 makes both sides −3. Testing x = 2, where 2x − 5 = −1 and −3 ≤ −1 holds, confirms the direction.

  1. Reading a figure, table or graph moderate Understanding the question

    The solution comes out as 1 ≤ x, with x on the right, so the ≤ sign points away from the shaded side; it has to be read as x ≥ 1 before the ray is drawn. (Lesh, Post & Behr, 1987; Kirsch & Mosenthal, 1990)

  2. Many steps minor Working it out

    Two solving moves, adding 5 and then halving, come before three graph choices, the endpoint, a solid dot and a direction, and a mistake in any of the five loses the item. (Daniel & Embretson, 2010; Enright, Morley & Sheehan, 2002)

  3. An answer in an unexpected form minor Choosing the answer

    The ray is built, by picking one of four ray shapes and dragging its endpoint, rather than chosen from four finished graphs, so nothing on screen flags a ray that starts at the right number but points the wrong way. (Enright, Morley & Sheehan, 2002)

Strategy: Undo the subtraction and then the multiplication on both sides, rewrite the result with x first, decide whether the endpoint is included, and test one value on your ray in the original inequality.

Traps

  • Negatives and direction: Arithmetic with negative numbers, the order of a subtraction, or direction on a number line. (Moving a term across the equals sign without changing its sign is a faulty procedure.)
  • Counting the ends: Inclusive or exclusive ends, fence posts, consecutive numbers: an answer that is one too many or too few, or an endpoint drawn open where it belongs closed (or the reverse).
  • A faulty procedure: A systematic but wrong procedure: adding fractions straight across, applying an exponent to each term of a sum, dropping a sign when moving a term.

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Worked solution, step by step

Formulas used

Doing the same to both sides
if a≤b, then a+c≤b+c\text{if } a \leq b \text{, then } a + c \leq b + c
a and b are the two sides of an inequality, and c is any number. Adding the same number to both sides keeps the inequality true. So does dividing both sides by the same positive number. Dividing by a negative number would flip the symbol, but that does not happen here.
Turning an inequality around
a≤b means the same as b≥aa \leq b \text{ means the same as } b \geq a
a and b are any two numbers or terms. You may swap the two sides if you also turn the symbol around. The pointed end of the symbol always faces the smaller side. So 1 ≤ x and x ≥ 1 say the same thing.
  1. Sort out the question

    The symbol ≤ means is less than or equal to. The solution set is every value of x that makes −3≤2x−5-3 \leq 2x - 5 true. You show it as a ray. A ray is a dot, called the endpoint, with an arrow going one way forever. You need three things: where the dot goes, whether it is closed or open, and which way the ray points.

  2. Add 5 to both sides

    The right side is 2x − 5. Adding 5 undoes subtracting 5, so add 5 to both sides:

    −3+5≤2x−5+5-3 + 5 \leq 2x - 5 + 5

    2≤2x2 \leq 2x

    Watch out: taking 5 away from −3 instead gives −8 ≤ 2x. That wrong move puts the dot at −4.

  3. Divide both sides by 2

    Now x is multiplied by 2, so divide both sides by 2. You divide by a positive number, so the symbol stays the same:

    22≤2x2\frac{2}{2} \leq \frac{2x}{2}

    1≤x1 \leq x

  4. Read it with x first

    1≤x1 \leq x says 1 is less than or equal to x. So x is 1 or any number bigger than 1. With x first, that is:

    x≥1x \geq 1

    Bigger numbers are to the right on a number line, so the ray points right.

    Watch out: in 1 ≤ x, the symbol seems to point left. Do not follow it. A ray pointing left from 1 shows numbers that do not work.

  5. Choose a closed dot

    The words or equal to mean 1 itself is a solution. Check it: 2×1−5=−32 \times 1 - 5 = -3, and −3 ≤ −3 is true. So the dot at 1 is closed, which means filled in. An open dot, an empty circle, leaves the endpoint out. Use it only for < or >.

    Watch out: an open dot at 1 would leave out a number that works.

  6. Draw the ray

    On the test, choose the ray with a filled dot and an arrow pointing right. Then drag its dot to 1. On this site, choose 1 for the endpoint, then closed (filled dot) and pointing right.

    So the answer is a closed dot at 1, with the ray pointing right.

Check your answer

Test a number on your ray, such as 3. 2×3−5=12 \times 3 - 5 = 1, and −3 ≤ 1 is true. Now test a number off the ray, such as 0. 2×0−5=−52 \times 0 - 5 = -5, and −3 ≤ −5 is false. So the ray points the right way.

The original DOE question
Question 43 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 114 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test A Math, page 114, question 43.

Question 29 of 120

2026 Practice Test A Math, question 50

Question

Let b=3b = 3, c=4c = 4, and d=5d = 5. Determine the value of cdcb+cd\frac{\frac{c}{d}}{\frac{c}{b}} + \frac{c}{d}.

Enter your fractional answer in the space provided. Enter only your fraction.

On the test you build the answer on an on-screen keypad; here, type it. Use ^ for a power, sqrt( ) or √ for a root, pi for π, and <= or >= for ≤ and ≥.

Show the answer

Correct answer: 7/5

Solution:

75\frac{7}{5}

Substitute b=3b = 3, c=4c = 4, and d=5d = 5 in cdcb+cd\frac{\frac{c}{d}}{\frac{c}{b}} + \frac{c}{d}: 4543+45\frac{\frac{4}{5}}{\frac{4}{3}} + \frac{4}{5}.

Then simplify the complex fraction by multiplying the complex fraction by a form of 1, (3434)\left(\frac{\frac{3}{4}}{\frac{3}{4}}\right): 4543+45=4543(3434)+45\frac{\frac{4}{5}}{\frac{4}{3}} + \frac{4}{5} = \frac{\frac{4}{5}}{\frac{4}{3}}\left(\frac{\frac{3}{4}}{\frac{3}{4}}\right) + \frac{4}{5}.

Simplify after multiplying by a form of 1: (45)(34)(43)(34)+45=351+45\frac{\left(\frac{4}{5}\right)\left(\frac{3}{4}\right)}{\left(\frac{4}{3}\right)\left(\frac{3}{4}\right)} + \frac{4}{5} = \frac{\frac{3}{5}}{1} + \frac{4}{5}.

Then simplify again and add the two fractions: 351+45=35+45=75\frac{\frac{3}{5}}{1} + \frac{4}{5} = \frac{3}{5} + \frac{4}{5} = \frac{7}{5}.

Question analysis

This substitution question gives values for b, c and d and asks for the value of an expression made of a fraction divided by a fraction, plus another fraction. Students substitute, simplify the complex fraction and add, then type the result. Dividing fractions in the stacked form is the main hurdle, and the item wants a fraction, not a decimal.

NYS standards
  • 6.EE.2c evaluating expressions and order of operations
  • 6.NS.1 dividing fractions by fractions
  • 7.NS.2c properties for multiplying and dividing
Grade level
Grade 7 content, by NYS standard
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Grade 7 students evaluate expressions and divide and add fractions. A fraction stacked over another fraction looks unfamiliar and there are no choices to check, but with these values the work is three short steps.
Estimated difficulty
Moderate: several steps, or a close reading with one strong distractor.
Solution
3 steps
Reading level
Question and choices: about grade 9, 22 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

Once the values are in, the work is one fraction division and one addition, but the division is printed as a fraction over a fraction, in small type. Multiplying the two fractions, or flipping the top one, gives a sum in fifteenths that looks as finished as the right one. Noticing that the 4s cancel, so the stacked part is simply 3/5, turns the last step into adding fifths.

  1. Error-prone arithmetic moderate Working it out

    Dividing 4/5 by 4/3 means multiplying by 3/4, giving 3/5, which is then added to 4/5; multiplying straight across or flipping the top fraction instead both lead to fifteenths. (Brown & Burton, 1978; Junker & Sijtsma, 2001)

  2. Something you must already know minor Working it out

    Nothing on the page says that a fraction over a fraction is a division, or that dividing by 4/3 means multiplying by its reciprocal, and the stacked form is rare in grade 7 work. (Anderson & Krathwohl, 2001)

  3. An answer in an unexpected form minor Choosing the answer

    The value is typed into a fraction box with no choices to check against, and the item asks for a fraction, so the equal decimal 1.4 is not accepted. (Enright, Morley & Sheehan, 2002)

Strategy: Substitute the values, rewrite the stacked fraction as the top fraction times the reciprocal of the bottom one, where the 4s cancel, then add the last fraction and leave the result as a fraction.

Traps

  • Wrong operation: Adds instead of multiplying, divides the wrong way round, turns a ratio or rate upside down, or undoes a step in the wrong direction (subtracts what should be added back).
  • A faulty procedure: A systematic but wrong procedure: adding fractions straight across, applying an exponent to each term of a sum, dropping a sign when moving a term.
  • Misreads the question: Misses or misreads a condition or a word in the question: "at least", "each", "remaining", "not".

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Worked solution, step by step

Formulas used

Dividing fractions
ab÷cd=ab×dc\frac{a}{b} \div \frac{c}{d} = \frac{a}{b} \times \frac{d}{c}
a, b, c and d are numbers that are not zero. To divide by a fraction, multiply by its reciprocal, the fraction flipped upside down. Flip only the fraction you divide by. It works because a fraction times its reciprocal is 1, so the reciprocal undoes the fraction, just as dividing does.
Adding fractions with the same bottom
ad+bd=a+bd\frac{a}{d} + \frac{b}{d} = \frac{a + b}{d}
d is the denominator, the bottom number, which tells the size of each piece. a and b are the numerators, the top numbers, which count the pieces. When the pieces are the same size, add the tops and keep the bottom.
  1. Sort out the question

    You know b=3b = 3, c=4c = 4 and d=5d = 5. You need the value of:

    cdcb+cd\frac{\frac{c}{d}}{\frac{c}{b}} + \frac{c}{d}

    The first part is a fraction on top of a fraction. A fraction bar means divide, so this part is cd÷cb\frac{c}{d} \div \frac{c}{b}. The answer must be typed as a fraction.

  2. Put in the numbers

    Replace each letter with its value. Look closely: the bottom fraction has b under the c, not d.

    cd=45cb=43\frac{c}{d} = \frac{4}{5} \qquad \frac{c}{b} = \frac{4}{3}

    So the expression becomes:

    45÷43+45\frac{4}{5} \div \frac{4}{3} + \frac{4}{5}

  3. Divide the two fractions

    Use the rule for dividing fractions. The reciprocal of 4/3 is 3/4. To multiply fractions, multiply the tops and multiply the bottoms:

    45÷43=45×34=1220=35\frac{4}{5} \div \frac{4}{3} = \frac{4}{5} \times \frac{3}{4} = \frac{12}{20} = \frac{3}{5}

    To simplify 12/20, divide its top and bottom by 4.

    Watch out: flip only the bottom fraction. Multiplying without flipping gives 16/15 and a total of 28/15. Flipping the top one gives 5/3 and a total of 37/15.

  4. Add the last fraction

    Both fractions are now fifths, so add the tops and keep the bottom:

    35+45=3+45=75\frac{3}{5} + \frac{4}{5} = \frac{3 + 4}{5} = \frac{7}{5}

    The value is 7/5.

  5. Enter it as a fraction

    The item asks for a fraction. 7/5 equals the decimal 1.4, but 1.4 is not accepted. On the test, the answer box already holds a fraction template, a small box over a small box. Type 7 in the top box. Then click the bottom box and type 5. On this site, type 7/5.

    So you would enter 7/5.

Check your answer

Check with decimals. 45=0.8\frac{4}{5} = 0.8, and 4/3 is about 1.33. Then 0.8÷1.330.8 \div 1.33 is about 0.6, which is 3/5. Last, 0.6+0.8=1.40.6 + 0.8 = 1.4, and 1.4 is the same as 7/5.

The original DOE question
Question 50 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 121 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test A Math, page 121, question 50.

Question 30 of 120

2026 Practice Test B English, question 9
Passage A Miracle Mile

A Miracle Mile

In the 1950s people compared running one mile in four minutes to scaling Mount Everest and nicknamed the feat a “dream mile.” Although such an accomplishment was considered humanly impossible, several elite runners aimed to break that supposedly impenetrable barrier. One of them was a twenty-five-year-old medical student named Roger Bannister.

Roger Bannister had tasted failure during the 1952 Olympics. There, he was favored to win the 1,500-meter competition, a distance slightly shorter than a mile, but he finished in a dismal fourth place instead. Bannister’s performance was a disappointment for him and his country, Great Britain. Determined to redeem himself, Bannister postponed his plans to retire from racing and focused on the ultimate prize—breaking the four-minute-mile barrier.

Bannister attacked the elusive milestone with a positive attitude and logical planning. The amateur athlete decided to use intensive interval training to develop endurance and speed. For these workouts, Bannister ran an interval of ten consecutive laps on a quarter-mile track, aiming for sixty seconds each lap. In between intervals, he let his body recover for two minutes.

By early 1954, Bannister had succeeded in lowering his quarter-mile pace to sixty-one seconds, but he had to shave off at least one more second in order to reach his target. Frustrated by the plateau he had reached, Bannister took a break from training and went mountain climbing for three days. The rest from running permitted his muscles to recuperate and left him feeling refreshed. When Bannister returned to the track, he completed ten quarter-mile-long intervals at fifty-nine seconds each. He finally felt prepared to attempt to break the world record.

As a member of the Amateur Athletic Association (AAA), Bannister joined the AAA team for a track meet against Oxford University. The event took place on a cinder track in Oxford on May 6, 1954. Bannister and his two AAA teammates, Chris Chataway and Chris Brasher, were close friends and frequent running partners. Chataway and Brasher agreed to help Bannister accomplish his goal by being his “rabbits.”

In track and field, rabbits are runners who enter the race solely to pace a teammate for a segment of the course. Typically, a runner settles in behind the rabbit and allows the rabbit to set an appropriate tempo. Additionally, by running behind the rabbit, the runner conserves about 15 percent of his or her effort. When the starting pistol fired, Brasher pounced into the lead, and Bannister followed behind his first rabbit.

Propelled by the excitement, Bannister lost his instinctive feel for his pace and shouted “Faster!” at Brasher. Brasher, however, remained composed and maintained his current steady but grueling pace, completing the first two laps in a desirable one minute and fifty-eight seconds. Then Chataway surged forward, leading Bannister at this same punishing rate for another lap and a half. At the beginning of the back straightaway of the track, Bannister bolted past Chataway. Bannister said, “I felt that the moment of a lifetime had come. There was no pain, only a great unity of movement and aim.” Bannister crossed the finish line in 3 minutes 59.4 seconds. The ecstatic crowd erupted the moment the timekeeper announced the word “three.”

Soon after Bannister’s achievement, four other athletes matched his performance. A new mindset had taken root among runners. Over the years, the record continued to fall. However, the current record, 3 minutes 43.13 seconds, has stood unbroken since 1999. Some question whether this record represents the limits of human ability. But perhaps there is another Bannister, an athlete who, with willpower and dedication, will accomplish the miraculous.

Question

Read these sentences from paragraph 7.

Bannister said, “I felt that the moment of a lifetime had come. There was no pain, only a great unity of movement and aim.”

The sentences contribute to the development of ideas in the passage by showing that Bannister

  • Aknew that he was about to achieve the goal he had worked toward.
  • Bwas no longer experiencing personal disappointment from his past failure in the Olympics.
  • Cfelt grateful to his teammates for helping him take the lead.
  • Dwas satisfied that his training had helped him perfect his running technique.
Show the answer

Correct answer: A

The question asks how the sentences from paragraph 7 contribute to the development of ideas in the passage.

A. CORRECT. The sentences from paragraph 7 show that toward the end of the race, Bannister knew that the goal of breaking the four-minute-mile barrier was within his grasp and that he had the focus necessary to achieve it. The sentence following Bannister’s quotation states that he did indeed meet his goal, crossing “the finish line in 3 minutes 59.4 seconds” (paragraph 7).

B. Incorrect. The feelings Bannister expressed in the sentences from paragraph 7 did not erase those feelings related to his loss at the 1952 Olympics, which were what drove him to the achievement he was about to make.

C. Incorrect. While the quotation states that Bannister felt “unity,” this pertains to his running, not to his work with the team. The sentences from paragraph 7 capture Bannister’s focus on his chance to break the barrier and what he was feeling at that moment.

D. Incorrect. The sentences from paragraph 7 express Bannister’s realization that he was on the verge of reaching a goal. The sentences show that in the seconds before crossing the finish line, Bannister was fully focused on the end goal and was not thinking about his training or his running technique.

Question analysis

This question quotes Roger Bannister’s own words from his famous race, “I felt that the moment of a lifetime had come,” and asks how they contribute to the development of ideas in “A Miracle Mile.” Students interpret an athlete’s description of a feeling and decide what it shows about him. Each choice links the quotation to a different part of his story.

NYS standards
  • 7R5 structure and genre features
  • 7R3 plot elements and ideas
Grade level
Grade 7 reading and task
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Explaining what a quoted sentence adds to a passage is everyday grade 7 work, and these two sentences are short. Their abstract phrase “a great unity of movement and aim” takes some interpreting, which keeps the demand typical rather than light.
Estimated difficulty
Moderate: several steps, or a close reading with one strong distractor.
Evidence
Answered from one paragraph or stanza
Reading level
Passage: about grade 10, 587 words; question and choices: about grade 7, 93 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

Bannister’s words describe a feeling, and each choice explains it by a different part of his story. The right reading comes from where the quotation sits: on the back straight, seconds from the finish, so “the moment of a lifetime” is the record within reach. Students who take “unity of movement” as polished form, or “no pain” as the end of his Olympic hurt, tie the quotation to his training or his past instead of to this race.

  1. Reading between the lines moderate Working it out

    The quotation never names the record; students must link “the moment of a lifetime had come” to the four-minute goal and to the finish in 3 minutes 59.4 seconds reported right after it. (Graesser, Singer & Trabasso, 1994; Kintsch, 1998)

  2. Figurative or literary language minor Understanding the question

    “A great unity of movement and aim” is abstract, and “There was no pain” can be heard as emotional relief, so the words invite readings about technique, teamwork or old disappointment. (Graesser, Singer & Trabasso, 1994; Kintsch, 1998)

Strategy: Read the quotation together with the sentences around it in paragraph 7, put Bannister’s state of mind into your own words, and test each choice against what the quotation itself says.

Traps

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Working it out, step by step

  1. Figure out what the question asks

    This asks what Bannister’s words show about him at that moment in the race. To answer, you need to know where the quotation comes. So read the sentences just before it and just after it.

  2. Find where the quotation comes

    Paragraph 7 tells the story of the race. Just before the quotation, “Bannister bolted past Chataway.” Bolted means ran off suddenly and fast. Chataway was his second rabbit, a teammate who set the pace. Now Bannister was in front, near the end. Just after the quotation, “Bannister crossed the finish line in 3 minutes 59.4 seconds.” That is under four minutes.

  3. Put his words in your own words

    He says “I felt that the moment of a lifetime had come.” The moment of a lifetime is the most important moment a person ever has. For Bannister, that was breaking the four-minute mile. “A great unity of movement and aim” means his body and his goal were working as one. He could feel that he was about to do it.

  4. Check each choice

    • A fits. He senses that his big goal is about to happen.
    • B does not fit. “There was no pain” means he felt no strain in the race. He is not thinking back to 1952.
    • C does not fit. The unity is of his own “movement and aim,” not of his team. He had just passed Chataway to run alone.
    • D does not fit. The words describe a feeling during the race. They say nothing about his training or his technique, which means his way of running.

    Watch out: D is tempting because “unity of movement” sounds like perfect running form. But Bannister is not judging his training here. He is feeling the big moment arrive.

  5. Choose the answer

    The quotation shows Bannister sensing that his goal was near, and the next sentence shows he reached it. So the answer is A, “knew that he was about to achieve the goal he had worked toward.”

Why this answer and not the closest wrong one

D is the closest wrong choice. His training did help him, and he was running well. But the quotation is about a feeling: “the moment of a lifetime had come.” It looks ahead to the finish, not back at his practice. A matches that feeling of a goal about to be reached.

The original DOE question
Question 9 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 15 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test B English, page 15, question 9.
The passage “A Miracle Mile” as printed (page 13)The passage “A Miracle Mile” as printed on page 13 of the DOE handbook.

Question 31 of 120

2026 Practice Test B English, question 10

Uses the passage above: “A Miracle Mile”.

Question

Which sentence best supports the idea that Bannister needed an alternative to “logical planning” (paragraph 3) in order to accomplish his goal?

  • A“Bannister’s performance was a disappointment for him and his country, Great Britain.” (paragraph 2)
  • B“The amateur athlete decided to use intensive interval training to develop endurance and speed.” (paragraph 3)
  • C“For these workouts, Bannister ran an interval of ten consecutive laps on a quarter-mile track, aiming for sixty seconds each lap.” (paragraph 3)
  • D“Frustrated by the plateau he had reached, Bannister took a break from training and went mountain climbing for three days.” (paragraph 4)
Show the answer

Correct answer: D

The question asks which sentence best supports the idea that Bannister needed an alternative to “logical planning” (paragraph 3) in order to accomplish his goal.

A. Incorrect. The outcome of the 1952 Olympics, referenced in the sentence from paragraph 2, is what prompted Bannister to seek a new goal: “Determined to redeem himself, Bannister . . . focused on the ultimate prize—breaking the four-minute-mile barrier” (paragraph 2).

B. Incorrect. The sentence from paragraph 3 does not show an alternative to Bannister’s training plan to “develop endurance and speed” (paragraph 3) and his focus on using logical planning in order to accomplish his goal.

C. Incorrect. The sentence from paragraph 3 focuses on details of his training plan, explaining the “intensive interval training” (paragraph 3) that Bannister used to build his endurance and speed, not an alternative form of preparation.

D. CORRECT. The sentence from paragraph 4 explains that Bannister reached a point where he could not improve his time despite the strict training plan he had created. Taking a break from his training to spend time mountain climbing “permitted his muscles to recuperate and left him feeling refreshed” (paragraph 4).

Question analysis

This textual evidence question on “A Miracle Mile” asks which sentence best supports the idea that Roger Bannister needed an alternative to the “logical planning” described in paragraph 3. Students must understand what his plan was before they can recognize a departure from it. The four sentences come from paragraphs 2 to 4, which cover his Olympic loss and his training.

NYS standards
  • 7R1 textual evidence and inferences
  • 7R3 plot elements and ideas
Grade level
Grade 7 reading and task
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Matching a sentence to an idea is standard grade 7 evidence work, and the four sentences come from three short, plain paragraphs. The idea itself is worded abstractly, so students must first decide what an alternative to “logical planning” would look like.
Estimated difficulty
Straightforward: two steps or one careful reading.
Evidence
Answered from several paragraphs or stanzas
Reading level
Passage: about grade 10, 587 words; question and choices: about grade 12, 92 words.
Corrected from the DOE handbook
  • A wrong paragraph number in the explanation was corrected.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

The question turns on one decision: the interval training is the logical plan, so a sentence describing it cannot show an alternative to it. Once that is settled, three days of mountain climbing stand out as the only break from the plan. Students lose the point when they read “alternative” loosely and pick the sentence that introduces the training, or when they treat the Olympic disappointment as the moment his methods had to change.

  1. Reading between the lines minor Working it out

    The stem never says what the “logical planning” was; students must see that it is the interval training of paragraph 3, so the alternative has to be a step away from that training. (Graesser, Singer & Trabasso, 1994; Kintsch, 1998)

  2. Evidence in several places minor Working it out

    The stem points to paragraph 3, where two of the four sentences sit, but the departure from the plan comes in paragraph 4, after Bannister stalls at sixty-one seconds a lap. (Kirsch & Mosenthal, 1990; Gorin & Embretson, 2006)

Strategy: First reread paragraph 3 to see what Bannister’s “logical planning” was, then ask of each sentence whether it shows that plan or something different from it.

Traps

  • Supports only part of the claim: In a question about evidence: a line that backs one half of the claim but not the other, or a related point rather than the claim itself.
  • True but not the answer: A choice says something accurate about the text that does not answer this question.

The wrong answers, classified

What was corrected from the DOE handbook, and why

  • Explanation: The DOE’s explanation of Option C begins “The sentence from paragraph 4 focuses on details of his training plan.” Option C quotes a sentence from paragraph 3 (“For these workouts, Bannister ran an interval of ten consecutive laps on a quarter-mile track, aiming for sixty seconds each lap”) and labels it “(paragraph 3),” and the explanation goes on to describe the “intensive interval training” of paragraph 3. The site now says “The sentence from paragraph 3.” The DOE’s 2021–2022 guide, where this question first appeared, has the same slip.

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Working it out, step by step

  1. Figure out what the question asks

    This asks for evidence: the sentence that best supports an idea. The idea is that Bannister needed an alternative to his “logical planning.” An alternative is a different way of doing something. So first find out what his plan was. Then look for a sentence where he steps away from it.

  2. Find the logical plan in paragraph 3

    Paragraph 3 says “Bannister attacked the elusive milestone with a positive attitude and logical planning.” The next sentence tells what the plan was: “The amateur athlete decided to use intensive interval training to develop endurance and speed.” Interval training means running hard for a set stretch, resting, then running hard again.

  3. Find where the plan stopped working

    Paragraph 4 says he got down to sixty-one seconds a lap, but he needed sixty. Then “Frustrated by the plateau he had reached, Bannister took a break from training and went mountain climbing for three days.” A plateau is a point where you stop getting better. Climbing was not part of his plan. Afterward, he ran each lap in fifty-nine seconds.

  4. Check each choice

    • A does not fit. It is from paragraph 2. It tells why he chose the goal, before he had any plan.
    • B does not fit. Interval training is the logical plan, not an alternative to it.
    • C does not fit. It is from paragraph 3. It gives details of the same plan: ten laps, sixty seconds each.
    • D fits. He stops training, does something else, and it works.

    Watch out: B is tempting because it describes a choice Bannister made. But that choice was the plan itself.

  5. Choose the answer

    Only D shows Bannister trying something outside his plan. So the answer is D, “Frustrated by the plateau he had reached, Bannister took a break from training and went mountain climbing for three days.”

Why this answer and not the closest wrong one

B is the closest wrong choice. It names a decision Bannister made. But that decision, interval training, was his logical plan. The question asks for a step away from the plan. Only D shows him leaving training behind. The rest “permitted his muscles to recuperate,” which means recover.

The original DOE question
Question 10 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 16 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test B English, page 16, question 10. This is the DOE’s version, before the corrections listed in the analysis.

Question 32 of 120

2026 Practice Test B English, question 11

Uses the passage above: “A Miracle Mile”.

Question

Which sentence from the passage indicates that Bannister nearly made a mistake that would have cost him the world record?

  • A“By early 1954, Bannister had succeeded in lowering his quarter-mile pace to sixty-one seconds, but he had to shave off at least one more second in order to reach his target.” (paragraph 4)
  • B“When the starting pistol fired, Brasher pounced into the lead, and Bannister followed behind his first rabbit.” (paragraph 6)
  • C“Propelled by the excitement, Bannister lost his instinctive feel for his pace and shouted ‘Faster!’ at Brasher.” (paragraph 7)
  • D“At the beginning of the back straightaway of the track, Bannister bolted past Chataway.” (paragraph 7)
Show the answer

Correct answer: C

The question asks which sentence indicates that Bannister nearly made a mistake that would have cost him the world record.

A. Incorrect. The sentence from paragraph 4 describes a challenge Bannister faced during his training period, when he used “intensive interval training to develop endurance and speed” (paragraph 3). Bannister ran laps on a “quarter-mile track” (paragraph 3) and was able to control his pace at this time—unlike during the actual race to break the record.

B. Incorrect. The sentence from paragraph 6 describes the start of the race and Brasher’s role as “first rabbit” for Bannister. Bannister was behind Brasher, following their plan for breaking the record.

C. CORRECT. If Bannister had begun running faster than the “steady but grueling pace” (paragraph 7) set by his “rabbit,” he would likely not have had enough energy to finish the race. As paragraph 6 notes, “the runner conserves about 15 percent of his or her effort” by allowing the rabbit to set the pace. Bannister had “lost his instinctive feel for his pace” (paragraph 7) in the excitement of the race. If he had given in to his impulse to run faster and bypassed the rabbit at that point in the race, it would have cost him energy, and, in turn, the record.

D. Incorrect. The sentence from paragraph 7 describes how Bannister leaped ahead of Chataway, his second “rabbit,” at the appropriate time in the effort to break the record. Chataway had “surged forward, leading Bannister at this same punishing rate for another lap and a half” (paragraph 7) before Bannister moved past him.

Question analysis

This textual evidence question asks which sentence from “A Miracle Mile” shows that Roger Bannister nearly made a mistake that could have cost him the world record. The passage never says outright that he slipped, so students must use what it explains about running a race to judge which moment was a real danger. The four choices span both his training and the race itself.

NYS standards
  • 7R1 textual evidence and inferences
  • 7R3 plot elements and ideas
Grade level
Grade 7 reading and task
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Grade 7 evidence questions usually match a sentence to an idea the text states. This mistake is never named as one, so students must infer which moment put the record at risk, a typical grade 7 inference within a short, clear passage.
Estimated difficulty
Moderate: several steps, or a close reading with one strong distractor.
Evidence
Answered from several paragraphs or stanzas
Reading level
Passage: about grade 10, 587 words; question and choices: about grade 11, 102 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

The near mistake is easy to miss because it never happens: Brasher ignores the shout, and the race goes on at the planned pace. Students must see that losing his feel for the pace put the record at risk, using what paragraph 6 explains about rabbits. The sudden surge past Chataway sounds rash and the training plateau sounds like a near failure, so students who look for drama or for falling short land on the wrong moment.

  1. Reading between the lines moderate Working it out

    The passage never calls the shout of “Faster!” a mistake; students must infer it from “lost his instinctive feel for his pace” and from Brasher’s refusal to change his steady pace. (Graesser, Singer & Trabasso, 1994; Kintsch, 1998)

  2. Evidence in several places minor Working it out

    Why running faster would have cost the record is explained a paragraph earlier, in paragraph 6, where following a rabbit saves a runner about 15 percent of his or her effort. (Kirsch & Mosenthal, 1990; Gorin & Embretson, 2006)

  3. Every choice must be checked minor Choosing the answer

    Each sentence shows a setback or a bold move, from the training plateau to the final surge, so each has to be judged against the idea of a near mistake. (Embretson & Wetzel, 1987)

Strategy: For each quoted sentence, ask whether it shows Bannister doing something that could have hurt his chances, and use what the passage explains about racing to judge how serious it was.

Traps

  • Reads too much in: A reasonable-sounding conclusion that goes further than the text allows.
  • Supports only part of the claim: In a question about evidence: a line that backs one half of the claim but not the other, or a related point rather than the claim itself.
  • Outside knowledge: A choice is plausible in the real world but not supported by this text.

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Working it out, step by step

  1. Figure out what the question asks

    This asks for a sentence that shows a near mistake. That is something that almost went wrong. It would have cost Bannister the record. So look for a moment when he did something that could have ruined the race.

  2. Learn how a rabbit helps

    Paragraph 6 explains rabbits. They are teammates who run in front to set the speed. It says “Typically, a runner settles in behind the rabbit and allows the rabbit to set an appropriate tempo.” Tempo means speed. Also, “by running behind the rabbit, the runner conserves about 15 percent of his or her effort.” Conserves means saves.

  3. Find the moment that went wrong

    Paragraph 7 begins “Propelled by the excitement, Bannister lost his instinctive feel for his pace and shouted” at Brasher to go faster. He lost his natural sense of how fast to run. If Brasher had sped up, Bannister could have used up his energy too soon. But Brasher “remained composed,” which means calm. He kept the steady pace, and that saved the race.

  4. Check each choice

    • A does not fit. The training plateau was a setback, not a mistake. A rest fixed it.
    • B does not fit. Following a rabbit was the plan. Paragraph 6 shows that it saves effort.
    • C fits. Bannister wanted to go faster too early, which could have worn him out.
    • D does not fit. Passing Chataway near the end was the right move. It won him the record.

    Watch out: D is tempting because “bolted” sounds wild. But he waited until his rabbits had paced him for three and a half laps.

  5. Choose the answer

    Only C shows Bannister almost doing something that could have cost him the record. So the answer is C, “Propelled by the excitement, Bannister lost his instinctive feel for his pace and shouted ‘Faster!’ at Brasher.”

Why this answer and not the closest wrong one

D is the closest wrong choice, since bolting past Chataway was a bold, sudden move. But it came at the right time, and it led to the record. In C, Bannister lost his sense of pace and wanted to speed up too early. Only his rabbit’s calm saved him. That is a near mistake.

The original DOE question
Question 11 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 17 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test B English, page 17, question 11.

Question 33 of 120

2026 Practice Test B English, question 12

Uses the passage above: “A Miracle Mile”.

Question

Bannister’s loss in the 1952 Olympics influenced his decision to pursue breaking the four-minute-mile barrier by

  • Aallowing him to recognize his weaknesses and improve his running ability.
  • Bprompting him to take a different approach to his regular training.
  • Cmotivating him to prove to himself that he could set and achieve a goal.
  • Dgiving him the opportunity to reach a goal no runner had ever accomplished.
Show the answer

Correct answer: C

The question asks how Bannister’s loss in the 1952 Olympics influenced his decision to pursue breaking the four-minute-mile barrier.

A. Incorrect. While Bannister recognized the weaknesses that led to his poor performance in the Olympics and worked “to develop endurance and speed” (paragraph 3), the loss made him “determined to redeem himself” (paragraph 2). The desire for redemption influenced Bannister to focus specifically on running a mile in under four minutes, rather than on winning other races or training for other distances.

B. Incorrect. Although Bannister developed an “intensive interval training” plan to improve his “endurance and speed” (paragraph 3), he applied a different approach only after his progress toward a four-minute mile reached a “plateau” (paragraph 4) in 1954. It was his desire to “shave off at least one more second in order to reach his target” (paragraph 4) that prompted him to take a break from interval training and go mountain climbing for three days.

C. CORRECT. Bannister sought to redeem himself after “he finished in a dismal fourth place” at the Olympics (paragraph 2). He thought that his performance “was a disappointment for him and his country, Great Britain,” and he responded by setting a goal to successfully conquer the four-minute mile, which was considered the “ultimate prize” (paragraph 2).

D. Incorrect. Bannister’s loss at the 1952 Olympics motivated him to change his training focus to reaching the “ultimate prize” (paragraph 2) of breaking the four-minute-mile barrier, which no other runner had accomplished. His loss at the Olympics did not present him with a specific opportunity to reach this goal.

Question analysis

This cause-and-effect question on “A Miracle Mile” asks how Roger Bannister’s disappointing finish at the 1952 Olympics shaped his decision to chase the four-minute mile. Students trace how one event led to a choice. The passage gives the reason in a single phrase, and the choices restate it alongside effects that sound believable for any athlete after a loss.

NYS standards
  • 7R3 plot elements and ideas
  • 7R1 textual evidence and inferences
Grade level
Grade 7 reading and task
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Explaining how one event influenced a person’s decision is standard grade 7 work, and the cause is set out in one short paragraph. The choices put the passage’s ideas in new words, so students must match meaning rather than phrases.
Estimated difficulty
Moderate: several steps, or a close reading with one strong distractor.
What makes it hard
Evidence
Answered from one paragraph or stanza
Reading level
Passage: about grade 10, 587 words; question and choices: about grade 10, 64 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

The answer sits in a single phrase, but the choices compete with stories that fit any athlete after a loss, such as learning from weaknesses or changing a routine. Both sound right because Bannister did train hard afterward, yet the passage ties the loss only to his wish to redeem himself, and the change of routine comes later, from the 1954 plateau. Students who keep to the question’s focus, the decision to chase the record, find a motive rather than a method.

  1. The right answer is reworded moderate Choosing the answer

    Paragraph 2 says the loss left Bannister “determined to redeem himself”; the right choice recasts this as proving to himself he could set and reach a goal, while a wrong one reuses the passage’s word “training.” (Freedle & Kostin, 1993; Kirsch & Mosenthal, 1990)

  2. Hard words minor Understanding the question

    “Redeem himself,” to make up for a failure, is the key phrase, and a student unsure of it may not see that the loss gave him a reason rather than a lesson. (Perfetti, 2007; Freedle & Kostin, 1993)

Strategy: Find the sentence in paragraph 2 that tells how Bannister responded to the 1952 loss, restate it in your own words, and compare each choice with your restatement.

Traps

  • Half right: One half of a two-part choice is right and the other is not.
  • Outside knowledge: A choice is plausible in the real world but not supported by this text.
  • Wrong part of the text: A choice is true of another paragraph, stanza or speaker than the one asked about.

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Working it out, step by step

  1. Figure out what the question asks

    This asks about cause and effect. The cause is Bannister’s loss at the 1952 Olympics. The effect is his decision to chase the four-minute mile. You need to find how the first led to the second.

  2. Read paragraph 2

    Paragraph 2 says he “finished in a dismal fourth place instead.” Dismal means very disappointing. Then it says “Bannister’s performance was a disappointment for him and his country, Great Britain. Determined to redeem himself, Bannister postponed his plans to retire from racing and focused on the ultimate prize.” The prize was breaking the four-minute mile.

  3. Understand what redeem himself means

    To redeem yourself means to make up for a failure. You show that you are better than your worst moment. Bannister had let himself down. So he set a huge new goal to prove what he could do. The loss gave him a reason to try, which is a motive.

  4. Check each choice

    • A does not fit. Paragraph 2 never names any weaknesses he found.
    • B does not fit. He changed his routine in paragraph 4, in 1954. That was because of a plateau, not the Olympic loss.
    • C fits. He wanted to make up for the loss by reaching a big goal.
    • D does not fit. Losing did not give him a chance at the record. It gave him a reason.

    Watch out: A sounds like a common sports lesson: losing shows you what to fix. But the passage does not say that.

  5. Choose the answer

    The loss made Bannister “determined to redeem himself” with a new goal. So the answer is C, “motivating him to prove to himself that he could set and achieve a goal.”

Why this answer and not the closest wrong one

A is the closest wrong choice. Athletes often learn from a loss, so it sounds right. But paragraph 2 never says what Bannister was bad at. It says the loss made him “determined to redeem himself.” That is about motivation, so C fits better.

The original DOE question
Question 12 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 18 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test B English, page 18, question 12.

Question 34 of 120

2026 Practice Test B English, question 14
Passage Excerpt from In Search of the Unknown

Excerpt from In Search of the Unknown

by Robert W. Chambers

It was at that time the policy of the trustees and officers of the Zoological Gardens neither to employ collectors nor to send out expeditions in search of specimens. The society decided to depend upon voluntary contributions, and I was always busy, part of the day, in dictating answers to correspondents who wrote offering their services as hunters of big game, collectors of all sorts of fauna, trappers, snarers, and also to those who offered specimens for sale, usually at exorbitant rates.

To the proprietors of . . . mangy lynxes, moth-eaten coyotes, and dancing bears I returned courteous but uncompromising refusals—of course, first submitting all such letters, together with my replies, to Professor Farrago.

One day towards the end of May, however, just as I was leaving Bronx Park to return to town, Professor Lesard, of the reptilian department, called out to me that Professor Farrago wanted to see me a moment; so I . . . retraced my steps to the temporary, wooden building occupied by Professor Farrago, general superintendent of the Zoological Gardens. The professor, who was sitting at his desk before a pile of letters and replies submitted for approval by me, pushed his glasses down and looked over them at me with a whimsical smile that suggested amusement, impatience, annoyance, and perhaps a faint trace of apology.

“Now, here’s a letter,” he said, with a deliberate gesture towards a sheet of paper impaled on a file—“a letter that I suppose you remember.” He disengaged the sheet of paper and handed it to me.

“Oh yes,” I replied, with a shrug; “of course the man is mistaken—or—”

“Or what?” demanded Professor Farrago, tranquilly, wiping his glasses.

“—Or a liar,” I replied.

After a silence he leaned back in his chair and bade me read the letter to him again, and I did so with a contemptuous tolerance for the writer, who must have been either a very innocent victim or a very stupid swindler. I said as much to Professor Farrago, but, to my surprise, he appeared to waver.

“I suppose,” he said, with his near-sighted, embarrassed smile, “that nine hundred and ninety-nine men in a thousand would throw that letter aside and condemn the writer as a liar or a fool?”

“In my opinion,” said I, “he’s one or the other.”

“He isn’t—in mine,” said the professor, placidly.

“What!” I exclaimed. “Here is a man living all alone on a strip of rock and sand between the wilderness and the sea, who wants you to send somebody to take charge of a bird that doesn’t exist!”

“How do you know,” asked Professor Farrago, “that the bird in question does not exist?”

“It is generally accepted,” I replied, sarcastically, “that the great auk has been extinct for years. Therefore I may be pardoned for doubting that our correspondent possesses a pair of them alive.”

“Oh, you young fellows,” said the professor, smiling wearily, “you embark on a theory for destinations that don’t exist.”

He leaned back in his chair, his amused eyes searching space for the imagery that made him smile.

“Like swimming squirrels, you navigate with the help of Heaven and a stiff breeze, but you never land where you hope to—do you?”

Rather red in the face, I said: “Don’t you believe the great auk to be extinct?”

“Audubon saw the great auk.”

“Who has seen a single specimen since?”

“Nobody—except our correspondent here,” he replied, laughing.

I laughed, too, considering the interview at an end, but the professor went on, coolly:

“Whatever it is that our correspondent has—and I am daring to believe that it is the great auk itself—I want you to secure it for the society.”

When my astonishment subsided my first conscious sentiment was one of pity. Clearly, Professor Farrago was on the verge of dotage—ah, what a loss to the world!

I believe now that Professor Farrago perfectly interpreted my thoughts, but he betrayed neither resentment nor impatience. I drew a chair up beside his desk—there was nothing to do but to obey, and this fool’s errand was none of my conceiving.

Together we made out a list of articles necessary for me and itemized the expenses I might incur, and I set a date for my return, allowing no margin for a successful termination to the expedition.

“Never mind that,” said the professor. “What I want you to do is to get those birds here safely. Now, how many men will you take?”

“None,” I replied, bluntly; “it’s a useless expense, unless there is something to bring back. If there is I’ll wire you, you may be sure.”

“Very well,” said Professor Farrago, good-humoredly, “you shall have all the assistance you may require. Can you leave to-night?”

The old gentleman was certainly prompt. I nodded, half-sulkily, aware of his amusement.

“So,” I said, picking up my hat, “I am to start north to find a place called Black Harbor, where there is a man named Halyard who possesses, among other household utensils, two extinct great auks—”

We were both laughing by this time. I asked him why on earth he credited the assertion of a man he had never before heard of.

“I suppose,” he replied, with the same half-apologetic, half-humorous smile, “it is instinct. I feel, somehow, that this man Halyard has got an auk—perhaps two. I can’t get away from the idea that we are on the eve of acquiring the rarest of living creatures. It’s odd for a scientist to talk as I do; doubtless you’re shocked—admit it, now!”

But I was not shocked; on the contrary, I was conscious that the same strange hope that Professor Farrago cherished was beginning, in spite of me, to stir my pulses, too.

“If he has—” I began, then stopped.

The professor and I looked hard at each other in silence.

“Go on,” he said, encouragingly.

But I had nothing more to say, for the prospect of beholding with my own eyes a living specimen of the great auk produced a series of conflicting emotions within me which rendered speech profanely superfluous.

From IN SEARCH OF THE UNKNOWN by Robert W. Chambers—Public Domain

Audubon: John James Audubon, an ornithologist and artist who created scientific illustrations of birds
dotage: a loss of reasoning brought about by old age

Question

Read paragraph 2 from the excerpt.

To the proprietors of . . . mangy lynxes, moth-eaten coyotes, and dancing bears I returned courteous but uncompromising refusals—of course, first submitting all such letters, together with my replies, to Professor Farrago.

This paragraph helps develop the plot by establishing that the narrator

  • Adislikes writing refusal letters for the animals offered to the zoological society.
  • Battempts to predict what the professor would say in the refusal letters.
  • Cbelieves that many of the animals offered are not acceptable for the zoological society.
  • Dresents the professor’s insistence on reviewing the refusal letters.
Show the answer

Correct answer: C

The question asks how paragraph 2 helps develop the plot.

A. Incorrect. As paragraph 1 indicates, writing such letters is one of the main parts of the narrator’s job (“and I was always busy, part of the day, in dictating answers to correspondents”), and he shows no indication of disliking this work. The letters are to inform people whether the zoo will accept their animals.

B. Incorrect. Paragraph 2 indicates that the narrator offers his letters to the professor merely for official approval. At the start of the excerpt, the narrator is confident in his reply and does not anticipate that his response will differ from that of the professor, so he has no need to “predict what the professor would say.”

C. CORRECT. The phrase “uncompromising refusals” in paragraph 2 indicates the confidence that the narrator initially has in his belief that the animals described in the letters are not of value to the society. This confidence is badly shaken as the plot unfolds, as when Professor Farrago states that “ ‘I am daring to believe that it is the great auk itself’ ” (paragraph 23). The narrator’s transition from an attitude of dismissive doubt to one of budding hopefulness is a major part of the plot (“But I was not shocked; on the contrary, I was conscious that the same strange hope that Professor Farrago cherished was beginning, in spite of me, to stir my pulses, too” [paragraph 34]).

D. Incorrect. The narrator does not resent the professor’s review of the letters; instead, the phrase “of course” in paragraph 2 shows that he expects to submit the letters to the professor as part of his job.

Question analysis

In this plot question on an excerpt from Robert W. Chambers’s novel In Search of the Unknown, students read paragraph 2, in which a zoo employee describes answering people who offer animals for sale. The question asks what the paragraph establishes about the narrator. Its old-fashioned vocabulary and its long, dash-broken sentence make the narrator’s attitude harder to pin down.

NYS standards
  • 7R5 structure and genre features
  • 7R3 plot elements and ideas
Grade level
Grade 7 reading and task
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Explaining how one paragraph develops a plot is regular grade 7 work, and this one is quoted in full. Its early-1900s wording, with words such as “proprietors” and “uncompromising,” adds some load but no unusual reasoning.
Estimated difficulty
Straightforward: two steps or one careful reading.
What makes it hard
Evidence
Answered from one paragraph or stanza
Reading level
Passage: about grade 9, 1066 words; question and choices: about grade 11, 94 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

The paragraph’s attitude sits in its adjectives: lynxes that are “mangy,” coyotes that are “moth-eaten” and refusals that are “uncompromising.” Students who read that scorn as the narrator’s mood about his job, or who hear grumbling in “of course,” choose a feeling about the work instead of a judgment of the animals. The plot point is that the narrator starts out sure the offers are worthless, the confidence the great auk letter is about to test.

  1. Hard words moderate Understanding the question

    “Proprietors,” “uncompromising,” “mangy” and “moth-eaten” carry the meaning: the owners of shabby animals get firm refusals, and a student who misses these words cannot tell what the narrator thinks of the offers. (Perfetti, 2007; Freedle & Kostin, 1993)

  2. Complex sentences minor Understanding the question

    The paragraph is one inverted sentence that opens with “To the proprietors of,” reaches “I returned” only midway and ends with a dash clause about the professor’s review. (Abedi & Lord, 2001; Freedle & Kostin, 1993; Messick, 1989)

  3. The right answer is reworded minor Choosing the answer

    Three wrong choices repeat the paragraph’s “refusals” and “letters,” while the right one restates the scorn for the animals as a judgment that they do not suit the society. (Freedle & Kostin, 1993; Kirsch & Mosenthal, 1990)

Strategy: Paraphrase paragraph 2 in plain modern words, noting what each descriptive word reveals about the narrator, then keep only a choice those words actually support.

Traps

  • Twists what the text says: Uses the text's topic and ideas but changes what it says: who did it, how much, when, or why.
  • Wrong tone or attitude: Misjudges the tone, attitude or point of view, such as reading admiration as criticism, or taking a character's or subject's feelings for the author's.
  • Reads too much in: A reasonable-sounding conclusion that goes further than the text allows.

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Working it out, step by step

  1. Figure out what the question asks

    This asks what paragraph 2 tells you about the narrator, the person telling the story. It also asks how that sets up the plot, the chain of events in a story. The paragraph is one long, old-fashioned sentence. So put it in plain words first.

  2. Put paragraph 2 in plain words

    Proprietors are owners. People wrote offering animals to the zoo. The narrator lists some: “mangy lynxes, moth-eaten coyotes, and dancing bears.” Mangy means with patchy, sick-looking fur. Moth-eaten means old and worn out. He sent the owners “courteous but uncompromising refusals.” Courteous means polite. Uncompromising means firm, with no chance of changing his mind.

  3. Decide what it shows about him

    The words “mangy” and “moth-eaten” show what he thinks of the animals. To him, they are shabby and not good enough for the zoo. He turns them all down. This sets up the plot. When the letter about the great auk comes, he is ready to reject it too. That is where the story’s conflict begins.

  4. Check each choice

    • A does not fit. His refusals are polite, and paragraph 1 shows that answering letters is his everyday job. Nothing says he dislikes it.
    • B does not fit. He sends his replies to the professor to be approved. He is not guessing what the professor would say.
    • C fits. He judges that the animals offered are not good enough.
    • D does not fit. “Of course” shows that the review is normal. He does not resent it, or feel bitter about it.

    Watch out: A is tempting because the narrator sounds scornful. But his scorn is for the animals, not for the job.

  5. Choose the answer

    Paragraph 2 shows the narrator turning down animals he thinks are unfit. So the answer is C, “believes that many of the animals offered are not acceptable for the zoological society.”

Why this answer and not the closest wrong one

A is the closest wrong choice. The narrator’s words do sound scornful. But the scorn is aimed at the animals, “mangy” and “moth-eaten,” not at the job of writing letters. His refusals are even “courteous.” C names his real judgment: these animals are not right for the zoo.

The original DOE question
Question 14 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 22 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test B English, page 22, question 14.
The passage “Excerpt from In Search of the Unknown” as printed (page 21)The passage “Excerpt from In Search of the Unknown” as printed on page 21 of the DOE handbook.

Question 35 of 120

2026 Practice Test B English, question 16

Uses the passage above: “Excerpt from In Search of the Unknown”.

Question

How does the exchange between the professor and the narrator in paragraphs 8–11 contribute to the development of the characters?

  • AIt establishes the conflict between the professor and the narrator concerning the validity of the letter.
  • BIt suggests a theme of collaboration because the narrator and the professor regularly work together.
  • CIt reveals the characters’ traits by contrasting the narrator’s distrust with how easily the professor is deceived by what he reads.
  • DIt hints that the resolution will involve the narrator accepting the professor’s opinion about the content of the letter.
Show the answer

Correct answer: A

The question asks how the exchange between the professor and the narrator in paragraphs 8–11 contributes to the development of the characters.

A. CORRECT. Paragraphs 8–11 help develop the characters by revealing the difference between the opinions of the narrator and the professor. The narrator believes without any doubts that Halyard, the man who wrote the letter about the auks, is either “ ‘a liar or a fool’ ” (paragraph 9), while the professor believes in the possibility that the writer of the letter could actually be telling the truth (“I said as much to Professor Farrago, but, to my surprise, he appeared to waver” [paragraph 8]).

B. Incorrect. In paragraph 8, the narrator reacts to the letter writer with “a contemptuous tolerance,” and he is shocked to learn that the professor actually agrees with the man (paragraph 11) whom the narrator has bluntly condemned as a liar or a fool (“ ‘In my opinion,’ said I, ‘he’s one or the other.’ ” [paragraph 10]). The exchange presents an emphatic disagreement between the narrator and the professor, and it does not show them working together in a collaborative manner.

C. Incorrect. Although the narrator initially distrusts the contents of the letter and shows “contemptuous tolerance for the writer” (paragraph 8), the excerpt portrays the professor as experienced and intelligent, not as one who is easily deceived.

D. Incorrect. While the narrator does begin to consider the professor’s perspective at the end of the excerpt, paragraphs 8–11 primarily serve to establish the difference of opinion between the narrator and the professor about the writer of the letter.

Question analysis

This question on the excerpt from In Search of the Unknown asks how a short exchange in paragraphs 8–11, in which the narrator and Professor Farrago discuss a letter about a bird, contributes to the development of the two characters. Students must read what each man says and decide what the exchange adds. Some choices describe the pair accurately in part only.

NYS standards
  • 7R3 plot elements and ideas
  • 7R5 structure and genre features
Grade level
Grade 8 reading and task
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 The task matches the grade 8 standard on how lines of dialogue reveal character, but the four paragraphs are short and the two speakers’ positions are stated outright, so the demand stays at a typical grade 7 level.
Estimated difficulty
Moderate: several steps, or a close reading with one strong distractor.
Evidence
Answered from several paragraphs or stanzas
Reading level
Passage: about grade 9, 1066 words; question and choices: about grade 13, 90 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

The four paragraphs are short and the disagreement is plain, so most students see that the men differ about the letter. The difficulty lies in the wording of the choices. One describes the contrast in terms of character, which suits the stem, but calls the professor easily deceived, a judgment only the narrator holds. The right choice speaks of a conflict, which sounds like plot rather than character, so students must trust that the conflict is what reveals the two men.

  1. A very close wrong answer moderate Choosing the answer

    The choice that contrasts the narrator’s distrust with an easily deceived professor and the right one both set the men’s views of the letter against each other; they part on whether the professor is fooled. (Embretson & Wetzel, 1987; Gorin & Embretson, 2006; Ascalon et al., 2007)

  2. How, not what minor Working it out

    The stem asks about the characters, while the right choice names a conflict over the letter, so students must see that the disagreement itself is what reveals each man. (Anderson & Krathwohl, 2001)

  3. Reading between the lines minor Working it out

    The professor’s side is four words, “He isn’t—in mine,” and students must read them as openness to the letter’s truth, set against the narrator’s flat “one or the other.” (Graesser, Singer & Trabasso, 1994; Kintsch, 1998)

Strategy: Sum up in a phrase what each man says and does in paragraphs 8–11, then check every part of each choice against those four paragraphs, since a choice can describe one character correctly and the other not.

Traps

  • Half right: One half of a two-part choice is right and the other is not.
  • Wrong part of the text: A choice is true of another paragraph, stanza or speaker than the one asked about.
  • True but not the answer: A choice says something accurate about the text that does not answer this question.

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Working it out, step by step

  1. Figure out what the question asks

    This asks what paragraphs 8–11 show about the two characters. Look at what each man says about the letter. Then compare their views.

  2. Find the narrator’s view

    In paragraph 8, the narrator reads the letter with “a contemptuous tolerance for the writer.” Contemptuous means full of scorn. He thinks the writer is “either a very innocent victim or a very stupid swindler.” A swindler is a cheat. In paragraph 10, he says the writer is a liar or a fool: “he’s one or the other.”

  3. Find the professor’s view

    The professor does not agree. In paragraph 8, the narrator notices that “to my surprise, he appeared to waver.” To waver means to be unsure. In paragraph 11, the professor answers, “He isn’t—in mine.” He means that in his opinion the writer is not a liar or a fool. So the two men clash over whether the letter is true. A clash like this is a conflict.

  4. Check each choice

    • A fits. The two men disagree about whether the letter can be trusted. Validity means whether something is true.
    • B does not fit. They do work together, but here they disagree.
    • C does not fit. The narrator’s distrust is right, but the professor is not fooled. He calmly refuses to call the writer a liar.
    • D does not fit. The narrator starts to hope later, in paragraph 34. In paragraphs 8–11 he does not budge.

    Watch out: C is tempting because half of it is true. The narrator does distrust the letter. But the idea that the professor has been fooled is only the narrator’s view.

  5. Choose the answer

    Paragraphs 8–11 set the narrator’s scorn against the professor’s open mind. So the answer is A, “It establishes the conflict between the professor and the narrator concerning the validity of the letter.”

Why this answer and not the closest wrong one

C is the closest wrong choice. It is right about the narrator’s distrust. But it speaks of “how easily the professor is deceived.” Deceived means tricked. The story never shows that. He stays calm and thinks for himself. A describes both men correctly: they disagree about the letter.

The original DOE question
Question 16 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 24 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test B English, page 24, question 16.

Question 36 of 120

2026 Practice Test B English, question 19

Uses the passage above: “Excerpt from In Search of the Unknown”.

Question

Which sentence from the excerpt best explains why the professor is eager to send the narrator on an expedition?

  • A“I believe now that Professor Farrago perfectly interpreted my thoughts, but he betrayed neither resentment nor impatience.” (paragraph 25)
  • B“Together we made out a list of articles necessary for me and itemized the expenses I might incur, and I set a date for my return, allowing no margin for a successful termination to the expedition.” (paragraph 26)
  • C“ ‘What I want you to do is to get those birds here safely.’ ” (paragraph 27)
  • D“ ‘I can’t get away from the idea that we are on the eve of acquiring the rarest of living creatures.’ ” (paragraph 33)
Show the answer

Correct answer: D

The question asks which sentence from the excerpt best explains why the professor is eager to send the narrator on an expedition.

A. Incorrect. The sentence from paragraph 25 says that the professor “perfectly interpreted” the narrator’s thoughts: in paragraph 24, the narrator suspects the professor is losing his ability to reason because his request (to secure the great auk for the society) seems impossible. The professor is excited about the discovery, but the narrator doubts whether the discovery is real. The sentence does not explain why the professor is excited, however.

B. Incorrect. Paragraph 26 shows the professor and the narrator planning the logistics of the trip, but it does not explain why the professor is eager to send the narrator on the expedition.

C. Incorrect. Although the sentence from paragraph 27 expresses the professor’s interest in having the narrator bring the birds back safely, it does not show the underlying reason why the safety of the birds is so crucial, which is that the great auk is extremely rare.

D. CORRECT. The sentence from paragraph 33 reveals the professor’s excitement to get “ ‘the rarest of living creatures,’ ” the great auk. In paragraph 14, the narrator states that “it is generally accepted . . . that the great auk has been extinct for years,” which would make a living auk incredibly rare and explains the professor’s eagerness for the narrator to go on the expedition.

Question analysis

This textual evidence question asks which sentence from In Search of the Unknown best explains why Professor Farrago is eager to send the narrator to collect a pair of great auks from a man who wrote to the zoo. Students must find the sentence that gives the professor’s reason, and the four quotations, from paragraphs 25 to 33, all concern the expedition in some way.

NYS standards
  • 7R1 textual evidence and inferences
  • 7R3 plot elements and ideas
Grade level
Grade 7 reading and task
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Choosing the sentence that best explains a character’s motive is standard grade 7 evidence work. The four quotations are short and labeled, but students must tell a reason for the professor’s eagerness apart from sentences that merely relate to the trip.
Estimated difficulty
Moderate: several steps, or a close reading with one strong distractor.
Evidence
Answered from several paragraphs or stanzas
Reading level
Passage: about grade 9, 1066 words; question and choices: about grade 12, 109 words.
Corrected from the DOE handbook
  • A detail in the explanation was attributed to the wrong paragraph; it was corrected.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

Every quotation concerns the expedition, so the question rests on the difference between a sentence that relates to the trip and one that gives the professor’s reason for wanting it. The order to bring the birds back safely shows his eagerness plainly and draws students who stop there. Only the sentence about “the rarest of living creatures” supplies a motive, and it gains its weight from the narrator’s earlier claim that the great auk is extinct.

  1. A very close wrong answer moderate Choosing the answer

    The professor’s order to “get those birds here safely” and the right sentence are both his words about the birds; one says what he wants, the other why he wants it. (Embretson & Wetzel, 1987; Gorin & Embretson, 2006; Ascalon et al., 2007)

  2. Reading between the lines minor Working it out

    The right sentence never mentions the expedition, and its force depends on paragraph 14, where the narrator says the great auk “has been extinct for years.” (Graesser, Singer & Trabasso, 1994; Kintsch, 1998)

  3. Hard words minor Understanding the question

    “On the eve of acquiring” is an idiom for being about to obtain, and a student who takes “eve” as evening misses that the professor feels the prize is near. (Perfetti, 2007; Freedle & Kostin, 1993)

Strategy: Restate the question as “Why does the professor want the narrator to go?” and ask of each quotation whether it gives a reason or only describes part of the plan.

Traps

  • Supports only part of the claim: In a question about evidence: a line that backs one half of the claim but not the other, or a related point rather than the claim itself.
  • Word match: Repeats striking words or phrases from the text, so it looks supported, but its meaning does not fit the question.
  • True but not the answer: A choice says something accurate about the text that does not answer this question.

The wrong answers, classified

What was corrected from the DOE handbook, and why

  • Explanation: The DOE’s explanation of Option A says “In the sentence from paragraph 25, the narrator suspects the professor is losing his ability to reason.” That suspicion is in paragraph 24 (“Clearly, Professor Farrago was on the verge of dotage,” where dotage is “a loss of reasoning brought about by old age”). The sentence from paragraph 25, which is Option A, says that the professor “perfectly interpreted my thoughts” and showed “neither resentment nor impatience.” The site now says: “The sentence from paragraph 25 says that the professor ‘perfectly interpreted’ the narrator’s thoughts: in paragraph 24, the narrator suspects the professor is losing his ability to reason.” The rest of the explanation is unchanged: Option A is still wrong because the sentence does not explain why the professor is eager to send the narrator.

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Working it out, step by step

  1. Figure out what the question asks

    This asks for evidence: the sentence that best explains why the professor is eager to send the narrator. So look for a reason, not a plan or an order.

  2. Recall what the narrator believes

    In paragraph 14, the narrator says “that the great auk has been extinct for years.” Extinct means no longer alive anywhere on Earth. So a living great auk would be amazingly rare. The letter writer claims to have two of them.

  3. Find the professor’s reason

    In paragraph 33, the professor says, “I can’t get away from the idea that we are on the eve of acquiring the rarest of living creatures.” On the eve of means just about to. Acquiring means getting. He thinks the zoo is close to getting the rarest animal alive. That is why he is eager to send the narrator.

  4. Check each choice

    • A does not fit. It is from paragraph 25. It says the professor understood the narrator’s thoughts. Those thoughts are in paragraph 24: the professor was “on the verge of dotage,” or losing his reason in old age. A shows the professor’s calm, not his reason.
    • B does not fit. It describes planning the trip, not why.
    • C does not fit. It says what the professor wants done, but not why the birds matter.
    • D fits. It gives his reason: a chance at the rarest of creatures.

    Watch out: C is tempting because the professor is talking about the birds. But it is an order, not a reason.

  5. Choose the answer

    Only D explains what makes the trip so exciting to the professor. So the answer is D, “I can’t get away from the idea that we are on the eve of acquiring the rarest of living creatures.”

Why this answer and not the closest wrong one

C is the closest wrong choice. In C, the professor says “What I want you to do is to get those birds here safely.” That tells what he wants. D tells why he wants it: the birds may be “the rarest of living creatures.” The question asks for the reason, so D fits better.

The original DOE question
Question 19 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 27 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test B English, page 27, question 19. This is the DOE’s version, before the corrections listed in the analysis.

Question 37 of 120

2026 Practice Test B English, question 20

Uses the passage above: “Excerpt from In Search of the Unknown”.

Question

How does paragraph 34 help develop the plot of the excerpt?

  • AIt shows that the narrator is beginning to consider the possibility of finding the great auks.
  • BIt demonstrates that the narrator is struggling to understand why the professor thinks the great auks exist.
  • CIt establishes that the narrator is willing to let the professor overrule him about the great auks.
  • DIt emphasizes that the narrator feels a sense of urgency to complete the expedition to locate the great auks.
Show the answer

Correct answer: A

The question asks how paragraph 34 helps develop the plot of the excerpt.

A. CORRECT. Despite his initial disbelief, the narrator admits in paragraph 34 that he is starting to feel the “same strange hope” the professor feels, which is to find the great auks (paragraph 33).

B. Incorrect. While the narrator does make an effort in paragraphs 11–22 to understand the professor’s thinking, paragraph 34 reveals that the narrator has been affected by the professor’s “strange hope” for the auks and is beginning to share this hope “in spite of” himself.

C. Incorrect. The narrator describes a feeling of hope in paragraph 34 that would not be present if he had simply been overruled by the professor and did not share any of the professor’s belief in the possibility that the auks exist. In addition, it was established before paragraph 34 that the narrator was willing to be overruled (“I drew a chair up beside his desk—there was nothing to do but to obey, and this fool’s errand was none of my conceiving” [paragraph 25]).

D. Incorrect. The narrator does not express a sense of urgency in paragraph 34 to complete the expedition. Instead, he expresses hope that the great auks might really exist.

Question analysis

This plot question on In Search of the Unknown asks how paragraph 34, a single long sentence near the end of the excerpt, helps develop the story of the narrator’s assignment to bring back two great auks. Students must put its formal phrasing into plain words and connect it to the conversation that comes before it.

NYS standards
  • 7R5 structure and genre features
  • 7R3 plot elements and ideas
Grade level
Grade 7 reading and task
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Explaining how a paragraph moves a plot forward is regular grade 7 work, and paragraph 34 is a single sentence. Its formal wording, such as “in spite of me” and “stir my pulses,” has to be put into plain words first.
Estimated difficulty
Straightforward: two steps or one careful reading.
Evidence
Answered from one paragraph or stanza
Reading level
Passage: about grade 9, 1066 words; question and choices: about grade 10, 79 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

Put into plain words, the paragraph has the narrator admitting that the professor’s hope is starting to take hold of him, which is the turn the question asks about. The losses come from reading it through earlier scenes: his obedience in paragraph 25 makes giving way to the professor look like the point, and the word “strange” makes puzzlement look likely. The paragraph records a change in what he believes, not in what he does.

  1. Complex sentences minor Understanding the question

    Paragraph 34 is one 31-word sentence that turns on “on the contrary” and breaks its main clause with “in spite of me,” so its point, a hope beginning to stir, arrives late. (Abedi & Lord, 2001; Freedle & Kostin, 1993; Messick, 1989)

  2. Figurative or literary language minor Understanding the question

    “To stir my pulses” means to excite, and a student who reads it as a racing heart may take it for haste to leave rather than hope that the birds exist. (Graesser, Singer & Trabasso, 1994; Kintsch, 1998)

Strategy: Restate paragraph 34 in plain modern words, then test each choice against what this paragraph itself says about the narrator.

Traps

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Working it out, step by step

  1. Figure out what the question asks

    This asks how paragraph 34 moves the story forward. Read that paragraph closely. Then decide what has changed for the narrator.

  2. Read paragraph 34 closely

    Paragraph 34 says “But I was not shocked; on the contrary, I was conscious that the same strange hope that Professor Farrago cherished was beginning, in spite of me, to stir my pulses, too.” On the contrary means the opposite is true. Cherished means held dear. To stir his pulses means to make his heart beat faster with excitement.

  3. Put it in your own words

    The professor hopes the great auks are real. Now the narrator feels that same hope starting in himself. “In spite of me” means he did not want to feel it, but he does. Before, he called the letter writer a liar or a fool. Now he is starting to think the birds might really be found.

  4. Check each choice

    • A fits. He begins to hope that the birds could be found.
    • B does not fit. He is not puzzling over the professor’s belief. He is starting to share it.
    • C does not fit. Giving in to the professor came earlier, in paragraph 25: “there was nothing to do but to obey.” Paragraph 34 is about hope, not obeying.
    • D does not fit. Nothing in the paragraph is about hurrying.

    Watch out: D is tempting because a racing pulse can sound like rushing. But the excitement is about the birds, not about speed.

  5. Choose the answer

    Paragraph 34 shows the narrator’s doubt starting to turn into hope. So the answer is A, “It shows that the narrator is beginning to consider the possibility of finding the great auks.”

Why this answer and not the closest wrong one

C is the closest wrong choice. The narrator did agree to obey the professor. But that happened in paragraph 25, and he was not happy about it. In paragraph 34, something new happens. He feels “the same strange hope” as the professor. A names that change.

The original DOE question
Question 20 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 28 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test B English, page 28, question 20.

Question 38 of 120

2026 Practice Test B English, question 21

Uses the passage above: “Excerpt from In Search of the Unknown”.

Question

Which sentence best demonstrates the professional relationship between the narrator and the professor?

  • A“He disengaged the sheet of paper and handed it to me.” (paragraph 4)
  • B“Clearly, Professor Farrago was on the verge of dotage—ah, what a loss to the world!” (paragraph 24)
  • C“I drew a chair up beside his desk—there was nothing to do but to obey, and this fool’s errand was none of my conceiving.” (paragraph 25)
  • D“ ‘Very well,’ said Professor Farrago, good-humoredly, ‘you shall have all the assistance you may require.’ ” (paragraph 29)
Show the answer

Correct answer: C

The question asks which sentence best demonstrates the professional relationship between the narrator and the professor.

A. Incorrect. Although the professor’s handing of the paper to the narrator indicates that they are beginning to discuss the letter about the great auk, the sentence from paragraph 4 does not convey the relationship between a subordinate employee (the narrator) and a superior (the professor).

B. Incorrect. The sentence from paragraph 24 presents the narrator’s immediate internal reaction to the professor’s words. The sentence emphasizes that the professor’s belief in the great auk’s existence is so outrageous that the narrator initially thinks the professor is starting to lose touch with reality. This is a momentary reaction to the professor’s words, not a demonstration of the professional relationship between the two.

C. CORRECT. The sentence from paragraph 25 reveals that while the narrator disagrees with the professor (“this fool’s errand was none of my conceiving”), he obeys because he works for the professor (“there was nothing to do but to obey”).

D. Incorrect. The professor’s good-humored offer of assistance in the sentence from paragraph 29 does not best demonstrate the underlying employer-employee relationship between the professor and the narrator. The narrator has to go on the expedition because the professor, his boss, told him to.

Question analysis

This textual evidence question on In Search of the Unknown asks which sentence best demonstrates the professional relationship between the narrator, who answers letters for a zoological society, and Professor Farrago. The four quotations come from different points in their conversation about a letter. Several show the two men dealing with each other, so students must weigh which one shows the relationship most clearly.

NYS standards
  • 7R1 textual evidence and inferences
  • 7R3 plot elements and ideas
Grade level
Grade 7 reading and task
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Picking the sentence that best shows a relationship between characters is typical grade 7 evidence work. The four quotations are short and labeled, and the main step is deciding what a professional relationship would look like in this scene.
Estimated difficulty
Moderate: several steps, or a close reading with one strong distractor.
Evidence
Answered from several paragraphs or stanzas
Reading level
Passage: about grade 9, 1066 words; question and choices: about grade 10, 84 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

Several quotations show the two men interacting, and the professor’s offer of “all the assistance you may require” even shows him controlling the society’s resources. The best evidence is the sentence in which the employee’s position is plain: he disagrees, yet he must obey. Students who read “professional” loosely as anything that happens at work pick the handing over of the letter, and those who look only at the professor’s authority stop at his offer of help.

  1. Reading between the lines moderate Working it out

    Students must first decide what a professional relationship looks like here, a superior and an employee bound to carry out his orders, before they can see it in “nothing to do but to obey.” (Graesser, Singer & Trabasso, 1994; Kintsch, 1998)

  2. Every choice must be checked minor Choosing the answer

    All four sentences show the two men dealing with each other, from handing over a letter to granting help, so each must be weighed for what it shows about rank. (Embretson & Wetzel, 1987)

  3. Hard words minor Understanding the question

    The right sentence ends “this fool’s errand was none of my conceiving,” old-fashioned wording for saying the pointless trip was not his idea, which shows the disagreement that makes his obedience telling. (Perfetti, 2007; Freedle & Kostin, 1993)

Strategy: Decide first what a professional relationship between these two men involves, then ask of each quotation whether it shows that relationship or only a passing moment between them.

Traps

  • Supports only part of the claim: In a question about evidence: a line that backs one half of the claim but not the other, or a related point rather than the claim itself.
  • True but not the answer: A choice says something accurate about the text that does not answer this question.
  • Reads too much in: A reasonable-sounding conclusion that goes further than the text allows.

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Working it out, step by step

  1. Figure out what the question asks

    This asks for the sentence that best shows their professional relationship. That means how they relate at work: who is the boss, and who must follow orders. Paragraph 3 calls Professor Farrago the “general superintendent of the Zoological Gardens.” He is the man in charge. The narrator sends him letters for approval.

  2. Look for a sign of boss and worker

    Paragraph 25 says “I drew a chair up beside his desk—there was nothing to do but to obey, and this fool’s errand was none of my conceiving.” To obey means to do what you are told. A fool’s errand is a pointless task. “None of my conceiving” means it was not his idea.

  3. Put it in your own words

    The narrator thinks the trip is silly. Still, he must do it, because the professor is his boss. A worker who disagrees but follows orders anyway shows a work relationship clearly. That is what this sentence does.

  4. Check each choice

    • A does not fit. Handing over a letter starts their talk. It shows nothing about who is in charge.
    • B does not fit. It is the narrator’s private thought that the professor is losing his reason in old age. It is a passing reaction.
    • C fits. The narrator must obey even though he disagrees.
    • D does not fit. It shows the professor in a good mood. It does not show the narrator’s duty to follow orders.

    Watch out: D is tempting because a boss is the one who offers help. But the sentence mostly shows his good humor.

  5. Choose the answer

    Only C shows the narrator following an order he does not agree with. So the answer is C, “I drew a chair up beside his desk—there was nothing to do but to obey, and this fool’s errand was none of my conceiving.”

Why this answer and not the closest wrong one

D is the closest wrong choice. The professor does have the power to offer “all the assistance you may require.” But that sentence mainly shows him being friendly. C shows the heart of the work relationship. The narrator thinks the job is foolish, yet he has “nothing to do but to obey.”

The original DOE question
Question 21 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 29 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test B English, page 29, question 21.

Question 39 of 120

2026 Practice Test B English, question 26
Passage Looking for the Smallest Spark of Everything

Looking for the Smallest Spark of Everything

Located underground near Geneva, Switzerland, the Large Hadron Collider (LHC) helps scientists study and understand how the smallest particles of matter interact with one another. The LHC propels atomic particle beams along a 17-mile-long ring.

There are the things the world is made of,
things we can see and feel, and then
there are the things even smaller, things that seem
to exist only when we are looking right at them.

So beneath the level of molecules are atoms,
and beneath the level of atoms, we find
protons, electrons, neutrons; and beneath that—
what, exactly? Because we are talking about
everything here: your fingernail,
the candy at the back of your mouth,
the coffee your teacher drank this morning,
your little sister, and the stuffed dog
she used to carry around with her everywhere.
And everywhere.

Everything and everywhere
are made up of the same stuff, whatever
it is. How do we find it? We can listen for it
in the wavelengths from deep space,
talking back to us from unimaginable
distances. Or we can build long,
deep circular tunnels beneath the surface
of this Earth and race particles
(like racing cars, only very tiny cars
flashing along at close to the speed of light)
until everything we think we know
bangs against everything else we know.

And there, in the explosion, in the darkness,
briefly incandescent, they appear:
the quarks, the leptons, and the bosons;
the baryons and the mesons. Their names
sound like dinosaurs or maybe bands
playing terrible music in someone’s garage.

The one thing we know for sure
is that they spin. This is how gravity
enters our world, how our world is held
both together and apart, what keeps
together the pencil in your hand right now
as well as separate from, say,
Jupiter. They spin, and it is only down there
in the darkness—in the vast garage
where physicists jot down
what they can, whatever seems most real—
that they let us perceive their wild dancing,
combusting to the music they make.

Question

Read lines 30–32 from the poem.

Their names
sound like dinosaurs or maybe bands
playing terrible music in someone’s garage.

The speaker refers to familiar objects and events in the lines most likely to

  • Aexplain confusing information in simple terms to help the reader understand more about the topic.
  • Bdemonstrate how scientific ideas can be explained by describing situations that many people are familiar with.
  • Cemphasize that the process being used to research particles is still in the early stages of development.
  • Dsuggest that the scientific language used to describe particles seems silly by making a humorous comparison.
Show the answer

Correct answer: D

The question asks why the speaker refers to familiar objects and events in lines 30–32.

A. Incorrect. In lines 30–32, the speaker only gives an opinion about what the names sound like and does not simplify confusing information about how these newly discovered particles function or exist.

B. Incorrect. In lines 30–32, the speaker is only describing what the names of the particles sound like: “dinosaurs or maybe bands” (line 31). These descriptions illustrate the speaker’s opinion but do not explain specific scientific ideas.

C. Incorrect. In lines 30–32, the mention of the names of the particles sounding like “dinosaurs or maybe bands” (line 31) reveals the speaker’s opinion about the names but does not explain the process of researching the particles.

D. CORRECT. The phrase “their names” (line 30) refers to the scientific names of the particles: “the quarks, the leptons, and the bosons; / the baryons and the mesons” (lines 29–30). In lines 30–32, the speaker expresses the opinion that these scientific terms sound nonsensical, much like the strange scientific names of dinosaurs or silly band names.

Question analysis

In “Looking for the Smallest Spark of Everything,” the speaker says the names of particles sound like dinosaurs or bands playing in someone’s garage. This question asks why the speaker refers to such familiar things in lines 30–32. Students must read the comparison’s tone and purpose, and the choices offer several reasons poets compare science with everyday life.

NYS standards
  • 7R5 structure and genre features
  • 7R4 word meaning and choice
Grade level
Grade 7 reading and task
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Explaining why a speaker includes a comparison is typical grade 7 work on word choice and tone. The three lines are quoted and their images are everyday ones, but the choices state purposes that differ in subtle ways.
Estimated difficulty
Moderate: several steps, or a close reading with one strong distractor.
Evidence
Answered from one paragraph or stanza
Reading level
Passage: 346 words (a poem; reading level not measured); question and choices: about grade 10, 97 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

Two choices give the textbook reason for an everyday comparison, to make hard science easier, and they draw students who answer from what comparisons usually do. These lines explain nothing; they say how the particles’ names sound, and “terrible music in someone’s garage” is a joke at the expense of the jargon. Students who trace “Their names” back to the list before it and hear the teasing tone reach the right purpose.

  1. How, not what moderate Working it out

    The question asks why the speaker makes the comparison, and two choices offer the usual reason for likening science to everyday things, making it easier to grasp, which these lines do not do. (Anderson & Krathwohl, 2001)

  2. Figurative or literary language moderate Understanding the question

    The humor has to be heard: names that sound like dinosaurs or like bands “playing terrible music in someone’s garage” are being teased, which signals a joke, not an explanation. (Graesser, Singer & Trabasso, 1994; Kintsch, 1998)

  3. Reading between the lines minor Working it out

    “Their names” points back to the list in lines 29–30, quarks, leptons, bosons, baryons and mesons, and students must see that the lines judge those words, not the particles. (Graesser, Singer & Trabasso, 1994; Kintsch, 1998)

Strategy: Find what “Their names” refers to in the lines just before, then ask what the comparison says about those names and in what tone, and match the purpose to both.

Traps

  • Wrong purpose or structure: Names a purpose, structure or effect that the part does not serve, or describes what a part says when the question asks what it does.
  • Too broad or too strong: A choice overstates, generalizes, or uses absolute words the text does not support.
  • Reads too much in: A reasonable-sounding conclusion that goes further than the text allows.

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Working it out, step by step

  1. Figure out what the question asks

    This asks why the speaker compares the particles’ names to familiar things. Familiar means well known from everyday life. First find what “Their names” points to. Then decide what the comparison says about those names, and in what tone.

  2. Find what their names means

    Lines 29–30 list the particles: “the quarks, the leptons, and the bosons; / the baryons and the mesons.” Then the speaker says “Their names / sound like dinosaurs or maybe bands / playing terrible music in someone’s garage.” So “their names” means these science words.

  3. Hear the joke

    Dinosaurs have long, strange names. A garage band is a group of beginners who practice in a garage. Their music is often loud and bad. The speaker is teasing the science words. They sound odd and a little silly. This is a humorous, or funny, comparison.

  4. Check each choice

    • A does not fit. The lines explain nothing about particles. They only say how the names sound.
    • B does not fit. No science idea is explained here.
    • C does not fit. “Garage” is part of the band joke. It does not say the research is new.
    • D fits. The joke makes the science names sound silly.

    Watch out: A is tempting because comparisons to everyday things often make science easier. But these lines make fun of names. They do not explain anything.

  5. Choose the answer

    The speaker compares the particle names to dinosaurs and bad garage bands to poke fun at them. So the answer is D, “suggest that the scientific language used to describe particles seems silly by making a humorous comparison.”

Why this answer and not the closest wrong one

A is the closest wrong choice. Writers often compare science to everyday things to make it simpler. But ask what these lines explain. Nothing about how particles work is made clearer. The lines only say the names sound like “bands / playing terrible music.” That is a joke about the words, so D fits.

The original DOE question
Question 26 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 37 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test B English, page 37, question 26.
The passage “Looking for the Smallest Spark of Everything” as printed (pages 32–33)The passage “Looking for the Smallest Spark of Everything” as printed on page 32 of the DOE handbook.The passage “Looking for the Smallest Spark of Everything” as printed on page 33 of the DOE handbook.

Question 40 of 120

2026 Practice Test B English, question 27

Uses the passage above: “Looking for the Smallest Spark of Everything”.

Question

Read lines 36–39 from the poem.

both together and apart, what keeps
together the pencil in your hand right now
as well as separate from, say,
Jupiter.

The poet includes these lines most likely to emphasize that

  • Ait is important for physicists to continue their research about particles.
  • Bthese particles have a powerful effect on everything.
  • Cthe discoveries about particles provide little information.
  • Dthe study of particles and the study of objects in space are similar.
Show the answer

Correct answer: B

The question asks for the most likely reason the poet includes lines 36–39 in the poem.

A. Incorrect. While the poem implies that the research is important, lines 36–39 do not point to a need for more research. Instead, the lines explain the power of the particles in the universe.

B. CORRECT. The particles that are “Everything and everywhere” (line 15) make up the objects mentioned in lines 36–39: a “pencil in your hand” and the planet “Jupiter.” Even though these objects are different from each other and extremely far apart in the universe, they are made up of and affected by these particles. The “powerful effect” is that the particles keep the objects “both together and apart” (line 36).

C. Incorrect. While the physicists can only “jot down / what they can, whatever seems most real” (lines 41–42), the discoveries about particles are ongoing and informative. The speaker shares that the particles are “everything and everywhere” (line 15) and that they “spin” (line 34), and that “this is how gravity / enters our world” (lines 34–35).

D. Incorrect. The speaker states that particles keep together objects in space, such as Jupiter, as well as objects on Earth, such as “the pencil in your hand right now” (line 37). However, in lines 36–39, the speaker is not comparing the study of subatomic particles with the study of objects in space (astronomy); the speaker is implying that because particles are “everything and everywhere” (line 15), the study of particles affects our understanding of everything in the universe, regardless of location.

Question analysis

This question asks why the poet of “Looking for the Smallest Spark of Everything” includes lines 36–39, about what keeps a pencil in your hand together and separate from the planet Jupiter. The quoted lines begin partway through a sentence, so students must read the lines before them to see what the sentence is about before judging the poet’s purpose.

NYS standards
  • 7R5 structure and genre features
  • 7R2 theme or central idea
Grade level
Grade 7 reading and task
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Explaining why a poet includes certain lines is typical grade 7 work. The quoted lines start partway through a sentence, so students must read lines 33–35 to see what the sentence is about, an extra step but not an unusual one.
Estimated difficulty
Moderate: several steps, or a close reading with one strong distractor.
What makes it hard
Evidence
Answered from one paragraph or stanza
Reading level
Passage: 346 words (a poem; reading level not measured); question and choices: about grade 8, 75 words.
Corrected from the DOE handbook
  • The explanation of C reversed cause and effect in the poem; one word was changed.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

The quoted lines are the tail of a sentence, and without its start they read like a list of objects. Students who go back to lines 33–35 see that the spin of the particles is what holds things “together and apart,” and the pencil and Jupiter show how far that reaches. Those who read the fragment alone fasten on Jupiter and think of astronomy, while those who read on to the physicists who “jot down / what they can” may decide that little is known.

  1. Complex sentences moderate Understanding the question

    The quoted lines begin mid-sentence with “both together and apart, what keeps,” so students must read back to lines 33–35 to learn that the subject is the particles’ spin, “how gravity / enters our world.” (Abedi & Lord, 2001; Freedle & Kostin, 1993; Messick, 1989)

  2. Reading between the lines minor Working it out

    The lines never say “everything”; students must see that a pencil in your hand and a distant planet stand for things near and small and things far and huge, so the effect reaches all matter. (Graesser, Singer & Trabasso, 1994; Kintsch, 1998)

Strategy: Read lines 33–39 as one sentence, work out what the subject of “what keeps” is, and then ask what point the two examples in lines 37–39 are meant to make.

Traps

The wrong answers, classified

What was corrected from the DOE handbook, and why

  • Explanation: Rejecting C, the handbook's explanation says the particles “spin” “because ‘this is how gravity / enters our world’”. The poem says it the other way round: “The one thing we know for sure / is that they spin. This is how gravity / enters our world”, so the spinning is how gravity enters. It now says the particles “spin”, and that “this is how gravity / enters our world”. The answer, B, is unchanged.

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Working it out, step by step

  1. Figure out what the question asks

    This asks why the poet includes lines 36–39. The lines start in the middle of a sentence. So read the whole sentence, from line 33, to see what it is about.

  2. Read lines 33–39 as one sentence

    Lines 33–34 say “The one thing we know for sure / is that they spin.” “They” means the tiny particles. Then the poem goes on: “This is how gravity / enters our world, how our world is held / both together and apart, what keeps / together the pencil in your hand right now / as well as separate from, say, / Jupiter.”

  3. Work out what it means

    “This” points back to the spinning. The spinning is how gravity comes into our world. Gravity is the pull that draws things toward each other. So the particles’ spin holds a pencil together and keeps it apart from Jupiter. A pencil is small and close. Jupiter is a huge planet, far away. Together they stand for everything.

  4. Check each choice

    • A does not fit. The lines say what particles do. They do not say physicists must keep working.
    • B fits. The particles affect everything, from a pencil to a planet.
    • C does not fit. These lines state facts with confidence. The physicists who “jot down / what they can” come later, in lines 41–42.
    • D does not fit. The pencil and Jupiter are things the particles affect. They are not two subjects of study being compared.

    Watch out: D is tempting because Jupiter is in space. But the lines show one force acting on both objects, not two kinds of science.

  5. Choose the answer

    A small pencil and a giant planet show that the particles’ effect reaches everything. So the answer is B, “these particles have a powerful effect on everything.”

Why this answer and not the closest wrong one

D is the closest wrong choice, since it also notices Jupiter. But D is about studying particles and studying space. The lines are not about study. They say the spin is “what keeps / together the pencil in your hand” and keeps it apart from Jupiter. Small and near, huge and far: that means everything, so B fits.

The original DOE question
Question 27 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 38 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test B English, page 38, question 27. This is the DOE’s version, before the corrections listed in the analysis.

Question 41 of 120

2026 Practice Test B English, question 29
Passage Using Fire to Keep a Prairie Healthy

Using Fire to Keep a Prairie Healthy

Inside the 40,000-acre Joseph H. Williams Tallgrass Prairie Preserve in northern Oklahoma, herds of bison roam on the scenic land that is home to hundreds of different species of plants and animals. While one of the greatest threats to the prairie is wildfire, the use of controlled fires is actually an effective way to protect this idyllic landscape.

Fires that are started by lightning or other natural circumstances are inevitable, and the results can be disastrous. However, hundreds of years ago the American Indian people who inhabited the Great Plains area between Minnesota and Texas realized that these fires could also be helpful. The bison in the area seemed to prefer grazing on tender new grass on the recently burned land rather than on grass in the unburned areas. The American Indian people began to deliberately burn areas of land for bison to graze on, which enticed the herds away from the people’s crops.

Today conservationists at the Tallgrass Prairie Preserve and farmers in the Great Plains continue to use controlled burns for land management. Intentionally burning a portion of land can dramatically improve the quality of the vegetation that regrows there. The fires burn away weedy undergrowth and help limit the overcrowding of shrubs and trees in the burn area, creating less competition for water and nutrients. Additionally, the process of burning excess plant matter adds nitrogen, an essential element for plant growth, to the soil.

One common target of controlled burns at the preserve and the surrounding area is the invasive red cedar tree. A single red cedar tree can consume up to 40 gallons of water per day, taking this vital resource away from other plant life. These tall trees also cast shade that prevents sunlight from reaching the plants beneath them. The fast-growing red cedar trees tend to crowd out prairie grasses, the primary food source for wild and domestic animals that make the prairie their home. An imbalance in one component of the prairie’s ecosystem affects the entire web of life. Controlled burns help maintain this ecosystem’s delicate balance.

Of course, these controlled fires are intended to burn only a portion of an area. A total burn, which is a risk with an uncontrolled wildfire, would destroy all wildlife as well as the crops farmers plant for income. The key to using controlled fires is knowing which areas of land to burn and when. Conservation experts at the preserve employ the “patch-burn” approach, meaning they rotate which portion of land is burned each year. They study the land to find out which areas would most benefit from being burned, and then they arrange about a dozen burns over one-third of the land. This patch burning contains the fire within a specific area and allows animals in the burn area to safely relocate. The following year, conservationists will burn a different section of the preserve, while the land burned the previous year regrows healthier than before.

Researchers have tracked and studied the variety of plant species and animals that live on the preserve, and their studies show that the patch-burn approach has restored biodiversity to the area by promoting the growth of species that were at risk of being crowded out. The patch-burn system is so successful that the conservationists at the preserve provide training to prairie farmers about conducting controlled burns on their own land. Burning land to make it healthy may seem counterintuitive, but strategic controlled fires have helped the prairie sustain life for hundreds of years and, with careful management, will continue to do so.

Boxed diagram titled “OVERVIEW OF THE PATCH-BURN METHOD,” introduced by the text “By using a patch-burn method, conservationists and farmers can reduce the risk of unintentional fires and control where grazing animals, such as bison, roam.” Below it, a map of one stretch of land is divided by a branching stream, labeled Stream, into three shaded areas: a dark Unburned Area across the top, a medium gray Previously Burned Area on the left, and a light gray Recently Burned Area on the lower right, where eight bison stand. Three captions under the map read “The unburned area is overrun with weeds and has the greatest risk of catching fire,” “The previously burned area is cleared of weeds, and young trees and crops grow freely and thrive,” and “The recently burned area has been cleared of all plants. Bison prefer to eat the fresh grass that will begin to grow in the recently burned area, and they will generally remain in that area until newer, fresher grass is available elsewhere.”

Question

According to the passage, how did fires started by natural causes prompt American Indians to begin practicing controlled burns?

  • Aby drawing animals in to the area to feed on the new growth sprouting from the burned land
  • Bby destroying tall trees and reducing the shade that had hindered the growth of planted crops
  • Cby burning off excess vegetation and increasing the availability of nutrients for the remaining plants
  • Dby causing changes to the bison’s migration habits as bison herds fled from the wildfires on the prairie
Show the answer

Correct answer: A

The question asks how observing the effects of the fires started by natural causes prompted American Indians to begin practicing controlled burns.

A. CORRECT. In paragraph 2, the author states that American Indians observed bison “grazing on tender new grass on the recently burned land rather than on grass in the unburned areas.” These observations prompted the practice of controlled burns as a means of enticing “the herds away from the people’s crops.”

B. Incorrect. Although the author mentions in paragraph 4 that the primary targets of a controlled burn are red cedar trees and that “these tall trees also cast shade that prevents sunlight from reaching the plants beneath them,” this detail supports why conservationists use controlled burns today, not what initially prompted the use of controlled burns.

C. Incorrect. While the author states in paragraph 3 that “the process of burning excess plant matter adds nitrogen, an essential element for plant growth, to the soil” and that “intentionally burning a portion of land can dramatically improve the quality of the vegetation that regrows there,” these details do not explain the initial observations that prompted American Indians to practice controlled burning.

D. Incorrect. While paragraph 2 mentions that bison moved to a new area to graze because they preferred the “tender new grass on the recently burned land,” there is no indication in the passage that bison changed their migration habits in order to flee wildfires.

Question analysis

This key-details question about an article on controlled burns at an Oklahoma tallgrass prairie preserve asks how fires started by lightning or other natural causes led American Indians to begin burning land on purpose. Students must find the passage's account of that early practice, and since the article describes several effects of fire, each choice has to be checked against what those first observers actually saw.

NYS standards
  • 7R1 textual evidence and inferences
  • 7R3 plot elements and ideas
Grade level
Grade 7 reading and task
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Finding a stated cause in an informational text is regular grade 7 reading. The answer sits in one short paragraph, but the article describes several effects of fire, old and new, and the choices draw on them, which keeps the demand typical.
Estimated difficulty
Straightforward: two steps or one careful reading.
Evidence
Answered from one paragraph or stanza
Reading level
Passage: about grade 11, 598 words; question and choices: about grade 9, 86 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

The stem points to one short paragraph, but the article goes on to list many more benefits of fire, and two wrong choices borrow them: shade cleared from under red cedars and nutrients returned to the soil. Both are true of controlled burns today, not of what the Great Plains peoples first noticed. Students who return to paragraph 2 and restate the bison’s taste for freshly burned grass find the answer quickly.

  1. Every choice must be checked minor Choosing the answer

    Two wrong choices name real benefits of burning from later paragraphs, cedar shade removed in paragraph 4 and nutrients freed in paragraph 3, so each must be tested against what the early peoples saw. (Embretson & Wetzel, 1987)

  2. Reading between the lines minor Working it out

    Paragraph 2 never says the bison’s grazing caused the practice; students connect “realized that these fires could also be helpful” to the preference for burned land and the deliberate burns that follow. (Graesser, Singer & Trabasso, 1994; Kintsch, 1998)

Strategy: Go to the paragraph about the Great Plains peoples of hundreds of years ago, restate in your own words what they noticed after natural fires, and test each choice against that observation.

Traps

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Working it out, step by step

  1. Figure out what the question asks

    This question asks about a cause. Long ago, fires started by lightning gave American Indians an idea. They began to burn land on purpose. You need to find what they saw that led them to do it. A controlled burn is a fire that people set and keep inside a planned area.

  2. Find the right paragraph

    Paragraph 2 tells this part of the story. It says the people “realized that these fires could also be helpful.” Then it says what they noticed: “The bison in the area seemed to prefer grazing on tender new grass on the recently burned land rather than on grass in the unburned areas.”

  3. Put it in your own words

    Grazing means eating grass. After a fire, soft new grass grew, and the bison liked it best. So the people began to burn land on purpose. The new grass pulled the herds to that land. That kept the bison away from the crops. The paragraph says the burning “enticed the herds away from the people’s crops.” Enticed means tempted or drew.

  4. Check each choice

    • A is right. The burned land drew animals, the bison, to eat the new grass.
    • B is wrong. The shade of tall trees comes from paragraph 4. It explains why people burn red cedars today, not how burning began.
    • C is wrong. Burning off weeds and adding nutrients come from paragraph 3. Nutrients are what plants need to grow. These are reasons for burning today.
    • D is wrong. The bison moved toward the fresh grass. The passage never says herds fled from fires.

    Watch out: C is true about controlled burns. But the question asks what first gave the people the idea. Paragraph 2 says it was the bison.

  5. Choose the answer

    The early people saw bison come to burned land to eat the new grass. So the answer is A: “by drawing animals in to the area to feed on the new growth sprouting from the burned land.”

Why this answer and not the closest wrong one

C is the closest wrong answer, because it names real good effects of fire. But paragraph 3 gives those as reasons people burn land “today.” The question asks how burning began hundreds of years ago. Paragraph 2 says it began when people watched bison feed on burned land.

The original DOE question
Question 29 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 42 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test B English, page 42, question 29.
The passage “Using Fire to Keep a Prairie Healthy” as printed (page 41)The passage “Using Fire to Keep a Prairie Healthy” as printed on page 41 of the DOE handbook.

Question 42 of 120

2026 Practice Test B English, question 30

Uses the passage above: “Using Fire to Keep a Prairie Healthy”.

Question

Targeting red cedar trees in controlled burns affects the animals that live on the prairie mostly by

  • Aensuring that the animals’ main food source has the conditions needed for it to thrive.
  • Bendangering the animals that live near the trees scheduled for removal.
  • Cmaking sure that the water supply for the animals is sufficient.
  • Dreducing the animals’ natural source of shade and protection from the elements.
Show the answer

Correct answer: A

The question asks how targeting red cedar trees in controlled burns affects the animals that live on the prairie.

A. CORRECT. According to information in paragraph 4, targeting invasive red cedar trees with controlled burns affects animals that live on the prairie by ensuring that these trees do not “crowd out prairie grasses, the primary food source for wild and domestic animals that make the prairie their home.” The paragraph also states that each red cedar tree consumes “up to 40 gallons of water per day, taking this vital resource away from other plant life.” Removing red cedars thus increases the amount of water available to the prairie grasses and helps maintain favorable conditions for the animals’ main source of food.

B. Incorrect. Although the author mentions the potential danger to wildlife from an uncontrolled burn in paragraph 5, the author emphasizes that patch burning “allows animals in the burn area to safely relocate.” Therefore, the animals that live near trees scheduled for removal are not endangered by the controlled burns.

C. Incorrect. In paragraph 4, the author states that “a single red cedar tree can consume up to 40 gallons of water per day, taking this vital resource away from other plant life.” However, the author does not suggest that reducing the number of red cedar trees through controlled burns ensures a sufficient water supply for animals that live on the prairie.

D. Incorrect. In paragraph 4, the author states that “these tall trees also cast shade that prevents sunlight from reaching the plants beneath them.” However, the author does not suggest that using controlled burns to eliminate red cedar trees reduces a natural source of shade for prairie animals. The red cedar trees are invasive; therefore, the author does not consider them a “natural” part of the prairie ecosystem.

Question analysis

This question asks how burning invasive red cedar trees on purpose mostly affects the wild and domestic animals that live on the Oklahoma prairie. Students follow a chain of cause and effect through the paragraph on red cedars, which describes the trees' heavy water use, their shade and their spread, and must pick out the effect that matters most to the animals.

NYS standards
  • 7R3 plot elements and ideas
  • 7R1 textual evidence and inferences
Grade level
Grade 7 reading and task
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Grade 7 readers routinely trace how one change leads to another in an informational text. This chain stays within one paragraph, but the paragraph names several things the cedars take from the prairie, and the stem's “mostly” asks for the main effect.
Estimated difficulty
Moderate: several steps, or a close reading with one strong distractor.
Evidence
Answered from one paragraph or stanza
Reading level
Passage: about grade 11, 598 words; question and choices: about grade 9, 66 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

Paragraph 4 lists three harms the red cedar does, drinking water, casting shade and crowding out grasses, and the wrong choices hand the water and the shade straight to the animals. In the text, all three harms fall on plants, and animals feel them only through the grasses they eat. Students who ask who suffers each harm see that protecting the food supply is the main effect the stem’s “mostly” asks for.

  1. Reading between the lines moderate Working it out

    Paragraph 4 never names an effect on animals; students must chain the cedars crowding out “prairie grasses,” the grasses being “the primary food source,” and the burns that remove the cedars. (Graesser, Singer & Trabasso, 1994; Kintsch, 1998)

  2. Much to keep track of minor Working it out

    The paragraph names three harms at once, 40 gallons of water a day, shade over the plants below and crowding, and students must track which living things each harm reaches. (Sweller, 1988; Carpenter, Just & Shell, 1990)

  3. The right answer is reworded minor Choosing the answer

    The right choice speaks of “conditions needed for it to thrive” without naming grass or cedars, while the wrong ones repeat the paragraph’s vivid details of water and shade. (Freedle & Kostin, 1993; Kirsch & Mosenthal, 1990)

Strategy: Reread the paragraph about red cedars and list each way the trees harm the prairie, then ask which of those harms reaches the animals and which would matter to them most.

Traps

  • Twists what the text says: Uses the text's topic and ideas but changes what it says: who did it, how much, when, or why.
  • Outside knowledge: A choice is plausible in the real world but not supported by this text.

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Working it out, step by step

  1. Figure out what the question asks

    This question asks about cause and effect. People burn red cedar trees on purpose. You need to find how that mostly helps the animals. The word “mostly” means you want the biggest effect, not just any effect.

  2. Find what the red cedars do

    Paragraph 4 is about red cedars. It names three harms. First, one tree can drink “up to 40 gallons of water per day, taking this vital resource away from other plant life.” Second, the trees “cast shade that prevents sunlight from reaching the plants beneath them.” Third, they “tend to crowd out prairie grasses, the primary food source for wild and domestic animals.”

  3. Ask who each harm hurts

    Look at who loses each time. The water is taken from “other plant life.” The shade blocks light from “the plants beneath them.” The crowding pushes out prairie grasses. So every harm falls on plants. The animals feel it through the grass, because grass is their main food. Primary means main. So burning the cedars mostly helps the animals by protecting their food.

  4. Check each choice

    • A is right. The animals’ main food source is prairie grass. With the cedars gone, the grass gets water, sunlight and room to grow.
    • B is wrong. Paragraph 5 says patch burning “allows animals in the burn area to safely relocate.” Relocate means move somewhere else.
    • C is wrong. The cedars take water from plants. The passage never says the animals run short of water.
    • D is wrong. The shade blocks light from plants. The passage never calls it shelter for animals.

    Watch out: The 40 gallons of water is a striking fact, so C is tempting. But that water is taken from “other plant life.”

  5. Choose the answer

    Burning the cedars keeps the grass healthy, and the grass feeds the animals. Thrive means grow well. So the answer is A: “ensuring that the animals’ main food source has the conditions needed for it to thrive.”

Why this answer and not the closest wrong one

C is the closest wrong answer, because paragraph 4 does talk about water. But it says the cedars take water from plants, not from animals. The grass, the animals’ main food, is what suffers from all three harms. So A fits better.

The original DOE question
Question 30 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 43 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test B English, page 43, question 30.

Question 43 of 120

2026 Practice Test B English, question 31

Uses the passage above: “Using Fire to Keep a Prairie Healthy”.

Question

Read this sentence from paragraph 6.

The patch-burn system is so successful that the conservationists at the preserve provide training to prairie farmers about conducting controlled burns on their own land.

The author includes this sentence to show that

  • Athe conservationists are better qualified to lead preservation efforts than farmers are.
  • Bthe conservationists are eager to involve others in the preservation of the prairie.
  • Cthe conservationists’ efforts will restore the original beauty and biodiversity of the region.
  • Dthe conservationists’ training program should serve as a model for other conservation organizations.
Show the answer

Correct answer: B

The question asks what the author intends to show by using the second sentence in paragraph 6 in the passage.

A. Incorrect. Although the author refers to the conservationists as “experts” in paragraph 5 and states that conservationists “provide training to prairie farmers” (paragraph 6), the second sentence in paragraph 6 does not imply that the conservationists are better qualified to lead preservation efforts than farmers are. Instead, the sentence shows that conservationists believe that prairie farmers are capable of performing the controlled burns that contribute to overall conservation efforts.

B. CORRECT. The conservationists are eager to involve others in the preservation of the prairie, because “studies show that the patch-burn approach has restored biodiversity to the area by promoting the growth of species that were at risk of being crowded out” and that the process has “helped the prairie sustain life for hundreds of years” (paragraph 6). The second sentence in paragraph 6 describes how conservationists are sharing their knowledge about preservation techniques with people who live on the prairie.

C. Incorrect. Although the author points out in paragraph 6 that “studies show that the patch-burn approach has restored biodiversity to the area by promoting the growth of species that were at risk of being crowded out,” the idea that controlled burns may help restore the original biodiversity of the prairie is not the focus of the second sentence in paragraph 6, which notes only that conservationists are providing training to farmers about controlled burns.

D. Incorrect. The author mentions in paragraph 6 that the patch-burn system has been “successful” and suggests in the last sentence of the paragraph that the use of controlled burns will continue to benefit the prairie ecosystem. These details imply that this system will continue to be used and may even become more widespread. However, the second sentence in paragraph 6 merely describes a patch-burn training program that already exists and does not suggest that this program should serve as a model for other organizations.

Question analysis

This question quotes a sentence from the last paragraph of the prairie article, about the preserve's conservationists training farmers to run controlled burns on their own land, and asks why the author includes it. Students must work out what this one sentence contributes, and because every choice sounds like something a successful program might show, the test is whether the sentence itself supports it.

NYS standards
  • 7R5 structure and genre features
Grade level
Grade 7 reading and task
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Explaining why an author includes a sentence is everyday grade 7 work. The sentence is short and plainly worded, and the choices stay close to the passage's ideas, so each must be measured against what the sentence itself says.
Estimated difficulty
Moderate: several steps, or a close reading with one strong distractor.
What makes it hard
Evidence
Answered from one sentence or line
Reading level
Passage: about grade 11, 598 words; question and choices: about grade 11, 89 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

Every choice reads something into one plain sentence, so the decision is how far the sentence lets a reader go. Teaching farmers to burn their own land shows a wish to spread the work, which the right choice calls eagerness to involve others. The wrong choices go further: to a ranking of experts over farmers, to restoring the region’s original beauty, or to a model for other organizations, none of which the sentence states.

  1. How, not what moderate Working it out

    The stem asks why the author includes the training sentence, so students must say what it adds after the studies of restored biodiversity, not merely restate that farmers are trained. (Anderson & Krathwohl, 2001)

  2. Reading between the lines moderate Working it out

    Nothing in the sentence calls the conservationists “eager”; that has to be read from their choosing to teach their method to farmers so that it spreads beyond the preserve. (Graesser, Singer & Trabasso, 1994; Kintsch, 1998)

Strategy: Restate the sentence in your own words, then ask what it adds to the paragraph's account of the patch-burn system's success, rejecting any choice that claims more than the sentence says.

Traps

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Working it out, step by step

  1. Figure out what the question asks

    This question asks why the author put one sentence in the passage. The sentence says the patch-burn system works so well that the preserve’s experts train farmers. You need to decide what that sentence shows, and no more.

  2. Read the sentence closely

    The sentence says “the conservationists at the preserve provide training to prairie farmers about conducting controlled burns on their own land.” Conservationists are people who work to protect nature. Conducting means carrying out. So the experts teach farmers to do the burns themselves.

  3. Decide what it shows

    Why would experts teach their method to others? Because they want more people to help. Their method works, so they share it. Then the burns can happen on farms too, not only at the preserve. That shows they want others to join in protecting the prairie. Preservation means keeping something safe and healthy.

  4. Check each choice

    • A is wrong. Teaching farmers shows trust that farmers can do it. It doesn’t say experts should lead instead of farmers.
    • B is right. Training farmers brings more people into caring for the prairie.
    • C is wrong. Restored biodiversity comes from the sentence before. Biodiversity means many kinds of living things. This sentence is about sharing the method.
    • D is wrong. The author never says other groups should copy this program.

    Watch out: The words “so successful” make D sound right. But the sentence only says the preserve trains local farmers. It doesn’t call the program a model for others.

  5. Choose the answer

    The experts share their method so farmers can help too. So the answer is B: “the conservationists are eager to involve others in the preservation of the prairie.”

Why this answer and not the closest wrong one

D is the closest wrong answer, because “so successful” sounds like high praise. But D adds an idea the sentence never states: that other groups should copy the program. B stays with what the sentence shows, experts teaching farmers so they can help.

The original DOE question
Question 31 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 44 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test B English, page 44, question 31.

Question 44 of 120

2026 Practice Test B English, question 34

Uses the passage above: “Using Fire to Keep a Prairie Healthy”.

Question

With which statement would the author most likely agree?

  • AIt is important to explain the purposes and the risks of controlled burns to the people living near a proposed burn area.
  • BIt is necessary to thoroughly examine a particular region in order to plan and execute a successful controlled burn.
  • CMonitoring animals’ reactions after a controlled burn on the prairie is a minor part of scientists’ research.
  • DConservationists should consider the helpful aspects of invasive species before executing a controlled burn.
Show the answer

Correct answer: B

The question asks with which statement the author of the passage would most likely agree.

A. Incorrect. In paragraph 5, the author states that “patch burning contains the fire within a specific area and allows animals in the burn area to safely relocate,” and paragraph 6 states that conservationists “provide [important] training to prairie farmers about conducting controlled burns on their own land.” However, the author does not explicitly take a position about the importance of explaining the purposes and the risks of controlled burns to the people living near a proposed burn area. Therefore, the evidence in the passage does not strongly suggest that the author would agree with this statement.

B. CORRECT. In paragraph 5, the author points out that conservationists “study the land to find out which areas would most benefit from being burned, and then they arrange about a dozen burns over one-third of the land” and “rotate which portion of land is burned each year” so that animals, such as bison, can “safely relocate.” Therefore, the author would most likely agree that it is necessary to thoroughly examine a particular region in order to plan and execute a successful controlled burn.

C. Incorrect. The author of the passage would be unlikely to agree that monitoring animals’ reactions after a controlled burn on the prairie is a minor part of scientists’ research. In paragraph 5, the author explains that patch burning “allows animals in the burn area to safely relocate” and that conservationists “burn a different section of the preserve” each year to ensure that animals have an abundant area to graze while other areas are being burned.

D. Incorrect. According to the information in paragraph 4, conservationists commonly target invasive red cedar trees because they are tall trees that “crowd out prairie grasses, the primary food source for wild and domestic animals that make the prairie their home.” Since the focus is on the harm that the invasive red cedar can cause, the author would be unlikely to agree that conservationists should consider the helpful aspects of invasive species before executing a controlled burn.

Question analysis

This point-of-view question asks which statement the author of the prairie-burning article would most likely agree with. Students infer the author's position from details spread through the passage, and since some choices sound like sensible advice in general, each must be traced back to what the article actually supports.

NYS standards
  • 7R6 point of view and author position
  • 7R1 textual evidence and inferences
Grade level
Grade 7 reading and task
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Inferring what an author would agree with is typical grade 7 work on point of view. The choices draw on different paragraphs, and the author's views are stated fairly plainly, so careful checking settles it without a long chain of inference.
Estimated difficulty
Straightforward: two steps or one careful reading.
Evidence
Answered from several paragraphs or stanzas
Reading level
Passage: about grade 11, 598 words; question and choices: about grade 11, 81 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

The right statement is close to a paraphrase of paragraph 5, where the experts study the land before choosing where to burn, so careful readers settle this quickly. The risk is a statement that sounds wise in general: explaining a burn’s purposes and risks to its neighbors is good practice, but the article never raises it. The other two contradict the text, which values research on animals and treats red cedars only as a harm.

  1. Every choice must be checked moderate Choosing the answer

    The statements touch different parts of the article, research in paragraph 6, invasive species in paragraph 4 and safety in general, so each must be traced to what the author says, if anything. (Embretson & Wetzel, 1987)

  2. Reading between the lines minor Working it out

    The author never gives an opinion on planning burns; agreement must be inferred from the report that experts “study the land” before arranging about a dozen burns. (Graesser, Singer & Trabasso, 1994; Kintsch, 1998)

Strategy: For each statement, find the paragraph it relates to and ask whether the author says something close to it, says the opposite, or says nothing; choose only a statement the text backs.

Traps

  • Outside knowledge: A choice is plausible in the real world but not supported by this text.
  • Twists what the text says: Uses the text's topic and ideas but changes what it says: who did it, how much, when, or why.

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Working it out, step by step

  1. Figure out what the question asks

    This question asks which statement the author would most likely agree with. The author doesn’t state an opinion on these ideas outright. So check each statement against what the passage says. Pick the one the passage backs up.

  2. Find what the author stresses

    Paragraph 5 says “The key to using controlled fires is knowing which areas of land to burn and when.” Next it says the experts “study the land to find out which areas would most benefit from being burned.” Only after that do they plan “about a dozen burns over one-third of the land.” A dozen means 12.

  3. Put it in your own words

    The author calls knowing where and when to burn “the key.” A key is the most important part. The experts study the land before they plan a single burn. So the author thinks careful study comes first. A burn works only when people know the land well.

  4. Check each choice

    • A is wrong. This sounds like good advice. But the passage never talks about warning neighbors before a burn.
    • B is right. It matches paragraph 5. The experts study the land, then plan the burns.
    • C is wrong. Paragraph 6 says researchers “tracked and studied” the animals. The author treats that research as important, not minor.
    • D is wrong. Paragraph 4 shows the invasive red cedar only as harmful. Invasive means spreading where it doesn’t belong.

    Watch out: A is tempting because it is wise in real life. But you must pick what this author would agree with, based on the passage.

  5. Choose the answer

    The author shows the experts studying the land before they plan. Execute here means carry out. So the answer is B: “It is necessary to thoroughly examine a particular region in order to plan and execute a successful controlled burn.”

Why this answer and not the closest wrong one

A is the closest wrong answer, because explaining a burn to the neighbors is sensible. But the passage never raises it. B matches what paragraph 5 actually says: the experts “study the land” before they plan the burns.

The original DOE question
Question 34 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 47 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test B English, page 47, question 34.

Question 45 of 120

2026 Practice Test B English, question 35

Uses the passage above: “Using Fire to Keep a Prairie Healthy”.

Question

How do the diagram and its text provide additional support for the topic presented in the passage?

  • Aby depicting how the landscape in a given area changes as the patch-burn method is applied
  • Bby indicating that patch-burn fires are best suited for use in areas with certain features
  • Cby revealing that the patch-burn method is used primarily on uninhabited areas of land
  • Dby comparing the size of the area burned by the patch-burn method with that of unburned areas
Show the answer

Correct answer: A

The question asks how the diagram and its text provide additional support for the topic presented in the passage.

A. CORRECT. The text of the diagram states that “by using a patch-burn method, conservationists and farmers can reduce the risk of unintentional fires and control where grazing animals, such as bison, roam.” By showing the pattern of controlled burns and the resulting bison migration in a given area, the diagram depicts how the landscape changes as the patch-burn method is applied.

B. Incorrect. Although the text mentions areas “where grazing animals, such as bison, roam,” the diagram does not depict distinctive features of the land such as trees or brush and therefore does not indicate that patch-burn fires are best suited for use in areas with certain features.

C. Incorrect. While the text mentions “grazing animals, such as bison” and the diagram shows the bison grazing in only one area, the diagram and its text do not indicate that the patch-burn method is used on uninhabited land.

D. Incorrect. While the areas of land depicted in the diagram do indicate that the sizes of the areas differ, the text provided does not compare the sizes of the areas burned by the patch-burn method with those of unburned areas or indicate that this factor is important in reducing the risk of uncontrolled fires or controlling “where grazing animals, such as bison, roam.”

Question analysis

This question asks how a diagram titled “Overview of the Patch-Burn Method,” printed with the article on controlled burns at an Oklahoma prairie preserve, supports the passage's topic. The diagram shows a stretch of land divided into three areas, each with a caption, so students must take in what the picture and its text show together and tie that to the article.

NYS standards
  • 7R1 textual evidence and inferences
  • 7R2 theme or central idea
Grade level
Grade 7 reading and task
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Explaining how a graphic adds to a text is a grade 7 skill. This diagram is simple and clearly labeled, but students must take in its three areas and captions together and match them to an abstract description, a typical demand.
Estimated difficulty
Moderate: several steps, or a close reading with one strong distractor.
Evidence
Answered from the whole text
Reading level
Passage: about grade 11, 598 words; question and choices: about grade 9, 79 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

The diagram shows three areas side by side, and the key insight is that they are one piece of land at three moments in the patch-burn cycle. Students who read it only as a map look for spatial claims instead, about land features, people or the sizes of the areas. The caption calling the unburned area “overrun with weeds” is the likeliest snare, since it sounds like advice on which land to burn.

  1. Reading a figure, table or graph moderate Understanding the question

    The diagram’s meaning is split among a map of three shaded areas, an introduction and three captions, which must be read together to see what the picture adds to the passage. (Lesh, Post & Behr, 1987; Kirsch & Mosenthal, 1990)

  2. Reading between the lines moderate Working it out

    Nothing in the diagram mentions the passing of time; students must infer that the unburned, recently burned and previously burned areas are stages the same land passes through as the burns rotate. (Graesser, Singer & Trabasso, 1994; Kintsch, 1998)

  3. How, not what minor Working it out

    The stem asks how the diagram supports the passage, a question of function, so describing what is drawn is not enough; it must be tied to the yearly rotation of paragraph 5. (Anderson & Krathwohl, 2001)

Strategy: Read the diagram's title, introduction and three captions before the choices, sum up in one sentence what the diagram shows, and check each choice against something you can actually point to in it.

Traps

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Working it out, step by step

  1. Figure out what the question asks

    This question asks how the diagram helps the passage. A diagram is a drawing that explains how something works. You need to say what it adds, not just what it shows. So read its title, its short introduction and its three captions. Captions are the short notes under a picture.

  2. Read the diagram

    The title, printed in capital letters, is “Overview of the Patch-Burn Method.” The drawing shows one stretch of land. A stream splits it into three areas, labeled “Unburned Area,” “Recently Burned Area” and “Previously Burned Area.” A herd of bison stands in the recently burned area.

  3. Read the three captions

    • The unburned area “is overrun with weeds and has the greatest risk of catching fire.”
    • The recently burned area “has been cleared of all plants.” Bison come to eat the fresh grass that grows there.
    • The previously burned area “is cleared of weeds, and young trees and crops grow freely and thrive.”

    These are three stages the same land goes through: weedy, burned, then healthy. Paragraph 5 says the experts burn a different section each year, while “the land burned the previous year regrows healthier than before.”

  4. Check each choice

    • A is right. The diagram shows land changing from weedy, to burned, to healthy as the method is used.
    • B is wrong. The captions describe each stage. They don’t say some kinds of land suit burning best.
    • C is wrong. Bison live in the drawing, and a caption mentions crops. Uninhabited means with no one living there, and nothing says that.
    • D is wrong. The areas are different sizes in the drawing. But no caption compares sizes.

    Watch out: B is tempting because “overrun with weeds” sounds like a reason to burn. But that caption describes the first stage. It is not a rule for choosing land.

  5. Choose the answer

    Depicting means showing in a picture. So the answer is A: “by depicting how the landscape in a given area changes as the patch-burn method is applied.”

Why this answer and not the closest wrong one

B is the closest wrong answer, because the weedy unburned area does sound like land that needs a fire. But the diagram gives no rules for picking land. It shows one piece of land changing, stage by stage, as the burns rotate. That is what A says.

The original DOE question
Question 35 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 48 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test B English, page 48, question 35.

Question 46 of 120

2026 Practice Test B English, question 36
Passage Letter from Brooklyn

Letter from Brooklyn

by Jacob Scheier

I can already see how this will end.
How I will grow tired of the bridge’s
steep incline, and the absent-minded tourists
wandering into the bicycle path.
The weather will turn cold.
But that all happens later.
For now it is the early edge of fall,
leaves green still while the air narrows,
is slightly crisp, almost grazing
the hair of my arm like a passing stranger,
as though the air has been forced into intimacy
by the brevity of daylight.
But when it starts darkening at 4,
this closeness, I know, will be a felt distance,
like someone drawing your attention
to their lack of intimacy.
These days I am still walking at a cathedral pace
beneath the branches bending across avenues,
brownstones like rows of lived-in chapels,
like a pop-up picture book I could have had as a child,
but didn’t. How Brooklyn makes me nostalgic
for the moment I am walking inside of.
These late afternoons filled
with a loneliness that makes me feel
distinctly myself, and an awareness
of how rare that is.

“Letter from Brooklyn” from LETTER FROM BROOKLYN: POEMS by Jacob Scheier, published by ECW Press. Copyright © 2013 by Jacob Scheier All rights reserved.

brevity: briefness
cathedral: meditative
chapels: private places of prayer or worship
nostalgic: yearning for the past

Question

How does the structure of the poem affect the poem’s meaning?

  • AThe lack of a rhyming pattern suggests that the beauty of each passing day is unique.
  • BThe lengths of the sentences represent the complexity of the thoughts being represented.
  • CThe use of complete sentences implies the speaker’s appreciation for the clear beginning and ending of each season.
  • DThe single long stanza reflects the continuous flow of the speaker’s thoughts.
Show the answer

Correct answer: D

The question asks how the structure of the poem affects its meaning.

A. Incorrect. Though the poem lacks a rhyming pattern, such a structure is not related to the uniqueness of the passing days. The speaker is savoring “the early edge of fall” (line 7) and describes walks taken on “these days” (line 17), but the beauty the speaker appreciates is attributed to the fall season rather than to a unique day. Further, the poem is primarily concerned with broad seasonal shifts, not the passing of each day, and the absence of rhyme does not suggest that each day is unique in its beauty.

B. Incorrect. The poem includes both long sentences (such as the one in lines 7–12) and short sentences (such as those in lines 5 and 6). However, the sentence lengths are not connected with the complexity of the ideas expressed.

C. Incorrect. A complete sentence serves to present the beginning and the end of a single thought, but the poem is not primarily concerned with the speaker’s thoughts on the “clear beginning and ending of each season.” Though it contrasts the speaker’s feelings and experiences during different seasons, the poem does not present descriptions focused specifically on the beginnings or ends of these seasons.

D. CORRECT. Unlike poems that are broken into stanzas reflecting unified groups of thoughts, this poem is one long stanza. This structure serves to emphasize the uninterrupted flow of the speaker’s thoughts from time to time and experience to experience without a clear break between any specific thoughts.

Question analysis

This poetry question asks how the structure of Jacob Scheier's “Letter from Brooklyn,” a poem about walking through the city in early fall, affects its meaning. Students must look at how the poem is built, its sentences, line breaks, stanzas and lack of rhyme, and decide which feature really shapes what the poem says.

NYS standards
  • 7R5 structure and genre features
Grade level
Grade 7 reading and task
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Grade 7 standards ask how a poem's form shapes its meaning. Here each choice names a feature of form that students must first confirm in the poem and then link to its meaning, a typical grade 7 poetry task on a short poem.
Estimated difficulty
Moderate: several steps, or a close reading with one strong distractor.
Evidence
Answered from the whole text
Reading level
Passage: 217 words (a poem; reading level not measured); question and choices: about grade 8, 70 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

Checking whether a feature exists rules out little here, since the poem is unrhymed, its sentences vary widely and it has one stanza. The decision rests on which feature matches what the speaker does: thoughts move from future to present to memory without a break. The strongest pull ties the lack of rhyme to the uniqueness of each day, which sounds like the poem’s theme of rare moments but is not something rhyme or its absence can show.

  1. How, not what moderate Working it out

    The question is about form, so students must ask what the single unbroken stanza does: it carries the speaker from the coming cold back to the present walk without a pause. (Anderson & Krathwohl, 2001)

  2. Every choice must be checked moderate Choosing the answer

    Three choices name features the poem really has, no rhyme, sentences from five words to six lines, and one stanza, so the meaning each feature is given is what separates them. (Embretson & Wetzel, 1987)

  3. Something you must already know minor Working it out

    Students must know what a stanza and a rhyming pattern are, and that a poem without stanza breaks has no white space marking separate groups of thought. (Anderson & Krathwohl, 2001)

Strategy: For each choice, first check that the poem really has the feature named, then ask whether that feature fits what the speaker is doing throughout the poem, not just in one line.

Traps

  • Wrong purpose or structure: Names a purpose, structure or effect that the part does not serve, or describes what a part says when the question asks what it does.
  • Reads too much in: A reasonable-sounding conclusion that goes further than the text allows.

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Working it out, step by step

  1. Figure out what the question asks

    This question asks how the poem’s structure shapes its meaning. Structure means how the poem is built: its stanzas, its sentences and its rhyme. A stanza is a group of lines set apart by a blank line. It is like a paragraph in a poem.

  2. Look at how the poem is built

    The poem has 26 lines and no blank lines, so it is one long stanza. The lines don’t rhyme. The sentences have many lengths. Line 5, “The weather will turn cold,” is short. The sentence in lines 7–12 runs six lines.

  3. Follow the speaker’s thoughts

    The speaker is the voice talking in the poem. Line 1 jumps ahead: “I can already see how this will end.” Line 6 comes back: “But that all happens later.” Then the speaker describes the fall air, then the walk, then a lonely feeling. One thought slides into the next with no stop. One unbroken stanza matches that steady flow.

  4. Check each choice

    • A is wrong. The poem has no rhyme. But missing rhyme can’t show that each day’s beauty is unique, or one of a kind.
    • B is wrong. The sentences do vary in length. But the poem doesn’t link long sentences to hard thoughts.
    • C is wrong. The poem isn’t about each season’s clear start and end. It describes fall just starting to turn.
    • D is right. The single stanza matches thoughts that flow on with no breaks.

    Watch out: Three choices name real features of the poem. So don’t stop at Is this true? Ask whether that feature really creates the meaning the choice gives it.

  5. Choose the answer

    Continuous means going on without stopping. So the answer is D: “The single long stanza reflects the continuous flow of the speaker’s thoughts.”

Why this answer and not the closest wrong one

A is the closest wrong answer, because the poem does praise a rare moment. But rhyme, or no rhyme, can’t show that each day is unique. One long stanza can show thoughts flowing without a stop. That is how the speaker thinks, from line 1 to line 26.

The original DOE question
Question 36 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 51 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test B English, page 51, question 36.
The passage “Letter from Brooklyn” as printed (page 50)The passage “Letter from Brooklyn” as printed on page 50 of the DOE handbook.

Question 47 of 120

2026 Practice Test B English, question 38

Uses the passage above: “Letter from Brooklyn”.

Question

Read lines 5–6 from the poem.

The weather will turn cold.
But that all happens later.

How do the lines develop a central theme of the poem?

  • AThey highlight a contrast between the different seasons.
  • BThey show the sequence of the changes that are expected to occur.
  • CThey warn about a problem that requires thoughtful preparation.
  • DThey emphasize the importance of valuing the present.
Show the answer

Correct answer: D

The question asks how lines 5–6 develop a central theme of the poem.

A. Incorrect. In this poem, the speaker describes the impressions of one day in one season: “For now it is the early edge of fall, / leaves green still while the air narrows, / is slightly crisp” (lines 7–9). Despite the reference in line 5 to the eventual arrival of cold weather, lines 5–6 primarily emphasize the speaker’s wish to stay focused on the present moment. A contrast between seasons is not a central theme of the poem.

B. Incorrect. The words “The weather will turn cold” in line 5 refer to one change that is expected to occur, but lines 5–6 do not show a sequence of changes. The line that follows returns to the present: “For now . . .” (line 7).

C. Incorrect. Although the statement that the weather “will turn cold” in line 5 could be construed as a warning, there is no support in lines 5–6 for the idea that some problems require thoughtful preparation. The speaker is reflecting on a fleeting experience, not preparing to solve a problem.

D. CORRECT. Immediately after the line “The weather will turn cold” (line 5), the speaker returns to the current moment: “But that all happens later” (line 6). These lines help develop a central theme by emphasizing the speaker’s choice to value and focus on the present moment. The “But” at the start of line 6 shows the speaker pulling back from the future and refocusing on the present, thus emphasizing the importance of savoring “the moment I am walking inside of” (line 22).

Question analysis

This theme question quotes two short lines from early in “Letter from Brooklyn,” where the speaker says the weather will turn cold, and asks how they develop a central theme of the poem. Students must work out what the pair of lines does at that point and connect it to the whole poem, since each choice describes something two lines about the future could plausibly do.

NYS standards
  • 7R2 theme or central idea
  • 7R5 structure and genre features
Grade level
Grade 7 reading and task
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Explaining how particular lines develop a poem's theme is core grade 7 work. These two lines are short and plainly worded, so the demand lies in relating them to the theme of the whole poem, which is typical.
Estimated difficulty
Moderate: several steps, or a close reading with one strong distractor.
What makes it hard
Evidence
Answered from one paragraph or stanza
Reading level
Passage: 217 words (a poem; reading level not measured); question and choices: about grade 5, 63 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

Two short, plain lines carry a theme only when read with their neighbors: the speaker forecasts cold, then dismisses it with “But that all happens later” and returns to “For now.” Students who read line 5 alone take the pair as a forecast and look for contrast, sequence or warning. The tempting contrast choice has some truth, since “But” does mark a turn, yet the turn is from future to present, not from one season to another.

  1. Reading between the lines moderate Working it out

    Line 6 never says the present matters; students infer it from “But” pulling back from the forecast and from “For now” in line 7 turning to the early fall around the speaker. (Graesser, Singer & Trabasso, 1994; Kintsch, 1998)

  2. How, not what moderate Working it out

    The stem asks how two lines develop a theme, so students must see their job, setting the future aside, rather than their content, a prediction of cold weather. (Anderson & Krathwohl, 2001)

Strategy: Read the lines just before and after lines 5–6, decide what the speaker does with the thought of cold weather, and connect that to what the poem as a whole keeps returning to.

Traps

  • Wrong purpose or structure: Names a purpose, structure or effect that the part does not serve, or describes what a part says when the question asks what it does.
  • Wrong part of the text: A choice is true of another paragraph, stanza or speaker than the one asked about.
  • Reads too much in: A reasonable-sounding conclusion that goes further than the text allows.

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Working it out, step by step

  1. Figure out what the question asks

    This question asks how lines 5–6 help build a theme. A theme is a big message about life that a poem keeps coming back to. So ask what these two lines do in the poem. Then link that to the whole poem.

  2. Read the lines in place

    Lines 1–5 look ahead. The speaker will grow tired of the bridge and the tourists, and “The weather will turn cold.” Then line 6 says, “But that all happens later.” Line 7 begins “For now it is the early edge of fall.” So the speaker thinks of the future, then pushes it aside.

  3. Put it in your own words

    “But” marks a turn. The speaker turns from later back to now. It is like saying, Sure, winter is coming, but it isn’t here yet. Then the poem spends many lines enjoying the fall walk. Line 22 speaks of “the moment I am walking inside of.” So lines 5–6 help show a big idea: enjoy the present while you have it.

  4. Check each choice

    • A is wrong. The turn is from later to now, not from one season to another. The poem doesn’t compare seasons.
    • B is wrong. Lines 5–6 name one change, cold weather, and then set it aside. That is not a sequence, or series of steps.
    • C is wrong. The speaker doesn’t get ready for the cold. The speaker simply says it “happens later.”
    • D is right. The lines push the future aside so the speaker can enjoy the present.

    Watch out: A is tempting because “But” signals a contrast. Ask what is being contrasted. It is later and now, not two seasons.

  5. Choose the answer

    Valuing means treating something as precious. So the answer is D: “They emphasize the importance of valuing the present.”

Why this answer and not the closest wrong one

A is the closest wrong answer, because line 6 does turn with “But.” Yet the turn moves from the future back to “For now.” The poem never weighs one season against another. It keeps coming back to the present moment, which is what D says.

The original DOE question
Question 38 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 53 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test B English, page 53, question 38.

Question 48 of 120

2026 Practice Test B English, question 39

Uses the passage above: “Letter from Brooklyn”.

Question

Read lines 7–9 from the poem.

For now it is the early edge of fall,
leaves green still while the air narrows,
is slightly crisp,

The word choice in the lines helps convey the speaker’s belief that

  • Athe beauty of the current season should still be appreciated.
  • Bthe changes in the weather signify the end of the most pleasant season.
  • Cthe transition from one season to another happens swiftly and without warning.
  • Dthe change in the weather is so subtle that people rarely observe or feel it.
Show the answer

Correct answer: A

The question asks what belief of the speaker is conveyed by the word choice in lines 7–9 of the poem.

A. CORRECT. Words and phrases in these lines, such as “leaves green still” and “slightly crisp,” have a positive connotation, indicating that the speaker believes in appreciating this season while it still lasts.

B. Incorrect. Although imagery such as “leaves green still” and “slightly crisp” in these lines suggests that the speaker enjoys the season, the speaker never indicates that the present season is the most pleasant of all seasons.

C. Incorrect. The phrases “the early edge of fall” and “the air narrows” in these lines imply that the season is just beginning to change, but there is no indication from these phrases that the changes will be swift and without warning. In fact, the narrowing of the air could be a warning of a greater, more gradual change in weather.

D. Incorrect. The speaker experiences the change in weather as subtle: “the air narrows, / is slightly crisp.” However, the speaker does not refer to the viewpoints of others. The entire viewpoint in the poem is personal and introspective, as represented by the use of the pronoun “I” throughout.

Question analysis

This word-choice question quotes three lines from “Letter from Brooklyn” describing the early edge of fall, when the leaves are still green and the air is slightly crisp. Students must work out what the connotations of these words reveal about the speaker's belief, and several choices mix an accurate reading of the lines with a claim they do not support.

NYS standards
  • 7R4 word meaning and choice
  • 7L5c connotation and denotation
Grade level
Grade 7 reading and task
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Explaining how word choice conveys a speaker's feelings is everyday grade 7 work. These three lines are short and concrete, but their meaning rests on the connotations of a few small words, which matches a typical grade 7 task.
Estimated difficulty
Moderate: several steps, or a close reading with one strong distractor.
Evidence
Answered from one sentence or line
Reading level
Passage: 217 words (a poem; reading level not measured); question and choices: about grade 5, 86 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

The three lines are short, and every choice builds on something real in them: a change in the weather, a season ending, subtlety. What separates the answer is the time words, “For now,” “early edge” and “still,” which say that something good is present and passing. Students lose the point by stretching a reasonable sense of loss into a claim about the best season, or by turning the speaker’s private notice into what other people miss.

  1. Figurative or literary language moderate Understanding the question

    The belief lies in connotation: “early edge of fall” and “leaves green still” mark a season only starting to turn, and “the air narrows” describes the change through an image. (Graesser, Singer & Trabasso, 1994; Kintsch, 1998)

  2. Reading between the lines minor Working it out

    “For now” at the start of line 7 signals that the moment will pass, and students must infer that the speaker values it for that reason, since no line states the belief. (Graesser, Singer & Trabasso, 1994; Kintsch, 1998)

Strategy: Mark the words in lines 7–9 that describe time and the feel of the air, decide whether each sounds positive, negative or neutral, then choose the belief that fits those connotations and nothing more.

Traps

  • Half right: One half of a two-part choice is right and the other is not.
  • Reads too much in: A reasonable-sounding conclusion that goes further than the text allows.
  • Twists what the text says: Uses the text's topic and ideas but changes what it says: who did it, how much, when, or why.

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Working it out, step by step

  1. Figure out what the question asks

    This question is about word choice. The exact words a poet picks can show feelings. You need the belief that lines 7–9 show. So look at what each word suggests, not only what it means.

  2. Mark the time words

    The lines say “For now it is the early edge of fall, / leaves green still while the air narrows, / is slightly crisp.” Notice the time words. “For now” means this won’t last. “Early edge” means fall has just begun. “Still” means the leaves have not changed color yet.

  3. Hear what the words suggest

    “Slightly crisp” means a little cool and fresh. It sounds pleasant, not harsh. When the air “narrows,” it seems to tighten and grow cooler. So the speaker enjoys this moment. The time words show the speaker knows it will pass. Put together, they say: this lovely early fall is still here, so enjoy it now.

  4. Check each choice

    • A is right. “Still” and “For now” show the season is still here to enjoy.
    • B is wrong. The speaker never calls this the most pleasant season. Nothing ranks the seasons.
    • C is wrong. “Early edge” and “slightly” describe a slow, gentle change, not a sudden one.
    • D is wrong. The change is subtle, or hard to notice. But the speaker feels it on “the hair of my arm.” The lines say nothing about other people.

    Watch out: D starts out right, because the change is gentle. But it adds a claim about other people that the lines never make.

  5. Choose the answer

    The words show a pleasant season that is still here, for now. So the answer is A: “the beauty of the current season should still be appreciated.”

Why this answer and not the closest wrong one

B is the closest wrong answer, because the poem does hint that something good is ending. But the lines never call fall the best season. They say only that this pleasant time is here “for now.” That fits A: enjoy the season while it lasts.

The original DOE question
Question 39 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 54 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test B English, page 54, question 39.

Question 49 of 120

2026 Practice Test B English, question 40

Uses the passage above: “Letter from Brooklyn”.

Question

Which idea does the comparison of the brownstone houses to “a pop-up picture book I could have had as a child, / but didn’t” in lines 20–21 convey?

  • AIt reveals that some people are still influenced by powerful images from childhood.
  • BIt indicates that the neighborhood the speaker is walking through is charming and appealing.
  • CIt suggests that the speaker has wanted to live in the neighborhood since childhood.
  • DIt suggests that people often experience lingering regret from their past.
Show the answer

Correct answer: B

The question asks what the comparison of the brownstone houses to “a pop-up picture book I could have had as a child, / but didn’t” (lines 20–21) conveys.

A. Incorrect. While the lines explain that the neighborhood reminds the speaker of images from childhood pop-up books, those images are not described as very powerful or influential.

B. CORRECT. Pop-up picture books are likely to delight a child with their unique, often beautiful representations of buildings that pop up out of the page. The comparison in these lines helps explain how the speaker views these brownstones with a childlike wonder and appreciation.

C. Incorrect. Though in these lines the speaker compares this neighborhood to scenes in children’s pop-up picture books, there is no clear evidence that the speaker wants to live there, only that the speaker appreciates its appeal.

D. Incorrect. The lines state that the speaker did not have a “pop-up picture book” of the neighborhood’s brownstones as a child, but not in a way that emphasizes regret. Rather, the speaker compares the neighborhood to images from pop-up books in general to suggest that the neighborhood looks beautiful and delightful.

Question analysis

This figurative-language question asks what idea the poem conveys by comparing Brooklyn's brownstone houses to “a pop-up picture book I could have had as a child, / but didn't.” Students must interpret a simile in context, deciding how the closing words “but didn't” fit with the rest of the comparison and with the speaker's mood during the walk.

NYS standards
  • 7R4 word meaning and choice
  • 7L5a interpreting allusions
Grade level
Grade 7 reading and task
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Interpreting a simile in a poem is routine grade 7 work. This comparison uses a familiar childhood object, and the only complication is the added “but didn't,” which invites a reading that the rest of the lines must confirm or rule out.
Estimated difficulty
Straightforward: two steps or one careful reading.
Evidence
Answered from one sentence or line
Reading level
Passage: 217 words (a poem; reading level not measured); question and choices: about grade 8, 78 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

The core of the simile is easy: a row of brownstones looks like a pop-up picture book, something charming. The difficulty is the closing “but didn’t,” which tempts students toward regret or toward a story about the speaker’s childhood. Students who ask what the comparison says about the houses, rather than about the speaker’s past, see that the lines praise the neighborhood.

  1. Figurative or literary language moderate Understanding the question

    The simile likens brownstones to a pop-up picture book, and its point, that the street looks as delightful as a child’s book, has to be drawn from what such books are like. (Graesser, Singer & Trabasso, 1994; Kintsch, 1998)

  2. Reading between the lines minor Working it out

    The tag “but didn’t” invites a reading of regret, so students must decide from the walk at a “cathedral pace” around it that the comparison is about delight, not loss. (Graesser, Singer & Trabasso, 1994; Kintsch, 1998)

Strategy: Work out what the brownstones and a pop-up picture book have in common, decide what part “but didn't” plays in the comparison, and test each choice against what the lines actually say.

Traps

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Working it out, step by step

  1. Figure out what the question asks

    This question asks about a simile. A simile compares two things using like or as. Here the speaker compares brownstones to a pop-up picture book. Brownstones are old row houses built of reddish-brown stone. You need the idea this comparison gives.

  2. Read the comparison

    Lines 19–21 say “brownstones like rows of lived-in chapels, / like a pop-up picture book I could have had as a child, / but didn’t.” A pop-up book has pictures that stand up off the page when you open it. These books often show houses and streets. Children love them.

  3. Put it in your own words

    So the street looks charming and magical, like a page in a child’s favorite book. The words “but didn’t” just mean the speaker never owned such a book. Around these lines the speaker walks at a “cathedral pace.” The glossary says cathedral means “meditative,” or calm and thoughtful. The mood is peaceful and happy, not sad.

  4. Check each choice

    • A is wrong. The lines describe how the houses look. They don’t claim childhood pictures stay powerful for people.
    • B is right. Comparing the houses to a pop-up book shows they look charming, or delightful.
    • C is wrong. The speaker never says they wanted to live there as a child.
    • D is wrong. “But didn’t” is said in passing. The speaker is enjoying the walk, not full of regret, or sorrow over the past.

    Watch out: “But didn’t” can sound sad, so D is tempting. Ask what the comparison says about the houses, not about the speaker’s past.

  5. Choose the answer

    The comparison praises how the houses look. So the answer is B: “It indicates that the neighborhood the speaker is walking through is charming and appealing.”

Why this answer and not the closest wrong one

D is the closest wrong answer, because “but didn’t” hints at something missed. But the speaker is enjoying a slow walk under the branches. The simile’s job is to show how lovely the brownstones look. That points to B, not to regret.

The original DOE question
Question 40 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 55 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test B English, page 55, question 40.

Question 50 of 120

2026 Practice Test B English, question 43
Passage The End of an Era

The End of an Era

(1) In 2004, the National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) landed a rover, or robotic vehicle, named Opportunity on the surface of Mars. (2) The rover’s mission was to search for evidence of water and life on the planet. (3) The rover was designed to gather data on Mars for about 90 days, but Opportunity’s assignment did not come to an end until nearly 15 years later in 2019.

(4) During the rover’s mission, a high-resolution camera on the rover’s robotic arm took magnified photographs of the surface of Mars. (5) The photographs revealed small round rocks scattered across the surface of the planet. (6) The scientists nicknamed these rocks “blueberries” based on the rocks’ resemblance to the fruit. (7) These rocks were important because their spherical shape suggested that liquid water may have flowed over them for a substantial amount of time.

(8) Opportunity continued to provide valuable data about craters and other surface features. (9) Throughout the mission, the rover traveled a total of 28.06 miles across Mars’ surface. (10) When Opportunity had traveled nearly the length of a marathon, scientists celebrated the accomplishment by naming the valley that the rover was in Marathon Valley. (11) However, in 2018, a dust storm spread all over the planet, putting the rover’s progress on hold.

(12) Prior to this planet-wide dust storm, minor dust storms had periodically deposited a layer of dust onto the solar panels of the rover. (13) These prevented it from charging its batteries. (14) Scientists then had to rely on the passing winds and dust devils to clean off the solar panels. (15) After the massive 2018 dust storm subsided, scientists expected to be able to reestablish communication with Opportunity. (16) They made repeated attempts but to no avail. (17) In 2019, NASA finally declared Opportunity’s mission complete.

(18) Opportunity was an important asset in scientists’ study of Mars; it returned valuable data about our neighbor planet and survived powerful dust storms. (19) NASA described the mission of Opportunity as “one of the most successful and enduring feats of interplanetary exploration.” (20) Even though this rover’s journey ended, other rovers still roam the surface of Mars.

Question

Which sentence should follow sentence 3 to best introduce the topic of the passage?

  • ADespite the challenges of operating on the surface of another planet, the Opportunity rover made many valuable contributions to the field of space research.
  • BThe Opportunity rover mission was a success because it informed NASA scientists about how water might have existed on Mars.
  • CThroughout the historic mission of the Opportunity rover, NASA scientists had to overcome challenges created by the flaws in the rover’s design.
  • DThe Opportunity rover mission surpassed the original timeline of the assignment and allowed scientists to collect additional data about the planet Mars.
Show the answer

Correct answer: A

The question asks for the sentence that should follow sentence 3 to best introduce the topic of the passage.

A. CORRECT. This sentence best introduces the passage’s topic: the Opportunity rover had many accomplishments on its mission, despite numerous challenges. Some of those accomplishments include providing high-resolution photographs (paragraph 2), traveling long distances (paragraph 3), and providing data about craters and other surface features (paragraph 3).

B. Incorrect. Although paragraph 2 discusses how photographs taken by the rover showed rocks that may have been shaped by water, this idea alone is not the topic of the entire passage.

C. Incorrect. While this sentence incorporates ideas about difficulties the scientists encountered because of the Opportunity rover’s design (paragraph 4), the main topic of the passage is not the design flaws and obstacles scientists encountered throughout the mission. The passage primarily focuses on the achievements of the mission.

D. Incorrect. While it is true that the Opportunity rover mission lasted much longer than planned (sentence 3), this fact is a supporting detail of the passage, not the main topic of the passage; surpassing the original timeline is only one of the rover’s many achievements mentioned in the passage.

Question analysis

This revising question works with “The End of an Era,” a passage about NASA's Opportunity rover on Mars, and asks which sentence should follow sentence 3 to best introduce the topic. Students must keep the whole passage in view, from the rover's photographs and travels to the dust storms that ended its mission, and judge which choice previews it best.

NYS standards
  • 7W2a introducing and organizing a topic
Grade level
Grade 7 reading and task
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Choosing a sentence that introduces a passage's topic is a standard grade 7 writing task. The passage is twenty plain sentences about one rover mission, and every choice draws on that mission, so it calls for a typical careful comparison.
Estimated difficulty
Moderate: several steps, or a close reading with one strong distractor.
Evidence
Answered from the whole text
Reading level
Passage: about grade 11, 337 words; question and choices: about grade 14, 101 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

Sentence 3 already tells a striking story, a 90-day mission that lasted nearly fifteen years, and the most tempting continuation simply repeats it in new words. The other near misses each pick one part of the passage, the water evidence or the dust problems, and make it the whole. The question rewards skimming every paragraph first and choosing the sentence that covers both the achievements and the hardships, the pairing the final paragraph makes.

  1. Evidence in several places moderate Working it out

    The topic only emerges from the later paragraphs: the “blueberries” of sentences 4–7, the 28.06 miles of paragraph 3, the dust storms of paragraph 4 and NASA’s praise in sentence 19. (Kirsch & Mosenthal, 1990; Gorin & Embretson, 2006)

  2. How sentences fit together minor Working it out

    The new sentence follows sentence 3’s surprise that a 90-day mission lasted nearly 15 years, so it must turn from that fact to what the mission achieved. (Halliday & Hasan, 1976)

Strategy: Skim the opening sentence of each later paragraph to see what the passage covers, then ask which choice would prepare a reader for all of it.

Traps

  • Too narrow: A single detail offered as the central idea or a summary, or a summary that keeps minor details and leaves out an essential part.
  • Says it twice: Repeats an idea that the sentence or passage already states.
  • Off the point: Adds or keeps something that does not support the paragraph's or the passage's focus, or an introduction or conclusion that misses the main point.

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Working it out, step by step

  1. Figure out what the question asks

    This revising question asks for a sentence to add after sentence 3. It should introduce the topic of the whole passage. A good introduction gives a preview, a quick look at everything coming. It doesn’t repeat one fact or zoom in on one part. For example, a report on a soccer season might begin: The team lost two stars but still won the title. That previews both the struggles and the wins.

  2. Skim each paragraph

    • Paragraph 2 (sentences 4–7): The rover’s camera found small round rocks that hinted at water.
    • Paragraph 3 (sentences 8–11): It sent data and traveled 28.06 miles. Then a huge dust storm stopped it.
    • Paragraph 4 (sentences 12–17): Dust had covered its solar panels before. After the 2018 storm, NASA could not reach it.
    • Paragraph 5 (sentences 18–20): It “returned valuable data about our neighbor planet and survived powerful dust storms.”
  3. Name the topic

    So the passage covers two things. One is what the rover achieved: photos, data and miles. The other is its challenges, mainly the dust storms. Challenges are hard problems. Sentence 18 puts both together. The new sentence should preview both.

  4. Check each choice

    • A is right. It names the challenges and the “many valuable contributions.” That covers the whole passage.
    • B is wrong. Water is only paragraph 2. It leaves out the travel and the dust storms.
    • C is wrong. The passage never blames flaws in the rover’s design. It mostly praises the rover.
    • D is wrong. Sentence 3 already says the mission lasted far past 90 days. D repeats it instead of looking ahead.

    Watch out: D follows sentence 3 smoothly, so it sounds right. But it only restates sentence 3 in new words.

  5. Choose the answer

    So the answer is A: “Despite the challenges of operating on the surface of another planet, the Opportunity rover made many valuable contributions to the field of space research.”

Why this answer and not the closest wrong one

D is the closest wrong answer, because it flows right after sentence 3. But it only repeats that the mission lasted longer than planned. A previews both halves of the passage: the rover’s achievements and the challenges it survived. Sentence 18 sums up the same two ideas.

The original DOE question
Question 43 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 61 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test B English, page 61, question 43.
The passage “The End of an Era” as printed (page 60)The passage “The End of an Era” as printed on page 60 of the DOE handbook.

Question 51 of 120

2026 Practice Test B English, question 46

Uses the passage above: “The End of an Era”.

Question

Read this sentence.

One of Opportunity’s major contributions was finding possible evidence of the presence of water on Mars.

Where should the sentence be added to the passage?

  • Abetween sentences 2 and 3
  • Bat the beginning of the second paragraph (before sentence 4)
  • Cat the end of the second paragraph (after sentence 7)
  • Dbetween sentences 8 and 9
Show the answer

Correct answer: B

The question asks where the sentence should be added to the passage.

A. Incorrect. While sentence 2 refers to Opportunity’s mission to search for evidence of water, sentence 3 mentions the rover lasting much longer than anticipated. Placing the sentence between these two ideas, rather than at the start of the second paragraph, where it introduces the topic of the paragraph, would create a disjointed and confusing experience for the reader.

B. CORRECT. The sentence introduces the idea of finding possible evidence of water on Mars, which is the main topic of the second paragraph.

C. Incorrect. The sentence sets up the main idea of paragraph 2, which is the possibility of water on Mars. As a concluding sentence, it would be repetitive and confusing.

D. Incorrect. The sentence introduces the possibility of water on Mars, while sentences 8 and 9 discuss other surface features and the distance traveled by the rover. Adding the sentence here would create a disorganized paragraph.

Question analysis

This organization question gives a new sentence about Opportunity's possible discovery of evidence of water on Mars and asks where it should be added to the rover passage. Students must follow the order of ideas across the first three paragraphs, because the sentence echoes ideas that appear in several places and could seem to fit more than one of them.

NYS standards
  • 7W2a introducing and organizing a topic
Grade level
Grade 7 reading and task
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Deciding where a sentence belongs is typical grade 7 revision work. The four positions span three paragraphs of a plain passage, and the sentence's wording connects to more than one of them, so the order of ideas must be checked.
Estimated difficulty
Moderate: several steps, or a close reading with one strong distractor.
What makes it hard
Evidence
Answered from several paragraphs or stanzas
Reading level
Passage: about grade 11, 337 words; question and choices: about grade 7, 52 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

The new sentence reads well in more than one place, because water comes up in sentence 2, in sentence 7 and near the “valuable data” of sentence 8. Its wording settles the matter: “One of Opportunity’s major contributions” announces a topic, so it belongs ahead of the evidence. The strongest pull places it as a closing line after sentence 7, where it restates the point the blueberries have just made.

  1. How sentences fit together moderate Working it out

    The new sentence names a contribution in general terms, so it belongs before sentence 4, where the camera and the “blueberries” supply the details, not after them. (Halliday & Hasan, 1976)

  2. A very close wrong answer moderate Choosing the answer

    The two positions in paragraph 2, before sentence 4 and after sentence 7, both keep the sentence beside the water evidence; they differ only in whether it introduces the details or sums them up. (Embretson & Wetzel, 1987; Gorin & Embretson, 2006; Ascalon et al., 2007)

Strategy: Find what the new sentence is about and where the passage discusses that, then read the sentence in each offered position and check whether it introduces, interrupts or repeats the ideas around it.

Traps

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Working it out, step by step

  1. Figure out what the question asks

    This question asks where a new sentence belongs. First find what the sentence is about. Then find where the passage talks about that. Last, decide whether the sentence should start that part, interrupt it or end it.

  2. Read the new sentence

    It says that one of Opportunity’s major contributions was “finding possible evidence of the presence of water on Mars.” It names a big idea in general terms. A sentence like that is a topic sentence. A topic sentence tells what a paragraph will be about. It usually comes first. For example, Dogs help people in many ways. comes before the details about guiding, herding and comforting.

  3. Find where water comes up

    Paragraph 2 (sentences 4–7) gives the details. The camera took close-up photos. They showed small round rocks, nicknamed “blueberries.” Sentence 7 says the rocks’ round shape “suggested that liquid water may have flowed over them.” So the new sentence should come right before these details, at the start of paragraph 2.

  4. Check each choice

    • A is wrong. Between sentences 2 and 3, it would announce the finding before the photos are described. It would also break up the facts about the mission’s length.
    • B is right. Before sentence 4, it introduces the paragraph about the round rocks and water.
    • C is wrong. After sentence 7, it would only repeat the point sentence 7 just made.
    • D is wrong. Paragraph 3 is about craters, miles and the dust storm, not water.

    Watch out: C is tempting because some paragraphs end with a summary. But sentence 7 already makes the point about water.

  5. Choose the answer

    So the answer is B: “at the beginning of the second paragraph (before sentence 4).”

Why this answer and not the closest wrong one

C is the closest wrong answer, because it keeps the sentence in the paragraph about water. But the sentence names a topic, so it works best before the details. After sentence 7, it would repeat what the blueberries just showed. Before sentence 4, it tells readers what is coming.

The original DOE question
Question 46 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 64 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test B English, page 64, question 46.

Question 52 of 120

2026 Practice Test B English, question 49

Question

Read these sentences.

(1) Flyby missions near Jupiter have been happening since 1973.

(2) Flyby missions allow scientists to collect data about Jupiter and its moons.

What is the best way to combine the sentences to clarify the relationship between the ideas?

  • AWhile flyby missions near Jupiter have been happening since 1973, scientists collect data about the planet and its moons.
  • BAlthough there have been flyby missions near Jupiter since 1973, they have allowed scientists to collect data about the planet and its moons.
  • CFlyby missions near Jupiter, which allow scientists to collect data about the planet and its moons, have been happening since 1973.
  • DFlyby missions have been happening near Jupiter, but scientists have been collecting data about the planet and its moons since 1973.
Show the answer

Correct answer: C

The question asks for the best way to combine the sentences to clarify the relationship between the ideas.

A. Incorrect. Even though the two ideas from the original sentences are incorporated into the combined sentence, the use of the conjunction “while” in the first part of the sentence suggests that there is a simultaneous but unrelated relationship between the two ideas, which is incorrect.

B. Incorrect. The combined sentence incorporates the ideas from both sentences, but the conjunction “although” suggests that scientists were allowed to collect data even though there were flyby missions, which is an inaccurate way to express the relationship between the ideas.

C. CORRECT. This sentence is the best way to combine the sentences because it accurately reflects the relationship between the ideas by using the nonrestrictive clause “which allow scientists to collect data about the planet and its moons” to describe the purpose of the flyby missions. (Nonrestrictive clauses are adjective clauses that give additional information about a word or phrase. They sometimes begin with the relative pronoun “which” and are set off by commas.) The idea that the missions “have been happening since 1973” follows the nonrestrictive clause.

D. Incorrect. The combined sentence uses the conjunction “but” to connect the ideas in the two original sentences. This suggests a contrasting relationship between ideas, which is an inaccurate way to connect the ideas expressed in the original sentences.

Question analysis

This sentence-combining question gives two short sentences about flyby missions near Jupiter, one saying they have happened since 1973 and the other that they let scientists collect data about the planet and its moons. Students choose the combination that makes the relationship between the ideas clear, weighing what each connecting word or clause says about how the facts relate.

NYS standards
  • 7L1 grammar and usage conventions
Grade level
Grade 7 reading and task
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Combining two short sentences so their relationship is clear is regular grade 7 work. Both sentences here are brief and plainly related, and the versions differ mainly in their connecting words, so this is a typical, fairly quick task.
Estimated difficulty
Straightforward: two steps or one careful reading.
Evidence
Answered from one sentence or line
Reading level
Question and choices: about grade 9, 119 words.
Corrected from the DOE handbook
  • A wrong word in the explanation of D was corrected.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

The two sentences are short, and the work lies in naming how they relate before reading the versions. The most tempting one, beginning “While,” keeps both facts but drops the word “allow,” so the missions no longer explain the data. Students who test each connector against the relationship also catch the concession in “Although” and the contrast in “but,” which also moves the date onto the data collection.

  1. How sentences fit together moderate Working it out

    Students must first name the relationship, that the missions make the data possible, a link only the version with “which allow” keeps, since the others recast it as time, concession or contrast. (Halliday & Hasan, 1976)

  2. Every choice must be checked minor Choosing the answer

    All four versions keep both facts and read smoothly, so each joining word, “While,” “Although,” “which” and “but,” has to be tested for what it claims. (Embretson & Wetzel, 1987)

Strategy: Before reading the choices, decide in a few words how the two facts are connected, then reject any version whose joining word signals a different relationship or shifts what a detail describes.

Traps

  • Wrong transition: A connecting word or phrase that signals the wrong relationship, such as contrast where the idea continues.
  • Changes the meaning: A revision is correct English but no longer says what the writer meant.

The wrong answers, classified

What was corrected from the DOE handbook, and why

  • Explanation: Rejecting D, the handbook's explanation says “but” “suggests an adverse relationship between ideas”. “Adverse” means harmful; the point is that “but” signals a contrast, which the two sentences don't have. It now says “a contrasting relationship”. The answer, C, is unchanged.

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Working it out, step by step

  1. Figure out what the question asks

    This question asks for the best way to join two sentences. The joined sentence must show how the ideas are related. So first decide how they connect. Then pick the version whose joining word shows that link.

  2. Find the relationship

    Sentence 1 says flyby missions near Jupiter “have been happening since 1973.” A flyby mission sends a spacecraft past a planet without landing. Sentence 2 says the missions “allow scientists to collect data about Jupiter and its moons.” Data means facts and measurements. So sentence 2 tells what the missions do for scientists. The ideas don’t contrast, or clash. They fit together.

  3. Learn the tool: a which clause

    A clause is a group of words with a subject and a verb. A which clause adds extra facts about a noun. Commas set it off. Example: My bike, which has red wheels, is new. The extra facts describe the bike. In C, “which allow scientists to collect data about the planet and its moons” describes the missions.

  4. Check each choice

    • A is wrong. “While” makes the two facts just happen at the same time. It drops “allow,” so the missions no longer explain the data.
    • B is wrong. “Although” means in spite of the fact that. It suggests scientists got data even though there were missions. That is backward.
    • C is right. The which clause tells what the missions do, and the date stays with the missions.
    • D is wrong. “But” signals a contrast that isn’t there. It also moves “since 1973” onto the data collecting.

    Watch out: A reads smoothly and keeps both facts. But “While” loses the link: the missions are what make the data possible.

  5. Choose the answer

    So the answer is C: “Flyby missions near Jupiter, which allow scientists to collect data about the planet and its moons, have been happening since 1973.”

Why this answer and not the closest wrong one

A is the closest wrong answer, because it keeps both facts and sounds fine. But “While” only says two things happen at once. It drops the word “allow,” which shows the missions make the data collection possible. C keeps that link with its which clause.

The original DOE question
Question 49 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 69 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test B English, page 69, question 49. This is the DOE’s version, before the corrections listed in the analysis.

Question 53 of 120

2026 Practice Test B English, question 50

Question

Which sentence in the paragraph contains an error in construction and should be revised?

(1) On the evening of July 13, 2019, a major power outage affected the Upper West Side of Manhattan in New York City. (2) Leaving approximately 73,000 residents without electricity for three long hours, lights did not function, refrigerators did not stay cold, and air conditioners did not work. (3) Longtime city residents were particularly confused because an eerily similar event had occurred years earlier—on the exact same day! (4) The famous New York City Blackout of 1977, which lasted for 25 hours, also happened on July 13, an odd coincidence to say the least.

Move the answer to the box. There is only one error in construction.

Contains an error in construction

On the test you drag one of the tiles into the box; here, choose it.

  • ASentence 1
  • BSentence 2
  • CSentence 3
  • DSentence 4
Show the answer

Correct answer: B

The question asks which sentence in the paragraph contains an error in construction.

Sentence 1: Construction is correct. An introductory prepositional phrase is correctly punctuated in sentence 1 and describes when the power outage occurred. Similarly, the direct object, “the Upper West Side of Manhattan in New York City,” is presented clearly in terms of what area was “affected” by the power outage.

Sentence 2: Contains an error in construction. In sentence 2, the phrase “Leaving approximately 73,000 residents without electricity for three long hours” is a dangling modifier because it is not clearly modifying any word or words in the sentence. It actually further describes the “power outage” in sentence 1. In clear and correct construction, all modifiers should be in the same sentence as and near the words they describe in order to avoid confusion.

Sentence 3: Construction is correct. A dash is used appropriately in sentence 3 to show a break in thought and to introduce the phrase “on the exact same day.”

Sentence 4: Construction is correct. Two commas are used correctly in sentence 4 to set off the nonessential clause “which lasted for 25 hours” from the rest of the sentence. Similarly, one comma is used to set off the nonessential appositive “an odd coincidence to say the least.” Both of these elements are nonessential to the sentence’s overall meaning and are thus correctly separated from the sentence by the use of commas.

Question analysis

This editing question gives a four-sentence paragraph about the July 13, 2019, blackout on Manhattan's Upper West Side, which fell on the same date as the famous 1977 New York City blackout. On the test students move one sentence tile into a box marked as containing an error in construction, and since the error is not named, every sentence must be checked.

NYS standards
  • 7L1 grammar and usage conventions
Grade level
Grade 7 reading and task
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Finding a sentence with a construction error in a short paragraph is typical grade 7 editing. The question does not name the kind of error, and the paragraph's dash, exclamation point and added phrases all give students something to second-guess.
Estimated difficulty
Moderate: several steps, or a close reading with one strong distractor.
Evidence
Answered from one paragraph or stanza
Reading level
Question and choices: about grade 8, 122 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

The dangling phrase is easy to accept because the reader already knows from sentence 1 what left the residents in the dark. Students who do not ask what the opening phrase describes look elsewhere, and sentence 4 is the likeliest victim, since its closing phrase about an odd coincidence seems to hang loose. The question rewards naming the subject of each sentence and checking that every added phrase belongs to it.

  1. A rule that doesn't sound wrong moderate Working it out

    The opening phrase of sentence 2, “Leaving approximately 73,000 residents without electricity,” has no word to modify; it sounds acceptable because sentence 1’s power outage supplies the missing subject. (Connors & Lunsford, 1988)

  2. Every choice must be checked moderate Choosing the answer

    The error is not named, and three sentences hold features that invite doubt: sentence 1’s date and place names, sentence 3’s dash and exclamation point, sentence 4’s two set-off phrases. (Embretson & Wetzel, 1987)

Strategy: Take the sentences one at a time: name the subject and main verb, ask what each opening or added phrase describes, and check whether each mark of punctuation has a job.

Traps

  • Fixes what isn't broken: Changes a part of the sentence that was already correct, while the real error stays; or, where the question asks which sentence has an error or should go, picks one that is correct and belongs.

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Working it out, step by step

  1. Figure out what the question asks

    This question asks which sentence is built wrong. On the test, you move one sentence tile into the box. The question doesn’t name the kind of error. So check each sentence. Find its subject, who or what the sentence is about, and its verb.

  2. Learn the rule: no dangling modifier

    A modifier is a word or phrase that describes something. An opening phrase must describe the subject right after the comma. If it can’t, it is a dangling modifier. Example: Running to the bus, my backpack fell. The backpack wasn’t running! Fix: Running to the bus, I dropped my backpack.

  3. Test sentence 2

    Sentence 2 opens with “Leaving approximately 73,000 residents without electricity for three long hours.” What did the leaving? The power outage did, but the outage is back in sentence 1. After the comma, the subject is “lights.” Lights didn’t leave people without power. So the opening phrase dangles. One fix: The outage left about 73,000 residents without electricity for three long hours. Then a new sentence lists what stopped working.

  4. Check the other sentences

    • Sentence 1 is correct. Its opening phrase tells when, and a comma sets it off. Its subject is “a major power outage,” and its verb is “affected.”
    • Sentence 3 is correct. The dash sets off “on the exact same day” for effect. The sentence is complete.
    • Sentence 4 is correct. Commas set off “which lasted for 25 hours.” The ending, “an odd coincidence to say the least,” sums up the fact before it.

    Watch out: Sentence 4 tempts many students, because its ending seems to hang loose. But it names the whole fact before it, the same date. That is allowed.

  5. Choose the answer

    Only sentence 2 has an opening phrase with nothing to describe. So the answer is B: move the tile “Sentence 2” into the box labeled “Contains an error in construction.”

Why this answer and not the closest wrong one

Sentence 4 is the closest wrong answer, because “an odd coincidence to say the least” seems loose. But it sums up the whole idea before it, which is correct. In sentence 2, the opening phrase should describe the outage. Yet the word after the comma is “lights.”

The original DOE question
Question 50 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 70 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test B English, page 70, question 50.

Question 54 of 120

2026 Practice Test B Math, question 2

Question

The list shows the results of a survey. A survey was taken to see whether students like basketball, soccer, both, or neither. These were the results:

  • 25 students like basketball.
  • 19 students like soccer.
  • 7 students like both basketball and soccer.
  • 10 students don’t like either basketball or soccer.

Use the information provided to determine how many students were surveyed and how many like only soccer.

Move the correct answer to each box.

There were students surveyed, and students like only soccer.

On the test you drag tiles into the boxes; here, choose each box’s tile from its menu. Each tile can be used once. The DOE has not published how answers with several parts are scored; this site counts one right only when every part is right.

Show the answer

Correct answer: blank 1: 47; blank 2: 12

There were 47 students surveyed, and 12 students like only soccer.

To determine how many students were surveyed, start with the total number of students who like basketball and soccer separately and subtract the number of students who were counted twice.

There were 25 students who like basketball, 19 students who like soccer, and 7 students who like both basketball and soccer.

So, the total number of students who like basketball or soccer is (25+19)−7=37(25 + 19) - 7 = 37.

Then, add the students who don’t like either basketball or soccer: 10 students don’t like either sport.

Total students surveyed: 37+10=4737 + 10 = 47

To determine how many students like only soccer, subtract the number of students who like both basketball and soccer from the total number of students who like soccer.

Students who like only soccer: 19−7=1219 - 7 = 12

Question analysis

This survey problem lists how many students like basketball, soccer, both sports or neither, and students drag number tiles into two boxes: how many were surveyed and how many like only soccer. It is a Venn diagram counting question. Keeping track of the students who like both sports, who appear in two of the listed counts, is the tricky part.

NYS standards
  • 7.SP.8b sample spaces for compound events
Grade level
Grade 7 content, by NYS standard
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Overlapping groups like these are seldom taught on their own in grade 7, though the arithmetic is simple whole-number addition and subtraction. Two results come from the same four facts, and both boxes must be right to score.
Estimated difficulty
Moderate: several steps, or a close reading with one strong distractor.
What makes it hard
Solution
4 steps
Reading level
Question and choices: about grade 6, 78 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

The arithmetic is light; the work is keeping track of one overlap that touches both answers. Students often remove the 7 for one box and not the other, and the pool holds 54 and 19, the tiles those half-finished methods produce. A sketch of two overlapping circles, with 7 in the middle, 18 and 12 beside it and 10 outside, turns both boxes into reading off the picture.

  1. Much to keep track of moderate Working it out

    The 7 students who like both sports sit inside the 25 and inside the 19, so they come out once for the total and again for only soccer, and both boxes must be right to score. (Sweller, 1988; Carpenter, Just & Shell, 1990)

  2. Turning words into math minor Understanding the question

    The list never says that the 25 basketball fans already include the 7 who like both sports, and only the word “only” in the question separates the 12 from all 19 soccer fans. (Hegarty, Mayer & Monk, 1995; Koedinger & Nathan, 2004)

Strategy: Sketch two overlapping circles, write the students who like both sports in the middle, fill each outer part by subtraction, then add every region and the students who like neither.

Traps

  • Overlapping groups: Things in two groups at once are counted twice, or not subtracted.
  • Misreads the question: Misses or misreads a condition or a word in the question: "at least", "each", "remaining", "not".

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Worked solution, step by step

Formulas used

Counting two groups that overlap
total=B+S−both+neither\text{total} = B + S - \text{both} + \text{neither}
B is the number who like basketball, and S is the number who like soccer. The students who like both are inside B and inside S, so B + S counts them twice. Subtract them once to fix that. Then add the students who like neither sport, since they are in neither group.
Only one group
only soccer=S−both\text{only soccer} = S - \text{both}
S is everyone who likes soccer, and both is the number who like both sports. Only soccer means the soccer fans who do not also like basketball. Take the both group out of the soccer group to find them.
  1. Sort out the question

    The survey gives you four facts:

    • 25 students like basketball.
    • 19 students like soccer.
    • 7 students like both sports.
    • 10 students like neither sport.

    You need two numbers. The first box is how many students were surveyed in all. The second box is how many like only soccer, which means soccer but not basketball. Each tile can be used once.

  2. See who is counted twice

    The 7 students who like both sports are part of the 25 basketball fans. They are also part of the 19 soccer fans. So if you add 25 and 19, those 7 students get counted two times.

    A Venn diagram shows this. It is a picture of two circles that overlap. The 7 go in the middle, where the circles share space.

  3. Count who likes at least one sport

    Use the overlap rule. Add the two groups, then take away the 7 who were counted twice:

    25+19−7=44−7=3725 + 19 - 7 = 44 - 7 = 37

    So 37 students like basketball, soccer or both.

  4. Add the students who like neither

    The 10 students who like neither sport are not in either group. They were still surveyed, so add them:

    37+10=4737 + 10 = 47

    So 47 students were surveyed.

    Watch out: adding 25 + 19 + 10 = 54 counts the 7 students twice. The tile 54 is waiting for that mistake.

  5. Find who likes only soccer

    The 19 soccer fans include the 7 who like basketball too. Take those 7 away:

    19−7=1219 - 7 = 12

    So 12 students like only soccer.

    Watch out: the word only matters. The tile 19 counts every soccer fan, not just the ones who like only soccer.

  6. Fill in both boxes

    On the test, you drag the tile 47 into the first box and the tile 12 into the second box. On this site, you choose each tile from its box’s menu.

    So the boxes get 47 and 12: there were 47 students surveyed, and 12 students like only soccer.

Check your answer

Split the students into four groups that do not overlap. Only basketball is 25−7=1825 - 7 = 18. Both sports is 7. Only soccer is 12. Neither is 10. Add the four groups: 18+7+12+10=4718 + 7 + 12 + 10 = 47. That matches the first box.

The original DOE question
Question 2 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 74 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test B Math, page 74, question 2.

Question 55 of 120

2026 Practice Test B Math, question 3

Question

At a diner, 18 dozen buns were used yesterday for 150 lunch customers. Today, there were 250 lunch customers. Assuming that the bun usage rate is the same for both days, which proportions can be used to determine how many dozen buns are needed for 250 lunch customers?

Select the three correct answers.

Choose every answer that is correct, then check. The DOE has not published how answers with several parts are scored; this site counts one right only when every part is right.

  • A18150=x250\frac{18}{150} = \frac{x}{250}
  • B18250=x150\frac{18}{250} = \frac{x}{150}
  • C15018=250x\frac{150}{18} = \frac{250}{x}
  • Dx18=250150\frac{x}{18} = \frac{250}{150}
  • Ex150=18250\frac{x}{150} = \frac{18}{250}
Show the answer

Correct answer: A, C, and D

The three correct answers are:

18150=x250\frac{18}{150} = \frac{x}{250}

15018=250x\frac{150}{18} = \frac{250}{x}

x18=250150\frac{x}{18} = \frac{250}{150}

Set up a proportion to compare the number of buns per customer. These are all equivalent:

18 dozen buns150 customers=x dozen buns250 customers\frac{18\text{ dozen buns}}{150\text{ customers}} = \frac{x\text{ dozen buns}}{250\text{ customers}}

To check for equivalency, solve each proportion for x.

Each of the three correct proportions simplifies to 150x=18(250)150x = 18(250).

Then solve for x to determine how many dozen buns are needed for 250 lunch customers: 150x=4,500150x = 4{,}500

x=4,500150x = \frac{4{,}500}{150}

x=30x = 30

Question analysis

A diner used 18 dozen buns for 150 lunch customers yesterday, and students select the three proportions, out of five, that can find how many dozen buns 250 customers need at the same rate. It tests setting up proportions and recognizing equivalent ones. All five equations use the same numbers, so each has to be checked for which quantities it pairs.

NYS standards
Grade level
Grade 7 content, by NYS standard
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Setting up a proportion from a rate is everyday grade 7 work. Here nothing is solved: five setups built from the same numbers must each be judged, some arranged in unfamiliar ways, and all three usable ones found.
Estimated difficulty
Moderate: several steps, or a close reading with one strong distractor.
Solution
3 steps
Reading level
Question and choices: about grade 6, 54 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

Nothing needs solving here; the question is which pairings keep the usage rate fixed. Students who check only for buns over customers on both sides find exactly three such setups, two of them wrong, and pass over the two right ones written another way. The wrong pair gives 10.8 dozen, fewer buns for more customers, which a quick sense check would catch, and cross-multiplying every setup settles all five.

  1. Every choice must be checked moderate Choosing the answer

    All five setups are built from 18, 150, 250 and x, so none can be dismissed on sight; each has to be cross-multiplied and compared with 150x = 18 × 250. (Embretson & Wetzel, 1987)

  2. A very close wrong answer moderate Choosing the answer

    The first two setups differ only in where 150 and 250 sit, 18/150 = x/250 against 18/250 = x/150, and both show buns over customers on each side, so a units check passes both. (Embretson & Wetzel, 1987; Gorin & Embretson, 2006; Ascalon et al., 2007)

  3. An answer in an unexpected form minor Choosing the answer

    One right setup puts customers over dozens of buns, and another sets today’s x over yesterday’s 18 equal to 250 customers over 150, forms that look wrong to students who learned only rate equals rate. (Enright, Morley & Sheehan, 2002)

  4. Much to keep track of minor Working it out

    Three of the five must be picked and all three must be right to score, so the verdict on each setup has to be kept until the last one is tested. (Sweller, 1988; Carpenter, Just & Shell, 1990)

Strategy: Write one proportion you trust by matching both units and days, cross-multiply it, then cross-multiply each choice and keep only those that give the same equation.

Traps

  • Misunderstands the concept: A wrong belief about a concept: that percents can be added, that area grows like length, that averages can be averaged, that a bigger denominator means a bigger fraction.
  • Answer in another form: The right answer is written differently from the way you worked it out.

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Worked solution, step by step

Formulas used

A rate
rate=dozens of bunscustomers\text{rate} = \frac{\text{dozens of buns}}{\text{customers}}
The rate is how many dozen buns are used for each customer. Yesterday it was 18 dozen over 150 customers. Today it is x dozen over 250 customers. The question says the rate is the same both days, so those two fractions are equal.
Cross-multiplying a proportion
ab=cd means a×d=b×c\frac{a}{b} = \frac{c}{d} \text{ means } a \times d = b \times c
A proportion says two fractions are equal. a and c are the tops, and b and d are the bottoms. Multiply each top by the other bottom, and the two products are equal. This turns any proportion into a plain equation, so you can compare setups that look different.
  1. Sort out the question

    Yesterday the diner used 18 dozen buns for 150 customers. Today it has 250 customers. Let x be the number of dozen buns needed today. The bun usage rate is the same both days.

    A proportion is two equal fractions. You must pick the three proportions that give the right value of x.

  2. Write one proportion you trust

    Put each day’s buns over that same day’s customers. The rates are equal, so the fractions are equal:

    18150=x250\frac{18}{150} = \frac{x}{250}

    This is choice A. Cross-multiply it:

    150×x=18×250150 \times x = 18 \times 250

    150x=4,500150x = 4{,}500

    Any choice that leads to 150x = 4,500 is a right one.

  3. Solve for x

    Divide both sides by 150 to get x by itself:

    x=4,500÷150=30x = 4{,}500 \div 150 = 30

    So the diner needs 30 dozen buns today. A wrong setup gives a different number.

  4. Test choices C and D

    Cross-multiply each one.

    • C: 15018=250x\frac{150}{18} = \frac{250}{x} gives 150×x=18×250150 \times x = 18 \times 250. That is the same equation, so C works. It is choice A with both fractions flipped.
    • D: x18=250150\frac{x}{18} = \frac{250}{150} gives x×150=18×250x \times 150 = 18 \times 250. The same equation again, so D works too.

    D compares today with yesterday. Today’s buns over yesterday’s buns equals today’s customers over yesterday’s customers.

    Watch out: D looks odd because it puts buns over buns. Do not skip it. It still keeps the rate the same.

  5. Test choices B and E

    • B: 18250=x150\frac{18}{250} = \frac{x}{150} gives 250×x=18×150250 \times x = 18 \times 150, so 250x = 2,700.
    • E: x150=18250\frac{x}{150} = \frac{18}{250} gives x×250=150×18x \times 250 = 150 \times 18, the same 250x = 2,700.

    Both give x=2,700÷250=10.8x = 2{,}700 \div 250 = 10.8. That is fewer buns for more customers, which makes no sense.

    Watch out: B and E show buns over customers, so they look right. But each one mixes up the days. B puts yesterday’s 18 dozen over today’s 250 customers. E puts today’s buns over yesterday’s 150 customers.

  6. Name the three answers

    Choices A, C and D all give 150x = 4,500, so x = 30. On the test, you check the box next to each one. So the answers are A, C and D.

Check your answer

Find the buns a second way. Today has 250150=53\frac{250}{150} = \frac{5}{3} times as many customers as yesterday. So it needs 5/3 times as many buns: 18×53=3018 \times \frac{5}{3} = 30 dozen. That matches the 30 from choices A, C and D.

The original DOE question
Question 3 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 75 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test B Math, page 75, question 3.

Question 56 of 120

2026 Practice Test B Math, question 4

Question

Maria is playing a game in which players earn points called minks, zogs, and barts.

1 mink=3 zogs1\text{ mink} = 3\text{ zogs}

1 mink=14 bart1\text{ mink} = \frac{1}{4}\text{ bart}

Maria has 60 zogs and 24 barts. She wants to exchange her zogs and barts for minks.

How many minks will Maria receive from the exchange?

Enter your answer in the space.

Fill-in question: work out the answer and type it as a number.

Show the answer

Correct answer: 116

Step 1: Convert the zogs to minks.
Since 1 mink=3 zogs1\text{ mink} = 3\text{ zogs}, divide the number of zogs Maria has by 3: 60÷3=2060 \div 3 = 20.

So, 60 zogs=20 minks60\text{ zogs} = 20\text{ minks}.

Step 2: Convert the barts to minks.
Since 1 mink=14 bart1\text{ mink} = \frac{1}{4}\text{ bart}, multiply the number of barts by 4 (because 1 bart is equal to 4 minks): 24×4=9624 \times 4 = 96.

So, 24 barts=96 minks24\text{ barts} = 96\text{ minks}.

Step 3: Add the mink conversions.
Add the results from Steps 1 and 2 to find the total number of minks Maria will receive: 20+96=11620 + 96 = 116.

Question analysis

In a game with made-up points called minks, zogs and barts, Maria trades 60 zogs and 24 barts for minks, and students type how many minks she receives. It tests unit conversion with invented units and a fraction. One rate says a mink equals a fraction of a bart, so deciding whether to multiply or divide is the tricky part.

NYS standards
  • 6.RP.3d converting measurement units
  • 6.NS.1 dividing fractions by fractions
Grade level
Grade 6 content, by NYS standard
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Converting units with a given rate is grade 6 ratio reasoning. Invented units remove any real-world sense check, and the two conversions run in opposite directions, one through a fraction, which matches the care grade 7 problems need.
Estimated difficulty
Moderate: several steps, or a close reading with one strong distractor.
Solution
3 steps
Reading level
Question and choices: about grade 2, 47 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

Each step is one multiplication, division or addition; the risk is direction. The two rates point opposite ways, three zogs to a mink but four minks to a bart, and the fraction in the second rate invites dividing by 4. Asking of each unit whether one of it is worth more or less than a mink fixes the direction before any arithmetic, and it also shows why the 60 and the 24 can never simply be added.

  1. Turning words into math moderate Understanding the question

    Both rates put the mink on the left, so “1 mink = 1/4 bart” has to be turned around into 1 bart = 4 minks, and the invented units give no sense of which is worth more. (Hegarty, Mayer & Monk, 1995; Koedinger & Nathan, 2004)

  2. Many steps minor Working it out

    Two conversions run in opposite directions, dividing the zogs by 3 and multiplying the barts by 4, and their results are added, so a slip in either step changes the total. (Daniel & Embretson, 2010; Enright, Morley & Sheehan, 2002)

  3. An answer in an unexpected form minor Choosing the answer

    The total is typed into a box with no choices to compare, so a conversion done the wrong way still produces a believable whole number that nothing on screen questions. (Enright, Morley & Sheehan, 2002)

Strategy: For each kind of point, decide whether one of it is worth more or less than a mink, then multiply or divide to turn it into minks, and add the two results.

Traps

  • Wrong operation: Adds instead of multiplying, divides the wrong way round, turns a ratio or rate upside down, or undoes a step in the wrong direction (subtracts what should be added back).
  • Units or scale: The answer is wanted in other units, or a rate or scale must be converted first.

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Worked solution, step by step

Formulas used

Converting with a rate
minks=number of points×minks for one point\text{minks} = \text{number of points} \times \text{minks for one point}
Number of points is how many zogs or barts Maria has. Minks for one point is what one zog, or one bart, is worth in minks. Find that worth first for each kind of point. Then multiply, because every point of the same kind trades for the same number of minks.
  1. Sort out the question

    Maria trades two kinds of points for minks. You know:

    • 3 zogs trade for 1 mink.
    • 1 mink is worth 14\frac{1}{4} of a bart.
    • Maria has 60 zogs and 24 barts.

    You need the total number of minks. Zogs and barts are different units, like dimes and dollars. So you cannot just add them.

    Watch out: 60 + 24 = 84 adds zogs to barts. That is not a number of minks.

  2. Find what one zog is worth

    It takes 3 zogs to make 1 mink. So one zog is only part of a mink. One zog is worth 13\frac{1}{3} of a mink.

    A zog is smaller than a mink. So Maria will get fewer minks than she has zogs.

  3. Turn the bart rule around

    The rule says 1 mink is 14\frac{1}{4} of a bart. So a mink is a quarter of a bart. It takes 4 quarters to make a whole:

    4×14=14 \times \frac{1}{4} = 1

    So 4 minks make 1 bart. One bart is worth 4 minks. A bart is bigger than a mink.

    Watch out: the fraction tempts you to divide by 4. Then 24 barts become only 6 minks, and the total is 26.

  4. Change the zogs into minks

    Use the rate. Each of the 60 zogs is worth 1/3 of a mink:

    60×13=60÷3=2060 \times \frac{1}{3} = 60 \div 3 = 20

    Multiplying by 1/3 is the same as dividing by 3. So 60 zogs trade for 20 minks.

    Watch out: multiplying 60 by 3 gives 180. That treats a zog as bigger than a mink, and the total becomes 276.

  5. Change the barts into minks

    Each of the 24 barts is worth 4 minks:

    24×4=9624 \times 4 = 96

    So 24 barts trade for 96 minks.

  6. Add the minks

    Both amounts are now in minks, so you can add them:

    20+96=11620 + 96 = 116

    Maria receives 116 minks. Type only the number in the box, with no units. So you would enter 116.

Check your answer

Work backward. 20 minks are worth 20×3=6020 \times 3 = 60 zogs. 96 minks are worth 96×14=2496 \times \frac{1}{4} = 24 barts. Both match what Maria started with. Also, a bart is worth more than a mink, so 24 barts should give many more than 24 minks. They do.

The original DOE question
Question 4 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 76 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test B Math, page 76, question 4.

Question 57 of 120

2026 Practice Test B Math, question 16

Question

Which tables represent a proportional relationship between the number of books purchased and the total cost?

Select the two correct answers.

Choose every answer that is correct, then check. The DOE has not published how answers with several parts are scored; this site counts one right only when every part is right.

  • A
    Number of Books Purchased10152025
    Total Cost ($)406080100
  • B
    Number of Books Purchased10152025
    Total Cost ($)70110150250
  • C
    Number of Books Purchased10152025
    Total Cost ($)80120160200
  • D
    Number of Books Purchased10152025
    Total Cost ($)90130170210
  • E
    Number of Books Purchased10152025
    Total Cost ($)100100100100
Show the answer

Correct answer: A and C

The two tables that represent a proportional relationship are tables A and C.

In table A, the total costs divided by the numbers of books for each set of quantities are:

4010=4; 6015=4; 8020=4; 10025=4\frac{40}{10} = 4;\ \frac{60}{15} = 4;\ \frac{80}{20} = 4;\ \frac{100}{25} = 4

These ratios are equivalent; therefore, these quantities are in a proportional relationship.

In table C, the total costs divided by the numbers of books for each set of quantities are:

8010=8; 12015=8; 16020=8; 20025=8\frac{80}{10} = 8;\ \frac{120}{15} = 8;\ \frac{160}{20} = 8;\ \frac{200}{25} = 8

These ratios are equivalent; therefore, these quantities are in a proportional relationship.

Question analysis

Five tables list the total cost of buying 10, 15, 20 and 25 books, and students select the two tables that show a proportional relationship between books and cost. It tests recognizing proportional relationships from a constant unit rate. A steady rise in cost is not enough on its own, so each pair of values has to be checked.

NYS standards
  • 7.RP.2a testing for proportionality
  • 7.RP.2b constant of proportionality
Grade level
Grade 7 content, by NYS standard
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Deciding from a table whether two quantities are proportional is a core grade 7 skill, and the divisions here are easy. The demand lies in checking every column of five tables rather than judging by how the costs change.
Estimated difficulty
Straightforward: two steps or one careful reading.
Solution
2 steps
Reading level
Question and choices: about grade 5, 51 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

The divisions are easy, so the question tests what proportional means. Three tables grow by the same amount for every 5 books, and the one with a $10 head start looks just as regular as the right one it copies; only its cost per book, drifting from $9 down to $8.40, gives it away. The flat $100 table and the one that jumps to $250 catch fewer students, and dividing the first and last column of each table is a quick, reliable check.

  1. A very close wrong answer moderate Choosing the answer

    The table running $90, $130, $170, $210 is the $80-to-$200 table with $10 added to every cost; both climb $40 for each 5 books, and only the cost per book separates them. (Embretson & Wetzel, 1987; Gorin & Embretson, 2006; Ascalon et al., 2007)

  2. Every choice must be checked minor Choosing the answer

    Five tables of four columns each have to be tested by dividing cost by books, and both right tables must be picked to score, so no table can be judged from one column. (Embretson & Wetzel, 1987)

  3. Something you must already know minor Working it out

    Students must know that proportional means the same cost per book in every column, a line through zero, not merely a cost that grows by the same amount each time. (Anderson & Krathwohl, 2001)

Strategy: Divide the total cost by the number of books in every column of each table; a table is proportional only when that cost per book stays the same all the way across.

Traps

  • Misunderstands the concept: A wrong belief about a concept: that percents can be added, that area grows like length, that averages can be averaged, that a bigger denominator means a bigger fraction.

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Worked solution, step by step

Formulas used

Cost per book
cost per book=total cost÷number of books\text{cost per book} = \text{total cost} \div \text{number of books}
This is the unit rate, the price of one book. Divide the total cost in dollars by the number of books bought. If every book has the same price, this number comes out the same in every column.
A proportional relationship
y=kxy = kx
x is the number of books, and y is the total cost in dollars. k is the cost per book, a number that never changes. In a proportional relationship, y is always k times x. So 0 books cost $0, and twice as many books cost twice as much.
  1. Sort out the question

    Each table shows the total cost of 10, 15, 20 and 25 books. Proportional means the cost per book is the same in every column. In other words, each book has one fixed price. You must pick the two tables where that is true.

  2. Test the first table

    Divide each total cost by its number of books. For table A:

    40÷10=460÷15=480÷20=4100÷25=440 \div 10 = 4 \qquad 60 \div 15 = 4 \qquad 80 \div 20 = 4 \qquad 100 \div 25 = 4

    Every column gives $4 per book. So table A is proportional.

  3. Test the other four tables

    Do the same division for every table. The numbers are dollars per book:

    Table10 books15 books20 books25 booksSame?
    A4444Yes
    B7about 7.337.5010No
    C8888Yes
    D9about 8.678.508.40No
    E10about 6.6754No

    Only tables A and C keep the same price all the way across.

  4. Watch for steady growth

    Watch out: table D climbs $40 for every 5 more books, just like table C. That steady climb looks proportional, but it is not enough. D starts $10 higher than C, so its price per book slides from $9 down to $8.40.

    Watch out: table E never changes. But $100 for 10 books is $10 each, and $100 for 25 books is $4 each. A total that stays the same is not a price that stays the same.

  5. Name the two answers

    Table A charges $4 per book and table C charges $8 per book, in every column. On the test, you check the box next to each of those tables. So the answers are A and C.

Check your answer

In a proportional table, twice the books cost twice as much. In table A, 10 books cost $40 and 20 books cost $80, which is double. In table C, $80 doubles to $160. In table D, $90 would have to double to $180, but the table shows $170. So D fails.

The original DOE question
Question 16 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 88 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test B Math, page 88, question 16.

Question 58 of 120

2026 Practice Test B Math, question 28

Question

A circle has a radius of 5 inches. What is the area of the circle in terms of π\pi?

Use π\pi to express your answer.

Enter your answer in the space provided. Enter only your answer.

On the test you build the answer on an on-screen keypad; here, type it. Use ^ for a power, sqrt( ) or √ for a root, pi for π, and <= or >= for ≤ and ≥.

Show the answer

Correct answer: 25π

Solution:

25π25\pi

The area of a circle is its radius squared times π\pi.

A=πr2A = \pi r^2

r=5r = 5

A=π(5)2A = \pi(5)^2

A=25πA = 25\pi

Question analysis

This circle question gives a radius of 5 inches and asks for the area in terms of π, typed into a box rather than chosen. Students recall and apply the formula for the area of a circle. The formula is not printed on the test, and the area and circumference formulas are easy to mix up.

NYS standards
  • 7.G.4 circle area and circumference
Grade level
Grade 7 content, by NYS standard
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Finding the area of a circle from its radius is the grade 7 circle standard applied directly, in one routine calculation. Typing the answer in terms of π, with no choices to compare, adds a little risk.
Estimated difficulty
Straightforward: two steps or one careful reading.
Solution
2 steps
Reading level
Question and choices: about grade 4, 35 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

This is one formula and one square, so the question comes down to recall and to the form of the answer. The area and circumference formulas both pair π with the radius, and 2πr gives a tidy value with π in it that looks just as right. The other losses are about form: replacing π with 3.14, which the instructions rule out twice, or dropping π after squaring 5.

  1. Something you must already know moderate Working it out

    The formula A = πr² is not printed with the question, and the circumference formula 2πr uses the same r and π, so recalling the wrong one gives a value that looks just as finished. (Anderson & Krathwohl, 2001)

  2. An answer in an unexpected form minor Choosing the answer

    The answer is built on a keypad with a π key and must keep π as a symbol; a decimal worked out with 3.14 is not accepted, and no choices show the expected form. (Enright, Morley & Sheehan, 2002)

Strategy: Recall the area formula rather than the circumference formula, square the radius before multiplying, and leave π as a symbol instead of replacing it with 3.14.

Traps

  • Wrong formula: Uses a related but wrong formula: perimeter for area, diameter for radius, area for volume, or a misremembered one.
  • A formula you must know: Needs a formula the test does not give: area, circumference, volume, probability rules.
  • Misreads the question: Misses or misreads a condition or a word in the question: "at least", "each", "remaining", "not".

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Worked solution, step by step

Formulas used

Area of a circle
A=πr2A = \pi r^2
A is the area, the space inside the circle. r is the radius, the distance from the center to the edge. π (pi) is a fixed number, a little more than 3. r² means r times r. Square the radius first, then multiply by π. The area is in square units.
Circumference of a circle
C=2πrC = 2 \pi r
C is the circumference, the distance around the circle. r is the radius, and π is the same number as above. This formula measures a length, not the space inside. It is here so you can tell the two formulas apart.
  1. Sort out the question

    The circle has a radius of 5 inches. The radius is the distance from the center to the edge. You need the area, the space inside the circle. In terms of π means π stays in the answer as a symbol. Do not change it to 3.14.

  2. Choose the area formula

    The area formula is A=πr2A = \pi r^2. It uses the radius squared.

    Watch out: the circumference formula, C=2πrC = 2\pi r, also uses π and the radius. It gives 2×π×5=10π2 \times \pi \times 5 = 10\pi, the distance around the circle in inches. That is not the area.

  3. Square the radius

    Squaring a number means multiplying it by itself:

    r2=52=5×5=25r^2 = 5^2 = 5 \times 5 = 25

    Watch out: squaring is not doubling. 5×2=105 \times 2 = 10 would lead to 10π again.

  4. Multiply by π

    Put 25 into the formula in place of r²:

    A=π×25=25πA = \pi \times 25 = 25\pi

    The area is 25π square inches. Write the number first and then π, the way you write 3x for 3 times x.

    Watch out: leave π as π. Using 3.14 gives 78.5, which is not accepted. Dropping π leaves 25, which is not the area.

  5. Enter it with the π key

    On the test, the keypad has a π key in its bottom left corner. Press 2, then 5, then the π key. You do not need a times sign. Enter only the answer, with no A = and no units. On this site, type 25π or 25pi.

    So you would enter 25π.

Check your answer

Estimate. π is a little more than 3, so 25π is a little more than 75 square inches. A square drawn around the circle is 10 inches on each side, so its area is 100 square inches. The circle fits inside that square, so its area must be less than 100. It is.

The original DOE question
Question 28 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 100 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test B Math, page 100, question 28.

Question 59 of 120

2026 Practice Test B Math, question 46

Question

Amiya subscribes to an online streaming service. She pays a onetime setup fee of $50, plus $20 per month for service.

Write an equation that can be used to determine the total amount Amiya will pay, y, for x months of service.

Enter your equation in the space provided. Enter only the equation.

On the test you build the answer on an on-screen keypad; here, type it. Use ^ for a power, sqrt( ) or √ for a root, pi for π, and <= or >= for ≤ and ≥.

Show the answer

Correct answer: y = 20x + 50

Solution: y=20x+50y = 20x + 50

An equation of the form px+q=rpx + q = r can be used to represent the total amount Amiya will pay.

Using the information from the scenario, the onetime setup fee of $50 is the constant term (q), and the $20 per month of service is the coefficient (p) of the number of months (x).

So, the equation that can be used to determine the total amount Amiya will pay, y, for x months of service is y=20x+50y = 20x + 50.

Question analysis

Amiya pays a one-time setup fee plus a monthly charge for a streaming service, and students type an equation for her total cost y after x months. It tests writing a linear equation from a word problem with a starting amount and a rate. The two dollar amounts play different roles, so which one goes with x has to be thought through.

NYS standards
  • 7.EE.4 equations and inequalities from problems
  • 6.EE.9 dependent and independent variables
Grade level
Grade 7 content, by NYS standard
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Writing an equation for a fixed fee plus a steady monthly charge is a familiar grade 7 task, and the numbers are whole. Typing the full equation, with both variables and no choices to compare, makes it less forgiving.
Estimated difficulty
Straightforward: two steps or one careful reading.
Solution
2 steps
Reading level
Question and choices: about grade 6, 51 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

The numbers are small and whole, so the work is in the roles. The $50 is paid once and the $20 every month, and a student who places them in the order they appear writes the fee as the monthly rate; others leave the fee out entirely. Checking the equation at x = 1 and x = 2, where Amiya has paid $70 and then $90, shows at once whether each amount is in the right place.

  1. Turning words into math moderate Understanding the question

    Only the words “onetime setup fee” and “per month” tell which amount is multiplied by x and which is added once, and the $50 comes first in the sentence. (Hegarty, Mayer & Monk, 1995; Koedinger & Nathan, 2004)

  2. An answer in an unexpected form minor Choosing the answer

    The whole equation, with y, an equals sign and x, is built on a keypad with no choices, so a reversed or incomplete equation looks as finished as the right one. (Enright, Morley & Sheehan, 2002)

Strategy: Work out Amiya's total for 1 month and for 2 months by hand, see which amount is added again each month, and build an equation that gives both totals.

Traps

  • Misunderstands the concept: A wrong belief about a concept: that percents can be added, that area grows like length, that averages can be averaged, that a bigger denominator means a bigger fraction.
  • Stops one step early: A choice is a number from partway through the solution.
  • Numbers taken from the question: Combines the numbers in the question without a model of the situation, or is simply a number that appears in the question.

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Worked solution, step by step

Formulas used

Total cost with a fee and a rate
y=(rate)x+(fee)y = (\text{rate})x + (\text{fee})
y is the total cost in dollars, and x is the number of months. The rate is the amount paid every month. You multiply it by x because it is paid once for each month. The fee is paid only once, so you add it once, no matter how many months.
  1. Sort out the question

    Amiya pays two kinds of charges:

    • a setup fee of $50, paid one time only;
    • a charge of $20 for every month of service.

    y is her total cost in dollars, and x is the number of months. You need an equation that links them. The answer is an equation, not a number.

  2. Work out a few totals

    Find the total for a few months by hand. Each month adds one more $20:

    MonthsMonthly charges ($)Total ($)
    11×20=201 \times 20 = 2050+20=7050 + 20 = 70
    22×20=402 \times 20 = 4050+40=9050 + 40 = 90
    33×20=603 \times 20 = 6050+60=11050 + 60 = 110

    The $50 shows up once in every total. The $20 shows up once for each month.

  3. Match each number to its job

    Use the fee-and-rate model, y=(rate)x+(fee)y = (\text{rate})x + (\text{fee}). The rate is the amount that repeats each month, $20. It multiplies the months, so it becomes 20x. The fee, $50, is paid once, so it is added once.

    Watch out: the $50 comes first in the question, but it is not the rate. y=50x+20y = 50x + 20 charges $50 a month. y=70xy = 70x charges the fee every month. y=20xy = 20x forgets the fee.

  4. Write the equation

    Put the rate and the fee into the model:

    y=20x+50y = 20x + 50

    Here 20x means 20 times x. An equal form is fine too, such as y=50+20xy = 50 + 20x, because you can add in either order.

  5. Enter it on the keypad

    Type the whole equation, including y =. Without it, you have an expression, not an equation. On the test, the keypad has x, y and = keys. Press y, =, 2, 0, x, +, 5, 0. You do not need a times sign or dollar signs. On this site, type it the same way.

    So you would enter y = 20x + 50.

Check your answer

Test the equation with the totals you found. For 1 month, y=20×1+50=70y = 20 \times 1 + 50 = 70, and Amiya pays $50 + $20 = $70. For 2 months, y=20×2+50=90y = 20 \times 2 + 50 = 90. Both match. For 0 months, y = 50, just the setup fee.

The original DOE question
Question 46 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 118 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test B Math, page 118, question 46.

Question 60 of 120

2026 Practice Test C English, question 21
Passage Bird Talk

Bird Talk

by Carl Sandburg

And now when the branches were beginning to be heavy,
It was the time when they once had said, “This is the
  beginning of summer.”
The shrilling of the frogs was not so shrill as in the
  first weeks after the broken winter;
The birds took their hops and zigzags a little more
  anxious; a home is a home; worms are worms.
The yellow spreads of the dandelions and buttercups
  reached across the green pastures.
Tee whee and tee whee came on the breezes, and the grackles
  chuzzled their syllables.
And it was the leaves with a strong soft wind over them
  that talked most of all and said more than any others
  though speaking the fewest words.
It was the green leaves trickling out the gaunt nowhere
  of winter, out on the gray hungry branches—
It was the leaves on the branches, beginning to be heavy,
  who said as they said one time before, “This is the be-
  ginning of summer.”

We shall never blame the birds who come
  where the river and the road make the Grand Crossing
  and talk there, sitting in circles talking bird talk.
If they ask in their circles as to who is here
  and as to who is not here and who used to be here,
Or if instead of counting up last year as against
  this year, they count up this year as against next
  year, and have their bird chatter about who is here
  this year who won’t be here next year,
We shall never blame the birds.

If I have put your face among leaf faces, child,
Or if I have put your voice among bird voices,
Blame me no more than the bluejays.

“Bird Talk” by Carl Sandburg—Public domain.

Question

Read lines 12–14 from the poem.

And it was the leaves with a strong soft wind over them
  that talked most of all and said more than any others
  though speaking the fewest words.

What does the phrase “talked most of all” in line 13 convey?

  • AIt establishes that the speaker thinks the sound of wind in the leaves is the best indication that the season is changing.
  • BIt introduces the idea that the sound of the wind in the leaves remains constant throughout the seasons.
  • CIt suggests that the speaker is overwhelmed by the sounds of nature that emerge as the season changes.
  • DIt emphasizes that the sounds of nature enable the speaker to appreciate each season of the year.
Show the answer

Correct answer: A

This question asks for what a phrase reveals about the speaker’s perspective on the change in seasons.

A. CORRECT. The first stanza of the poem establishes the way different parts of the natural world, including both plants and animals, respond to the change in season. These lines reflect the way the wind in the leaves is the best indication of the seasonal change because it is the wind in the leaves that “talked most of all and said more than any others / though speaking the fewest words” (lines 13–14).

B. Incorrect. Although the sound of the wind is the most obvious sign of the seasonal change per the speaker, it is in response to the “ ‘beginning of summer’ ” (line 3) that the wind speaks through the leaves. The poem does not reveal that this figurative speech occurs throughout the seasons, only that it occurs during the transition to summer.

C. Incorrect. While the language used by the speaker indicates a deep appreciation for the natural phenomenon being witnessed, the language used does not indicate a feeling of being overwhelmed but rather a feeling of awareness.

D. Incorrect. Using the personification of the wind “speaking” (line 14) indicates an appreciation by the speaker for the power and volume of the wind’s voice, but only one instance of the wind’s speech, that which occurs at the “ ‘beginning of summer’ ” (line 3), is chronicled by the speaker in the poem.

Question analysis

Students interpret the personification in lines 12–14 of “Bird Talk,” where the leaves under a strong soft wind “talked most of all,” and decide what that phrase conveys. Because the leaves also speak “the fewest words,” the line seems to contradict itself, and its meaning depends on how it fits Sandburg’s first stanza about the start of summer.

NYS standards
  • 7R4 word meaning and choice
  • 7R6 point of view and author position
Grade level
Grade 7 reading and task
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Explaining what a figurative phrase conveys about a speaker’s view is standard grade 7 work. The three lines are printed with the question, though the phrase still has to be read against the rest of the first stanza.
Estimated difficulty
Moderate: several steps, or a close reading with one strong distractor.
Evidence
Answered from one paragraph or stanza
Reading level
Passage: 296 words (a poem; reading level not measured); question and choices: about grade 6, 119 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

The phrase ranks the leaves above the shrilling frogs and chattering birds as voices of the season, but it never says what they are best at, so students must supply the idea of a sign. The tempting wrong readings take the speaker’s pleasure in nature and stretch it to every season, or hear “talked most of all” as noise. The quiet words around the phrase, “strong soft wind” and “fewest words,” point to a calm sound that tells the most.

  1. Figurative or literary language moderate Understanding the question

    The leaves are personified, and the line seems to contradict itself: they “talked most of all and said more than any others / though speaking the fewest words.” (Graesser, Singer & Trabasso, 1994; Kintsch, 1998)

  2. Reading between the lines moderate Working it out

    Students must turn “said more than any others” into a judgment, that the leaves are the surest sign of summer, which lines 17–19 confirm when the leaves themselves announce “the beginning of summer.” (Graesser, Singer & Trabasso, 1994; Kintsch, 1998)

Strategy: Restate lines 12–14 in plain words, especially the contrast between saying more and speaking fewer words, then test each choice against the whole first stanza.

Traps

  • Too broad or too strong: A choice overstates, generalizes, or uses absolute words the text does not support.
  • Wrong tone or attitude: Misjudges the tone, attitude or point of view, such as reading admiration as criticism, or taking a character's or subject's feelings for the author's.
  • Twists what the text says: Uses the text's topic and ideas but changes what it says: who did it, how much, when, or why.

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Working it out, step by step

  1. Figure out what the question asks

    This asks what a phrase conveys, or gets across. The phrase is “talked most of all” in line 13. Leaves can’t really talk. Giving a thing human actions, like talking, is called personification. You need to work out what the speaker means by saying the leaves talked the most.

  2. Read lines 12–14

    Lines 12–14 say “And it was the leaves with a strong soft wind over them / that talked most of all and said more than any others / though speaking the fewest words.” The others are the frogs and birds from earlier lines. The leaves “said more than any others,” yet they used “the fewest words.” So the quiet rustle of the leaves tells you more than all the frog and bird calls.

  3. Find what the leaves say

    The stanza ends with the leaves speaking. Lines 17–19 say it was “the leaves on the branches, beginning to be heavy,” who said “This is the beginning of summer.” So the leaves’ message is that the season has changed. The new leaves, rustling in the wind, are the clearest sign that summer has come.

  4. Check each choice

    • A fits. The leaves say the most about the season, so they are the best sign that it is changing.
    • B does not fit. The leaves have just come out of “the gaunt nowhere / of winter.” Gaunt means thin and bare. The leaves do not rustle the same way all year.
    • C does not fit. A “strong soft wind” and “the fewest words” describe a quiet sound. Nothing shows the speaker is overwhelmed, or swamped.
    • D does not fit. The poem watches only one change, the start of summer, not each season.

    Watch out: D is tempting because the speaker clearly enjoys nature’s sounds. But it stretches that to “each season of the year,” which the poem never covers.

  5. Choose the answer

    “Talked most of all” shows that the leaves tell the most about the change of season. So the answer is A, “It establishes that the speaker thinks the sound of wind in the leaves is the best indication that the season is changing.”

Why this answer and not the closest wrong one

D is the closest wrong choice. The speaker does seem to enjoy the sounds of nature. But the poem covers just one change, the turn to summer. And the phrase does more than show enjoyment. It ranks the leaves above the frogs and birds. They say the most about the change, so they are the best sign of it.

The original DOE question
Question 21 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 34 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test C English, page 34, question 21.
The passage “Bird Talk” as printed (page 32)The passage “Bird Talk” as printed on page 32 of the DOE handbook.

Question 61 of 120

2026 Practice Test C English, question 22

Uses the passage above: “Bird Talk”.

Question

How does the repetition of “ ‘This is the beginning of summer’ ” in lines 2–3 and lines 18–19 contribute to the meaning of the poem?

  • AIt suggests that the shift to summer occurs in the same way each year.
  • BIt emphasizes the idea that living things are prepared for the change of season.
  • CIt highlights the idea that the first signs of summer are surprising each year.
  • DIt builds expectations about what the natural world looks like during a change of season.
Show the answer

Correct answer: A

The question asks how the repetition of a phrase contributes to the meaning of the poem in terms of conveying information about a cyclical event.

A. CORRECT. This phrase is used twice verbatim, in both cases to show the figurative words spoken by the branches (lines 2–3) and the leaves on the branches (lines 18–19). Repetition of this phrase conveys the idea that the transition to summer occurs in the same manner each subsequent year and thus evokes the same response from nature.

B. Incorrect. While living things—branches and leaves—both make identical figurative utterances, they do so not because they have prepared for such an event. Rather, these living things take the change in stride because of the sameness and expectedness of the seasonal shifts, which occur in the same way each time.

C. Incorrect. Even though the branches and leaves have been imbued by the speaker with some degree of consciousness in their figurative ability to speak, they are not surprised by the change in seasons. They say the same thing each year because the same thing occurs each year in the same way.

D. Incorrect. Certain lines of the poem do describe the natural world during the change of seasons, such as lines 8–9: “The yellow spreads of the dandelions and buttercups / reached across the green pastures.” However, this repeated phrase serves to evoke a sense of sameness and inevitability; it is not a phrase related to the physical appearance of the natural world, only the way the natural world responds to the seasonal change with simple acceptance for its sameness. The repeated lines do not hold any sort of expectation or anticipation for the coming of summer; they help relay observations made about the state of the season.

Question analysis

This poetry question asks how the repetition of “This is the beginning of summer,” said by the branches in lines 2–3 and by the leaves in lines 18–19 of Sandburg’s “Bird Talk,” contributes to the poem’s meaning. Students must judge what the repetition does, not only what the words say, and the four choices read the repeated line in quite different ways.

NYS standards
  • 7R5 structure and genre features
  • 7R4 word meaning and choice
Grade level
Grade 7 reading and task
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Explaining what a repeated phrase adds to a poem is familiar grade 7 work. Both passages are pointed out by line number, so the task is to judge the effect of the repetition rather than to find it.
Estimated difficulty
Straightforward: two steps or one careful reading.
What makes it hard
Evidence
Answered from one paragraph or stanza
Reading level
Passage: 296 words (a poem; reading level not measured); question and choices: about grade 7, 79 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

Both quotations are pointed out, so the work is deciding what the echo adds. Students who know that repetition emphasizes may grab a choice that begins “emphasizes,” and those who hear the quoted words as a cry of discovery may pick surprise, even though that choice shares the key’s “each year.” Reading the lead-ins, “once had said” and “one time before,” settles it: the line is an old, expected announcement.

  1. How, not what moderate Working it out

    The question asks what repeating the line does for the poem, not what the line says, so students must judge an effect of structure: the same words open the first stanza and close it. (Anderson & Krathwohl, 2001)

  2. Reading between the lines minor Working it out

    The clue is in the lead-ins, “they once had said” in line 2 and “as they said one time before” in line 18, which present the announcement as words said at this point in earlier years. (Graesser, Singer & Trabasso, 1994; Kintsch, 1998)

Strategy: Reread each quoted passage together with the line that leads into it, then decide what the poet gains by having the branches and the leaves say the same words.

Traps

  • Reads too much in: A reasonable-sounding conclusion that goes further than the text allows.
  • Wrong tone or attitude: Misjudges the tone, attitude or point of view, such as reading admiration as criticism, or taking a character's or subject's feelings for the author's.
  • Wrong purpose or structure: Names a purpose, structure or effect that the part does not serve, or describes what a part says when the question asks what it does.

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Working it out, step by step

  1. Figure out what the question asks

    This asks about repetition, which means using the same words more than once. The words “This is the beginning of summer” appear in lines 2–3. They come back in lines 18–19. You need to work out what saying them twice adds to the poem’s meaning.

  2. Read the words that lead in

    Look at the words just before each quotation. Line 2 says “It was the time when they once had said.” Line 18 says the leaves “said as they said one time before.” Both lead-ins point to the past. The branches and leaves have said these words before, at this same time in other years.

  3. Work out what the repetition shows

    The same words come back, just as summer itself comes back. Each year the branches get heavy, the leaves come out, and it is summer again. The change happens the same way every time. So the repeated line works like a yearly announcement that nobody finds strange. It shows that the shift to summer follows a familiar pattern.

  4. Check each choice

    • A fits. The repeated words show summer arriving the same way each year.
    • B does not fit. Saying the words again shows that summer returns. It does not show that living things got ready for it.
    • C does not fit. Something said “one time before” is familiar, not surprising.
    • D does not fit. The line only names a time. Pictures like the yellow dandelions show how the land looks.

    Watch out: C also says “each year,” so it can look right. But the quoted words are calm, like an old saying, not a cry of surprise.

  5. Choose the answer

    The repeated line is an old announcement, made again because summer comes again. So the answer is A, “It suggests that the shift to summer occurs in the same way each year.”

Why this answer and not the closest wrong one

C is the closest wrong choice, because it also points to something that happens each year. But C says the first signs of summer are a surprise. The lead-ins say the opposite. The branches “once had said” these words, and the leaves said them “one time before.” Words said many times before are expected. They show a pattern, not a surprise.

The original DOE question
Question 22 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 35 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test C English, page 35, question 22.

Question 62 of 120

2026 Practice Test C English, question 23

Uses the passage above: “Bird Talk”.

Question

Which lines from the poem best contrast with the idea of winter’s scarcity and bleakness?

  • A“The shrilling of the frogs was not so shrill as in the / first weeks after the broken winter;” (lines 4–5)
  • B“The yellow spreads of the dandelions and buttercups / reached across the green pastures.” (lines 8–9)
  • C“Tee whee and tee whee came on the breezes, and the grackles / chuzzled their syllables.” (lines 10–11)
  • D“Or if instead of counting up last year as against / this year, they count up this year as against next” (lines 25–26)
Show the answer

Correct answer: B

The question asks for the identification of a description that contrasts with the scarcity and bleakness of winter.

A. Incorrect. These lines indicate that the frogs are first very excited about the shift from winter to spring, which causes them to make a loud “shrilling,” yet their sounds lessen after a time and grow weaker. As such, these lines contrast two periods of spring (early vs. later) and the response of the frogs to these two periods; the lines do not contrast the bleakness of winter with the abundance of spring or summer.

B. CORRECT. During winter, there is scarcity of plant life and a bleak landscape: trees lose their leaves, snow covers the ground, and nature appears dark and shuttered. In contrast, these lines reveal the bright “yellow spreads” of flowers and the verdant “green pastures” that are signs that winter has abated.

C. Incorrect. This description contrasts the sounds of “the breezes” of warmer air and the sounds made by grackles—a type of bird—rather than the bleakness and scarcity of winter and the abundance of the “ ‘beginning of summer’ ” (line 3).

D. Incorrect. These lines show the contrast between the two ways of looking at things in terms of past vs. present or present vs. future; in this instance, the lines reveal the way birds naturally expect and adapt to the passing of time and the change of seasons. The lines do not present a contrast between winter and spring.

Question analysis

This textual evidence question on Carl Sandburg’s poem “Bird Talk” asks which lines best contrast with the idea of winter’s scarcity and bleakness. Students compare four quotations about frogs, flowers, birdsong and the birds’ yearly counting, and the challenge is finding the one whose images most fully show the opposite of a bare, bleak season.

NYS standards
  • 7R1 textual evidence and inferences
  • 7R4 word meaning and choice
Grade level
Grade 7 reading and task
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Choosing lines that fit an idea is routine grade 7 evidence work. The twist is that students look for the opposite of an idea, winter’s scarcity and bleakness, rather than support for it, though the quoted images are concrete.
Estimated difficulty
Straightforward: two steps or one careful reading.
What makes it hard
Evidence
Answered from one sentence or line
Reading level
Passage: 296 words (a poem; reading level not measured); question and choices: about grade 6, 85 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

The question turns the usual evidence task around: students picture a scarce, bleak winter and then look for its opposite. The line that names winter outright is a trap, since it only compares the frogs’ noise in two stretches of spring, and the grackles’ calls show life without plenty. The flowers spreading “across the green pastures” are the one image of abundance and color.

  1. Every choice must be checked minor Choosing the answer

    Every quotation carries some sign of the season, frogs, flowers, birdsong and the birds’ yearly count, so each must be tested for images of plenty and color set against a bare winter. (Embretson & Wetzel, 1987)

  2. Hard words minor Understanding the question

    The stem’s “scarcity” and “bleakness” define what to look for; a student unsure of them cannot tell that yellow and green spreading across pastures is their opposite. (Perfetti, 2007; Freedle & Kostin, 1993)

Strategy: First picture what a scarce, bleak winter looks like, then read each quotation for images that show the plain opposite of that picture.

Traps

  • Word match: Repeats striking words or phrases from the text, so it looks supported, but its meaning does not fit the question.
  • Supports only part of the claim: In a question about evidence: a line that backs one half of the claim but not the other, or a related point rather than the claim itself.

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Working it out, step by step

  1. Figure out what the question asks

    This asks you to find lines that show the opposite of winter. Scarcity means not having enough of something. Bleakness means looking bare, cold and gloomy. So picture winter: bare branches, no flowers, gray and brown fields. Then look for the lines that show plenty and bright color instead.

  2. Read lines 8–9

    Lines 8–9 say “The yellow spreads of the dandelions and buttercups / reached across the green pastures.” Dandelions and buttercups are small yellow flowers. Pastures are grassy fields. A spread is a wide area covered with something. Here, yellow flowers stretch across green fields. That is a picture of color everywhere and plenty of growth. It is the exact opposite of a bare, gray winter.

  3. Check each choice

    • A does not fit. It mentions “the broken winter,” but it only compares how shrill, or sharp and high, the frogs sounded at two times. Nothing in it shows plenty.
    • B fits. Yellow flowers spread over green fields, full of color and life.
    • C does not fit. The birdsong shows that life is back. But it gives no picture of plenty or color to set against a bare winter.
    • D does not fit. These lines compare one year with another in the birds’ talk. There is no winter and no growth in them.

    Watch out: A is the only choice that names winter, so it can seem to fit. But mentioning winter is not the same as contrasting with it.

  4. Choose the answer

    Only lines 8–9 show plenty and bright color, the opposite of a scarce, bleak winter. So the answer is B, lines 8–9: “The yellow spreads of the dandelions and buttercups / reached across the green pastures.”

Why this answer and not the closest wrong one

C is a close wrong choice, since birdsong is a sign that life is back. But the question asks for a contrast with scarcity, or not having enough. Sounds alone do not show plenty. Lines 8–9 show flowers spreading wide across green fields. That picture of color and plenty is the clearest opposite of a bare, gray winter.

The original DOE question
Question 23 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 36 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test C English, page 36, question 23.

Question 63 of 120

2026 Practice Test C English, question 25

Uses the passage above: “Bird Talk”.

Question

Over the course of the poem, a central idea is developed mainly through the speaker’s

  • Asense of eager anticipation as winter ends.
  • Bdescription of the changes in nature as the seasons transition.
  • Cobservation of the birds’ behavior as summer begins.
  • Dprediction of future alterations in the physical landscape.
Show the answer

Correct answer: B

The question asks how the central idea about the natural acceptance of change by nature is developed by the speaker of the poem.

A. Incorrect. The speaker is an observer of the changes in nature as propelled by the seasons and shows no personal eagerness for the end of winter. Further, even though nature rejoices at the end of winter as exemplified by “the shrilling of the frogs” (line 4), the speaker merely records this and does not share in this display.

B. CORRECT. The response of nature to the “beginning of summer” (line 3) is the primary focus of the poem as revealed by the speaker through vivid descriptions of the sights, sounds, movements, and attitudes of the natural world.

C. Incorrect. The second stanza of the poem begins a reflection on birds “sitting in circles talking bird talk” (line 22) and taking a sort of attendance of who is present, but this behavioral description is largely figurative and meant to illustrate a point about the way the birds adapt quickly to change, not to develop a central idea of the poem in terms of how nature responds generally.

D. Incorrect. Seasonal changes are inevitable and cyclical per the speaker, but the speaker does not predict future changes to the landscape as a method of developing the central idea. Rather, the speaker describes nature’s response to changes that have already occurred.

Question analysis

Students decide how the speaker of Carl Sandburg’s “Bird Talk” mainly develops a central idea of the poem. The question does not name the idea, so students must work it out across the poem’s three stanzas and then weigh four accounts of what the speaker does, each tied to a different part or feature of the poem.

NYS standards
  • 7R2 theme or central idea
  • 7R1 textual evidence and inferences
Grade level
Grade 7 reading and task
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Tracing how a central idea develops is core grade 7 work. Here the idea is never stated, so students must first infer it from 32 lines of free verse and then judge what the speaker mainly does to build it.
Estimated difficulty
Moderate: several steps, or a close reading with one strong distractor.
Evidence
Answered from the whole text
Reading level
Passage: 296 words (a poem; reading level not measured); question and choices: about grade 9, 48 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

The title “Bird Talk” and the whole second stanza push students toward the birds, and the key differs from that choice only in taking in all of nature. Two other choices credit the speaker with something the poem gives elsewhere: the eagerness belongs to the frogs and birds, and the only look ahead is the birds’ talk of next year. Weighing what the speaker does across all 32 lines points to the description of nature changing.

  1. A very close wrong answer moderate Choosing the answer

    The choice about the birds’ behavior as summer begins matches the key’s frame, the speaker watching nature at the turn of the season; it differs only in narrowing nature to birds. (Embretson & Wetzel, 1987; Gorin & Embretson, 2006; Ascalon et al., 2007)

  2. Reading between the lines moderate Working it out

    The central idea is never stated, so students must first work out that the poem is about nature meeting the year’s turn calmly, then judge which of the speaker’s acts builds it most. (Graesser, Singer & Trabasso, 1994; Kintsch, 1998)

  3. Evidence in several places minor Working it out

    Birds appear in lines 6–7, 10–11, 20–29 and 31–32, so the title and the second stanza make them look central until the branches, frogs, flowers and leaves are counted too. (Kirsch & Mosenthal, 1990; Gorin & Embretson, 2006)

Strategy: Put the poem’s central idea into a sentence of your own, then ask which choice describes something the speaker really does and does the most to build that idea.

Traps

  • Too narrow: A single detail offered as the central idea or a summary, or a summary that keeps minor details and leaves out an essential part.
  • Wrong tone or attitude: Misjudges the tone, attitude or point of view, such as reading admiration as criticism, or taking a character's or subject's feelings for the author's.
  • Reads too much in: A reasonable-sounding conclusion that goes further than the text allows.

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Working it out, step by step

  1. Figure out what the question asks

    This asks how a central idea is mainly built. A central idea is a big point the whole poem makes. First, put that idea in your own words. Then ask what the speaker does most, across the whole poem, to build it.

  2. Find the central idea

    The poem shows nature at “the beginning of summer.” The branches grow heavy, the frogs quiet down, the flowers spread and the leaves come out. In stanza 2, the birds calmly count who has come and gone. A central idea is that nature moves through the seasons, and living things accept the change as natural.

  3. See how the speaker builds it

    Most of the poem is description. Stanza 1 fills 19 of the 32 lines with changes in nature. It shows “The yellow spreads of the dandelions and buttercups” and “the green leaves trickling out the gaunt nowhere / of winter.” Trickling out means coming out slowly, a little at a time. Gaunt means thin and bare. Detail by detail, the speaker shows the season turning. That description is the main way the idea is built.

  4. Check each choice

    • A does not fit. The frogs and birds are stirred up, but the speaker describes them calmly. The poem also starts after winter is over.
    • B fits. The speaker describes nature changing as the seasons turn.
    • C does not fit. Birds are only one part. The poem also covers branches, frogs, flowers and leaves.
    • D does not fit. The speaker predicts nothing about the land. The birds’ talk of next year is about who will be gone.

    Watch out: C is tempting because the poem is called “Bird Talk” and stanza 2 is all about birds. But the central idea is about all of nature.

  5. Choose the answer

    The speaker builds the idea mostly through details of nature changing as summer begins. So the answer is B, “description of the changes in nature as the seasons transition.”

Why this answer and not the closest wrong one

C is the closest wrong choice. It also has the speaker watching nature as summer begins. But it narrows nature to birds. The poem’s changes come from many living things: branches, frogs, dandelions, buttercups and leaves. Only B takes in all of them, so only B describes how the whole poem builds its idea.

The original DOE question
Question 25 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 38 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test C English, page 38, question 25.

Question 64 of 120

2026 Practice Test C English, question 26
Passage Serpent Mound

Serpent Mound

The Great Serpent Mound, located in Adams County, Ohio, is a human-made mound of earth that researchers believe was created between 300 B.C. and A.D. 1100 by an indigenous culture.

Ohio, 1846

Brush Creek stood low when the museum men came
with their measuring tapes and sketchbooks.
 It was winter. Fringed with ice,
 the creek doubled back on itself
as if it had forgotten something.
 Pa was in Cincinnati, or else on his way home,
  so Ma told me to lead the men
  into the marshy low grounds. It being winter,
    there was little underbrush to speak of—
    in the summer there would have been
  briars, poison ivy, biting flies. I listened
for the swish of a beaver’s heavy tail,
 the chitter of a chickadee, or the cry of a hawk,
 but the winter silence of the creek pressed
 down on all of us like a weight.
The humps in the ground were all but
invisible until you were right up on them. The figure
was even less obvious: the sinuous body,
 the tail coiled three times around,
 and at the other end, the mouth wide open.
  In the summer the creek bottom was crowded
  with so much life that you could trip over
    the ridges of earth before you saw
    anything at all. In winter you could climb
    a tree and get some idea of the whole thing:
  the serpent’s body undulating, slithering
silently across the ancient
 earth. At the mouth end, there was an oval mound
 as if the snake were about to swallow an egg—
as snakes sometimes did in our rickety
henhouse—my Pa always said, or
as if swallowing the sun, one of the museum
 men suggested, taking notes with his quill pen,
 an old-style inkhorn slung at his side.
 I liked that: swallowing the sun,
  just the sort of thing a snake might do,
  might want to do. When, later, I told my sister Ruth,
    she disagreed. It is singing to the sun,
    she insisted. That is why its mouth
  is wide open. She said, “Sometimes I think
I hear it on summer nights. Not swallowing, singing.”

Question

How does the poem’s form contribute to the poem’s meaning?

  • AThe use of one continuous stanza and the pattern of the lines mimic the long and winding shape of the mound.
  • BThe uneven line lengths emphasize the variety of ways people interpret the meaning of the mound.
  • CThe dashes throughout the poem highlight the speaker’s changing thoughts about the significance of the mound.
  • DThe lack of a regular rhyme scheme and meter convey that the speaker struggles to comprehend the vastness of the mound.
Show the answer

Correct answer: A

The question asks how the poem’s form contributes to the poem’s meaning.

A. CORRECT. The poem is structured as one long stanza. The line lengths throughout the poem and the line indents (such as those in lines 7–10) create a visual effect so that the poem itself mimics the shape of the Serpent Mound.

B. Incorrect. The uneven line lengths in the poem do not indicate the different interpretations of the mound; separate stanzas or other stopping points would more effectively point to contrasting ideas.

C. Incorrect. The dashes in the poem lead to further explanation of a thought, not a change of thought.

D. Incorrect. The lack of regular rhyme and meter is intended to create a conversational tone rather than show the speaker’s struggle to grasp how large the mound is.

Question analysis

This question about poetic form asks how the form of “Serpent Mound,” a poem set in 1846 at the ancient earthwork in Adams County, Ohio, contributes to its meaning. Students must consider features such as the single stanza, the uneven lines, the dashes and the lack of rhyme, and decide which feature the poem actually puts to work, and how.

NYS standards
  • 7R5 structure and genre features
Grade level
Grade 7 reading and task
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Asking how a poem’s form adds to its meaning is a grade 7 standard. Each choice names a feature that is easy to check on the page and pairs it with a meaning that must also be tested, a typical demand.
Estimated difficulty
Hard: combines ideas, needs a plan, and has more than one tempting wrong answer.
Evidence
Answered from the whole text
Reading level
Passage: 354 words (a poem; reading level not measured); question and choices: about grade 8, 84 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

Every choice names something really on the page, so the work is in the meaning each attaches. The strongest pull pairs the uneven lines with the poem’s real ending, three readings of the oval mound, and the free-verse choice can lean on line 25’s “some idea of the whole thing.” Seeing the key takes a step back from the words to the poem’s outline, which on the test means scrolling through all 41 lines.

  1. How, not what major Working it out

    This is a form question: students must see that the single stanza and the indents stepping right and back, as in lines 6–12, draw a winding body on the page, an effect of layout, not of words. (Anderson & Krathwohl, 2001)

  2. A very close wrong answer moderate Choosing the answer

    The choice about uneven line lengths names nearly the same feature as the key, the shape of the lines, but gives it another meaning: the mound’s many interpretations instead of its long, winding form. (Embretson & Wetzel, 1987; Gorin & Embretson, 2006; Ascalon et al., 2007)

  3. Something you must already know minor Working it out

    The choices assume “stanza,” “rhyme scheme” and “meter,” and the idea that a poem’s outline can picture its subject, which the poem never explains. (Anderson & Krathwohl, 2001)

Strategy: Test each choice in two steps: confirm that the feature it names is really in the poem, then ask whether the poem supports the meaning the choice attaches to it.

Traps

  • Wrong purpose or structure: Names a purpose, structure or effect that the part does not serve, or describes what a part says when the question asks what it does.
  • Reads too much in: A reasonable-sounding conclusion that goes further than the text allows.

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Working it out, step by step

  1. Figure out what the question asks

    This asks about form. Form is how a poem is built and how it looks on the page. It includes stanzas, which are groups of lines set apart by blank lines. It also includes line lengths, indents, rhyme and rhythm. An indent is space at the start of a line that pushes it to the right. You need the choice that ties a real feature of form to the poem’s meaning.

  2. Look at the shape on the page

    Don’t read the words yet. Just look. The poem is one long block of 41 lines with no blank lines. So it is one continuous stanza. Its lines do not all start at the left edge. Some are pushed in one step, some two, and some three. The steps go in and come back out, again and again.

  3. Follow the lines in and out

    Take lines 6–12. Line 6 starts one step in. Lines 7 and 8 start two steps in. Lines 9 and 10 start three steps in. Line 11 comes back to two steps, and line 12 is back at the left edge. The same swing out and back happens again in lines 19–27 and in lines 33–41. Look down the whole poem. Its left edge curves out and back like a snake winding down the page.

  4. Connect the shape to the mound

    The poem is about a giant earth mound shaped like a snake. Line 18 calls it “the sinuous body.” Sinuous means full of curves. Line 26 shows “the serpent’s body undulating, slithering.” Undulating means moving in waves. The one long stanza is like the snake’s long body. The lines curving in and out are like its winding shape. The poem looks like what it describes.

  5. Check each choice

    • A fits. The single stanza and the winding lines copy the mound’s long, curving shape.
    • B does not fit. The lines are uneven. But the different ideas about the mound come only at the end, in lines 29–41. The line lengths are not tied to them.
    • C does not fit. The dashes in lines 9, 29 and 31 lead into more detail. They do not show the speaker’s thoughts changing.
    • D does not fit. The poem has no rhyme scheme, or pattern of rhymes, and no meter, or steady beat. But the speaker never struggles to grasp how big the mound is.

    Watch out: B is tempting because both of its parts are true. But nothing links the line lengths to the different ideas about the mound.

  6. Choose the answer

    The poem’s one long stanza and its in-and-out lines draw a winding snake on the page. So the answer is A, “The use of one continuous stanza and the pattern of the lines mimic the long and winding shape of the mound.”

Why this answer and not the closest wrong one

B is the closest wrong choice. It also points to how the lines look, and the poem does give different ideas about the mound. But the uneven lines run through the whole poem, while those ideas come only at the end. The in-and-out pattern draws a shape, not a set of opinions. That shape is the mound’s long, winding body.

The original DOE question
Question 26 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 41 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test C English, page 41, question 26.
The passage “Serpent Mound” as printed (page 40)The passage “Serpent Mound” as printed on page 40 of the DOE handbook.

Question 65 of 120

2026 Practice Test C English, question 27

Uses the passage above: “Serpent Mound”.

Question

Which lines reveal how the setting affects the speaker and the men from the museum?

  • A“It being winter, / there was little underbrush to speak of—” (lines 8–9)
  • B“but the winter silence of the creek pressed / down on all of us like a weight.” (lines 14–15)
  • C“The humps in the ground were all but / invisible until you were right up on them.” (lines 16–17)
  • D“In the summer the creek bottom was crowded / with so much life that you could trip” (lines 21–22)
Show the answer

Correct answer: B

The question asks which lines reveal how the setting affects the speaker and the men from the museum.

A. Incorrect. The words “being winter” (line 8) work to establish the setting, but lines 8 and 9 do not describe the effect the winter setting has on the speaker and the men.

B. CORRECT. The imagery in lines 14 and 15 describes how the winter silence makes the speaker and the men feel emotional heaviness: it “pressed / down on all of us like a weight.”

C. Incorrect. Although the words “the humps in the ground were all but / invisible” describe how the setting appears to the speaker and the men, lines 16 and 17 do not describe how the setting affects them.

D. Incorrect. Although lines 21 and 22 do describe the setting, the lines do not describe how the setting affects the speaker and the men. The lines describe the setting in the summer, which is before the men from the museum show up.

Question analysis

This evidence question on the poem “Serpent Mound” asks which lines reveal how the setting, a creek in the Ohio winter of 1846, affects the young speaker and the museum men. All four quotations come from the poem’s description of the creek and the land around the mound, in winter and in summer, so the four choices look much alike at first glance.

NYS standards
  • 7R1 textual evidence and inferences
  • 7R3 plot elements and ideas
Grade level
Grade 7 reading and task
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 A routine grade 7 evidence task: the four quotations are short, numbered and in plain modern language. What takes care is that all of them describe the setting, while the question asks about its effect on particular people.
Estimated difficulty
Straightforward: two steps or one careful reading.
Evidence
Answered from one sentence or line
Reading level
Passage: 354 words (a poem; reading level not measured); question and choices: about grade 5, 77 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

Every quotation describes the setting, so a student who checks only for setting can defend almost any of them. The question turns on the people: only one quotation says what the place does to them, in the words “on all of us.” The summer lines tempt with someone tripping over the ridges, but they describe another season, not the winter day of the visit.

  1. Every choice must be checked moderate Choosing the answer

    All four quotations describe the creek and the land, so each must be asked whether it shows the place acting on the speaker and the men or only tells what the place is like. (Embretson & Wetzel, 1987)

  2. Figurative or literary language minor Understanding the question

    The answer is a simile, silence that “pressed / down on all of us like a weight,” and students must read the weight as a mood the winter quiet puts on the group. (Graesser, Singer & Trabasso, 1994; Kintsch, 1998)

Strategy: Paraphrase each quotation, then ask whether it shows the setting acting on the speaker and the museum men or only tells what the place is like.

Traps

  • Supports only part of the claim: In a question about evidence: a line that backs one half of the claim but not the other, or a related point rather than the claim itself.
  • True but not the answer: A choice says something accurate about the text that does not answer this question.

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Working it out, step by step

  1. Figure out what the question asks

    This asks for evidence about setting. Setting is where and when a story or poem takes place. Here it is a creek in Ohio, in winter. You need the lines that show how this place affects the speaker and the museum men. In other words, what does the place do to them or make them feel?

  2. Read the lines that mention people

    Lines 14–15 say “but the winter silence of the creek pressed / down on all of us like a weight.” The words “all of us” mean the speaker and the museum men together. This is a simile, a comparison using “like.” The quiet felt like something heavy pressing down on them. So the silent winter creek made the whole group feel heavy and gloomy.

  3. Check each choice

    • A does not fit. Lines 8–9 say there was little underbrush, or low bushes. That describes the ground, not how anyone felt.
    • B fits. The silence “pressed / down on all of us,” so the place acts on the whole group.
    • C does not fit. Lines 16–17 tell how hard the humps are to see. They describe the land, not its effect on the group.
    • D does not fit. Lines 21–22 describe the creek in summer. The museum men came in winter.

    Watch out: D says “you could trip,” which sounds like an effect on people. But it describes another season, not the day of the visit.

  4. Choose the answer

    Only lines 14–15 show the winter creek acting on the speaker and the men. So the answer is B, lines 14–15: “but the winter silence of the creek pressed / down on all of us like a weight.”

Why this answer and not the closest wrong one

C is a close wrong choice, because it has a person in it: the humps stay hidden “until you were right up on them.” But it only reports what the land looks like. B is different. The silence “pressed / down on all of us like a weight.” Only B shows the place changing how the speaker and the men feel.

The original DOE question
Question 27 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 42 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test C English, page 42, question 27.

Question 66 of 120

2026 Practice Test C English, question 29

Uses the passage above: “Serpent Mound”.

Question

Read line 28 from the poem.

At the mouth end, there was an oval mound

How does the line contribute to the development of ideas in the poem?

  • AIt describes a feature of the mound that the men from the museum need to document.
  • BIt introduces a comparison of the body of the mound with the head of the mound.
  • CIt introduces a feature of the mound that has a different meaning to different people.
  • DIt describes a part of the mound that is difficult to see from far away.
Show the answer

Correct answer: C

The question asks how line 28 contributes to the development of ideas in the poem.

A. Incorrect. Although the museum men are documenting the shape of the mound in line 33, lines 29–32 and 35–41 focus on what the oval mound represents as interpreted by the museum men, the speaker, and the speaker’s sister.

B. Incorrect. While the lines preceding line 28 describe the body of the snake in detail (“you could climb / a tree and get some idea of the whole thing: / the serpent’s body undulating, slithering / silently across the ancient / earth” [lines 24–28]), the purpose of line 28 is to begin the development of the ideas about the oval shape at the end of the mound: the serpent’s mouth.

C. CORRECT. Line 28 introduces the presence of the oval mound at the mouth of the snake. The meaning of this oval is of great interest to the museum men and the speaker. Line 28 leads to the idea that there is speculation about the oval mound (“as if the snake were about to swallow an egg” [line 29], “as if swallowing the sun” [line 32], and “It is singing to the sun” [line 38]).

D. Incorrect. The speaker does not say that the oval shape near the end of the mound is difficult to see. Earlier, the speaker says that the ridges of earth are difficult to see unless you are near them, but the speaker does not say this about the oval shape.

Question analysis

Students explain how line 28 of “Serpent Mound,” which introduces an oval mound at the serpent’s mouth end, contributes to the development of ideas in the poem. The line is a plain piece of description in a poem about museum men surveying the mound, so students must work out what part it plays in the poem as a whole.

NYS standards
  • 7R5 structure and genre features
  • 7R6 point of view and author position
Grade level
Grade 7 reading and task
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Explaining how one line contributes to a poem is standard grade 7 structure work. The line is a plain description, but its role depends on how it connects to the lines around it.
Estimated difficulty
Moderate: several steps, or a close reading with one strong distractor.
Evidence
Answered from one paragraph or stanza
Reading level
Passage: 354 words (a poem; reading level not measured); question and choices: about grade 5, 89 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

Because the museum men came to measure and sketch, a line naming a new feature looks like a note for their records, and that reading is the strong pull. Others see a comparison with the serpent’s body described just before, or carry over the earlier point about humps that are hard to see. The line’s job shows in what follows it: the oval is where Pa, a museum man and Ruth each see something different.

  1. A very close wrong answer moderate Choosing the answer

    The documenting choice and the key both say line 28 presents a feature of the mound; they differ in what follows, the men’s records or the egg, sun and singing readings in lines 29–41. (Embretson & Wetzel, 1987; Gorin & Embretson, 2006; Ascalon et al., 2007)

  2. How, not what moderate Working it out

    The line is plain description, so its role shows only in what it sets up: the oval becomes the egg, the swallowed sun and the open singing mouth that the rest of the poem weighs. (Anderson & Krathwohl, 2001)

  3. Evidence in several places minor Working it out

    The readings are spread over thirteen lines and three people, Pa in lines 29–31, a museum man in lines 32–33 and Ruth in lines 37–41, so students must gather them. (Kirsch & Mosenthal, 1990; Gorin & Embretson, 2006)

Strategy: Read line 28 together with the lines on either side of it, then test each choice against what those lines actually show.

Traps

  • True but not the answer: A choice says something accurate about the text that does not answer this question.
  • Wrong part of the text: A choice is true of another paragraph, stanza or speaker than the one asked about.
  • Wrong purpose or structure: Names a purpose, structure or effect that the part does not serve, or describes what a part says when the question asks what it does.

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Working it out, step by step

  1. Figure out what the question asks

    This asks how one line helps build the poem’s ideas. Line 28 is a plain description: “At the mouth end, there was an oval mound.” Oval means egg-shaped. To see the line’s job, look at what comes right after it.

  2. Read what follows line 28

    The next lines give three ideas about the oval mound.

    • Pa always said it was “as if the snake were about to swallow an egg,” as snakes did in the family’s henhouse (lines 29–31).
    • A museum man says “as if swallowing the sun” (line 32).
    • Ruth says “It is singing to the sun” (line 38).
  3. Name the line’s job

    Line 28 brings in the oval mound. Then each person sees something different in it: an egg, the sun being swallowed, or a song. Each idea comes from that person’s own life. Pa thinks of his henhouse. Ruth thinks of what she seems to hear on summer nights. So the line sets up a feature that means different things to different people.

  4. Check each choice

    • A does not fit. The men did come to measure and sketch. But the lines after 28 are about what the oval means, not about recording it.
    • B does not fit. Line 28 moves on from the body to the mouth. It never compares the two.
    • C fits. The oval gets three different meanings from three people.
    • D does not fit. Lines 16–17 say the humps are hard to see. The poem never says that about the oval.

    Watch out: A is tempting because the men came “with their measuring tapes and sketchbooks.” But the poem spends its last 13 lines on meanings, not measurements.

  5. Choose the answer

    Line 28 brings in the oval mound that Pa, a museum man and Ruth each see in their own way. So the answer is C, “It introduces a feature of the mound that has a different meaning to different people.”

Why this answer and not the closest wrong one

A is the closest wrong choice. The museum men are there to document, or record, the mound, and one is taking notes. But the lines after 28 are not about notes. They give an egg, a swallowed sun and a singing snake. That is a feature with a different meaning to different people, just as C says.

The original DOE question
Question 29 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 44 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test C English, page 44, question 29.

Question 67 of 120

2026 Practice Test C English, question 32

Uses the passage above: “Serpent Mound”.

Question

How does the speaker’s interaction with Ruth in lines 37–41 convey a central idea of the poem?

  • AIt suggests that the most accurate interpretations of the mound come from knowing the purpose of the mound.
  • BIt emphasizes that there are multiple interpretations of the mound based on feelings and experiences.
  • CIt reveals the benefit of considering different interpretations of the mound’s significance.
  • DIt implies that scientific study of the mound’s purpose will affect what the mound symbolizes to people.
Show the answer

Correct answer: B

The question asks how the interaction between the speaker and Ruth in lines 37–41 conveys a central idea of the poem.

A. Incorrect. While there are many different interpretations of the mound’s meaning, there is no way to determine which of the interpretations is most accurate, and there is no way to know the mound’s true purpose.

B. CORRECT. The interaction references Ruth’s interpretation of the open-mouth shape as a serpent singing to the sun. This interpretation creates a joyful mood. The speaker contrasts this perspective with the idea that the mound is swallowing the sun, which creates a more aggressive feeling. These various interpretations of a physical shape arise out of what the individuals feel when they look at the mound.

C. Incorrect. The speaker does not describe any benefit to considering what different people imagine when they see the mound. Instead, the speaker is simply describing different interpretations.

D. Incorrect. Ruth’s interpretation of the mound’s shape is fanciful and symbolic. It is unlikely that scientific study would change the minds of people such as Ruth about the meaning of the mound.

Question analysis

This central idea question asks how the speaker’s conversation with a sister, Ruth, in lines 37–41 of “Serpent Mound” conveys a central idea of the poem. Ruth explains the serpent’s open mouth in her own way, and students must connect this short exchange to the rest of the poem before choosing among four claims about what it shows.

NYS standards
  • 7R2 theme or central idea
  • 7R6 point of view and author position
Grade level
Grade 7 reading and task
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Linking a short exchange between two characters to a poem’s central idea is standard grade 7 work. The language is plain, though the choices differ in what they claim the exchange shows, so each must be checked closely.
Estimated difficulty
Moderate: several steps, or a close reading with one strong distractor.
Evidence
Answered from one paragraph or stanza
Reading level
Passage: 354 words (a poem; reading level not measured); question and choices: about grade 10, 78 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

Ruth’s “Not swallowing, singing” makes the disagreement plain, so most students see that the mound is read in more than one way. The difficulty is in what the choices add to that: a lesson about the benefit of differing views, a ranking of readings by the mound’s purpose, or a role for science. The poem only sets the readings side by side, each rooted in what its speaker has lived or felt.

  1. A very close wrong answer moderate Choosing the answer

    The choice about the benefit of considering different interpretations shares the key’s subject, several readings of the mound, and differs only in adding a lesson, that weighing them is worthwhile. (Embretson & Wetzel, 1987; Gorin & Embretson, 2006; Ascalon et al., 2007)

  2. Reading between the lines moderate Working it out

    The exchange is a plain disagreement, swallowing against singing, and students must infer the central idea it serves, that people see the mound through their own feelings and experiences. (Graesser, Singer & Trabasso, 1994; Kintsch, 1998)

  3. Evidence in several places minor Working it out

    Ruth’s reading answers earlier ones, Pa’s egg from the henhouse in lines 29–31 and the museum man’s sun in line 32, so her lines must be read against them. (Kirsch & Mosenthal, 1990; Gorin & Embretson, 2006)

Strategy: Sum up what Ruth says and how the speaker reacts, compare it with the earlier ideas about the oval mound, and pick the claim the poem shows rather than one it might only suggest.

Traps

  • Reads too much in: A reasonable-sounding conclusion that goes further than the text allows.
  • Outside knowledge: A choice is plausible in the real world but not supported by this text.

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Working it out, step by step

  1. Figure out what the question asks

    This asks how the talk between the speaker and Ruth, in lines 37–41, shows a central idea. A central idea is a big point the whole poem makes. Compare Ruth’s idea about the mound with the speaker’s, and with the ideas that come before.

  2. Read the talk with Ruth

    The speaker liked a museum man’s idea that the snake was “swallowing the sun.” But when the speaker told Ruth, “she disagreed. It is singing to the sun, / she insisted.” Ruth explains, “That is why its mouth / is wide open.” Then she says, “Sometimes I think / I hear it on summer nights. Not swallowing, singing.”

  3. See where each idea comes from

    Each person sees the same oval mound in a different way. Pa always said it was like a snake about to swallow an egg, as snakes did in the family’s henhouse. A museum man saw it swallowing the sun. Ruth hears it singing on summer nights. Each idea grows out of that person’s own feelings and experiences, or what they have lived through. That is a central idea: people see the mound in many ways.

  4. Check each choice

    • A does not fit. No one in the poem knows the mound’s purpose, and no idea is called the most accurate.
    • B fits. Ruth and the speaker see the mound differently, each from what they feel and have lived.
    • C does not fit. The poem never says that thinking about other ideas helps anyone. Ruth and the speaker just disagree.
    • D does not fit. Nobody says the men’s study will change what the mound means to people.

    Watch out: C starts out right, since there are different ideas. But it adds a lesson, a “benefit,” that the poem never gives.

  5. Choose the answer

    The disagreement shows more than one way to see the mound, each rooted in a person’s own feelings and experiences. So the answer is B, “It emphasizes that there are multiple interpretations of the mound based on feelings and experiences.”

Why this answer and not the closest wrong one

C is the closest wrong choice. It also says there are different ideas about the mound. But it claims there is a benefit, or gain, in thinking them over. The poem shows no one gaining anything. Ruth keeps her own idea, and the poem never says who is right. It simply sets the ideas side by side, each from a person’s own life.

The original DOE question
Question 32 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 47 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test C English, page 47, question 32.

Question 68 of 120

2026 Practice Test C English, question 33

Uses the passage above: “Serpent Mound”.

Question

The poet contrasts the speaker’s and Ruth’s points of view regarding the mound by using dialogue to

  • Aimply that Ruth is worried that her interpretation of the mound will be seen as too abstract.
  • Bindicate that Ruth hopes her interpretation of the mound will be shared by the men from the museum.
  • Csuggest that Ruth wants the speaker to agree with her interpretation of the mound.
  • Dshow that Ruth has already decided on her interpretation of the mound.
Show the answer

Correct answer: D

The question asks how the poet uses dialogue to contrast the points of view of the speaker and Ruth regarding the mound.

A. Incorrect. The interpretation Ruth offers of the mound as a snake singing is abstract, but Ruth does not seem concerned that it is an overly metaphorical or figurative interpretation. The dialogue serves to highlight that Ruth is firm in her belief.

B. Incorrect. There is no indication that the museum men are considering Ruth’s interpretation of the mound or that Ruth wants them to share her interpretation. Ruth’s interpretation is meant to convey an abstract idea, while the museum men would be looking for a firm academic explanation of the mound. Ruth is persistent in her belief, and the dialogue does not suggest that she is concerned with the museum men’s interpretation or findings.

C. Incorrect. Ruth merely states her interpretation and says that she thinks she hears the Serpent Mound singing sometimes. She does not seek to make the speaker agree with her.

D. CORRECT. Beginning in line 37, after the speaker suggests the mound is swallowing the sun, Ruth disagrees. The poet uses the word “insisted” in line 39 to show that Ruth firmly believes in her own interpretation of the mound.

Question analysis

This point-of-view question asks how the poet of “Serpent Mound” uses dialogue to contrast the speaker’s and Ruth’s views of the mound in the poem’s closing lines. Students must read Ruth’s few words closely, since each choice credits her with a different attitude toward her own interpretation.

NYS standards
  • 7R6 point of view and author position
  • 7R4 word meaning and choice
Grade level
Grade 7 reading and task
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Analyzing how a writer contrasts two characters’ points of view is exactly what the grade 7 standard describes. The dialogue is only a few lines long, but each choice describes Ruth’s attitude in a different way.
Estimated difficulty
Moderate: several steps, or a close reading with one strong distractor.
What makes it hard
Evidence
Answered from one paragraph or stanza
Reading level
Passage: 354 words (a poem; reading level not measured); question and choices: about grade 8, 78 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

The dialogue is only a few lines, and every choice is about Ruth’s attitude toward her own reading. “Insisted” is the hinge: it can sound like pressing someone to agree, but nothing follows that asks the speaker anything. The hedge “Sometimes I think” can also be misread as worry, though it introduces what she hears, not doubt about her view.

  1. A very close wrong answer moderate Choosing the answer

    The choice about Ruth wanting agreement and the key both rest on “she insisted”; they differ in whether insisting aims to win the speaker over or shows her mind is already made up. (Embretson & Wetzel, 1987; Gorin & Embretson, 2006; Ascalon et al., 2007)

  2. Reading between the lines moderate Working it out

    Ruth’s attitude is never named, so students must read it from “she disagreed,” “she insisted” and the clipped “Not swallowing, singing,” and from what she does not do: ask for agreement. (Graesser, Singer & Trabasso, 1994; Kintsch, 1998)

Strategy: Reread lines 37–41 and describe Ruth’s attitude in a few words of your own before looking at the choices, then pick the one the lines themselves show.

Traps

  • Reads too much in: A reasonable-sounding conclusion that goes further than the text allows.
  • Wrong tone or attitude: Misjudges the tone, attitude or point of view, such as reading admiration as criticism, or taking a character's or subject's feelings for the author's.

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Working it out, step by step

  1. Figure out what the question asks

    This asks what the poet shows by using dialogue, the words people say to each other. The speaker and Ruth have different points of view about the mound. You need to decide what Ruth’s words show about her attitude, or how she feels about her own idea.

  2. Read the dialogue in lines 37–41

    The speaker tells Ruth the idea of “swallowing the sun.” The poem says “she disagreed. It is singing to the sun, / she insisted. That is why its mouth / is wide open.” Then she says, “Sometimes I think / I hear it on summer nights. Not swallowing, singing.”

  3. Look closely at the word insisted

    To insist is to say something firmly and refuse to back down. Ruth doesn’t say “maybe.” She doesn’t ask what the speaker thinks. She ends with three short words: “Not swallowing, singing.” That sounds final. She has her own reason, too: what she hears on summer nights. Her mind was made up before this talk began.

  4. Check each choice

    • A does not fit. “Sometimes I think” is about a sound she hears. It is not worry that her idea is too abstract, or too far from real things.
    • B does not fit. Ruth talks only to the speaker, later. She never mentions the museum men.
    • C does not fit. Ruth states her view, but she never asks the speaker to agree.
    • D fits. “Insisted” and her firm last words show that her mind is made up.

    Watch out: “Insisted” can sound like pushing someone to agree, which leads to C. But nothing in her words asks for agreement.

  5. Choose the answer

    Ruth’s firm words show she is sure of her own idea. So the answer is D, “show that Ruth has already decided on her interpretation of the mound.”

Why this answer and not the closest wrong one

C is the closest wrong choice. Both C and D rest on the word “insisted.” But insisting can show that you are sure without trying to win anyone over. Ruth never asks whether the speaker agrees. She just states her view and what she hears. That shows her mind is already made up, which is what D says.

The original DOE question
Question 33 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 48 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test C English, page 48, question 33.

Question 69 of 120

2026 Practice Test C English, question 34
Passage Excerpt from “Growing Peppers on the ISS Is Just the Start of Space Farming”

Excerpt from “Growing Peppers on the ISS Is Just the Start of Space Farming”

by Melanie Canales

The author, Melanie Canales, is a first-generation Peruvian American farmer and beekeeper based in Virginia’s Shenandoah Valley, on lands of the indigenous Monacan and Manahoac tribes. Her work focuses on creating healthy relationships between people and their surrounding ecosystems.

Unburdened by the constraints of gravity, red and green peppers jut out at 45-degree angles inside the Advanced Plant Habitat (APH), a sort of space terrarium not much larger than a microwave. Four chile pepper plants stand effortlessly upright, despite the dozens of glossy fruits weighing them down. These plants have lived entirely in space; their leaves have never been chewed on by insects or rustled by a summer breeze, [and] their stems are unfamiliar with bending toward the sun’s arc across the sky. Scissors glint under the tank’s white and blue lights as astronaut Mark Vande Hei and his team snip the stems of those that are ready for harvest. The peppers whirl around their heads until the astronauts catch them and tape them against a board to photograph.

Back on Earth, the Plant Habitat-04 team of engineers and plant scientists are observing and conferring with the astronauts. Of the 26 peppers in this batch, only the 14 finest will stay on the International Space Station [ISS] for consumption. The rest will be wrapped in foil, sealed in a Ziploc bag, then frozen at a brisk −80 degrees, until they can come roaring back to Earth in the next cargo capsule to be studied later. Now, after a 137-day growth cycle, the astronauts remove the plants from the module and trash them. Project Plant Habitat-04 is complete. It’s taco night on the ISS.

Since 2014, NASA1 has experimented with growing lettuces, brassicas,2 and zinnias3 in space, an endeavor that relies on highly specialized technology over 50 years in the making. [Fall 2021’s] two successful pepper harvests . . . will provide data on the nutritional and psychological benefits of growing vegetables on-craft, as well as a crop’s ability to reliably produce long-term in microgravity. While controlled environmental agriculture is not new, the APH experiment represents an evolution in specialized growth habitats. It doesn’t aim to re-create Earth’s conditions, but to perfect each isolated variable of plant growth in the clinical environment of a spaceship.

“The Advanced Plant Habitat is the most complex plant growth system on orbit today,” says Lashelle Spencer, a plant scientist at NASA’s Kennedy Space Center. Its more than 180 sensors control and monitor temperature, humidity, and carbon dioxide. The astronauts can adjust the color and intensity of the light, and how much moisture the plants’ roots are getting. It waters itself.

It’s the day after Thanksgiving, and Spencer has been at Kennedy since 5 a.m. to facilitate the peppers’ final harvest. As part of the project team, she played a crucial role in preparing the seeds that were sent hurtling into space in June and guiding the astronauts through maintaining the plants in orbit. . . . Though astronauts can spend upwards of 100 days in space, their on-mission meals come dehydrated and pre-packaged; their vitamins and minerals are isolated in supplements, which lose nutritional value the longer they’re stored. Spencer’s goal is to create the conditions necessary for cultivating healthy plants in space, so those plants can sustain healthy astronauts on long-term missions. Astronaut food is great, she says—“especially the shrimp cocktail. But you’re missing that crunch. You’re missing that fresh pop of flavor, the green flavor that’s not there in that packaged food.”

The sensory experience of growing productive crops can also help mitigate4 the psychological effects of long-term space travel. . . . Spencer says the team cracked open the door of the APH every day to observe their vegetable companions with all the tenderness of home gardeners. When harvest day came, they batted their bounty around the ISS, taking selfies and delighting in watching the fruits pirouetting around the spacecraft. . . .

“We were thinking no heat, so that [the peppers] wouldn’t be dangerous, but maybe the astronauts need a little spice in their life,” says Paul Bosland, who along with his colleagues at the Chile Pepper Institute genetically engineered5 the NuMex Española Improved chile pepper seeds grown in Plant Habitat-04. . . .

Working with NASA, Bosland cultivated a variety that could accommodate both the nutritional needs of astronauts as well as the logistics of growing a plant in space. . . .

. . . The experiment is helping gather the data necessary to determine the nutritional content of crops grown in space, and therefore how many people they can feed, and for how long. Though much is still unknown, Spencer is certain of one thing that future astronauts will need to do: “I think in an optimal world, a scientist like me would say that they would be growing plants from day one. From the day they left to the day they came back, they would be growing them.”

From “Growing Peppers on the ISS Is Just the Start of Space Farming” by Melanie Canales from WIRED, December 21, 2021. Copyright © 2021 Condé Nast. All rights reserved.

1NASA: National Aeronautics and Space Administration

2brassicas: a large genus of herbs, such as broccoli and cabbage

3zinnias: a genus of herbs and low shrubs that have flowers at their heads

4mitigate: to make something less severe or harmful

5genetically engineered: combined parts of DNA from different plants to produce a new plant

Question

What is the best summary of the astronauts’ process for Project Plant Habitat-04?

  • AAfter a 137-day growth cycle, the astronauts harvest the peppers while being observed and advised by plant scientists. The astronauts remove the peppers from the APH and photograph them before eating the most nutritious ones.
  • BThe astronauts confer with plant scientists and engineers before selecting the 14 finest peppers to keep aboard the ISS for consumption. The remaining peppers are wrapped in foil and sent back to Kennedy Space Center to be studied.
  • CWith the help of plant scientists, the astronauts carefully control and monitor the growing conditions in the APH, ultimately harvesting the peppers after a 137-day growth cycle. The astronauts choose 14 of the peppers for consumption and send the rest back to be studied.
  • DAstronauts use specialized tools to plant and maintain genetically modified peppers aboard the ISS. After harvesting the fruit, the astronauts tape the peppers to a board to prevent them from floating around the module.
Show the answer

Correct answer: C

The question asks for the best summary of the astronauts’ process for Project Plant Habitat-04.

A. Incorrect. Although this summary mentions the pepper harvest and photographing and eating the peppers, it leaves out an important part of the process: the team’s preparation for growing the peppers and the return to Earth of some harvested peppers for study.

B. Incorrect. This summary includes the selection of some peppers for consumption and the return of some peppers for research; however, it omits important information about the previous steps required to develop the process for growing peppers.

C. CORRECT. This summary accurately and completely summarizes the astronauts’ process for Project Plant Habitat-04: collaborating with plant scientists, controlling the APH conditions, completing the 137-day growth cycle, harvesting the peppers, choosing 14 peppers to eat, and sending the remaining peppers back for study.

D. Incorrect. This summary focuses on information incidental to the process of growing peppers for Project Plant Habitat-04, mentioning the use of genetically modified peppers and the taping of harvested peppers to a board to keep them from floating, while omitting important steps such as the monitoring of growth and the selection of peppers for consumption and study.

Question analysis

This summary question asks which of four two-sentence summaries best captures the astronauts’ process for Project Plant Habitat-04, the chile pepper experiment aboard the International Space Station described in a WIRED article on space farming. Every choice repeats real details from the excerpt, so students must check each one for accuracy and for completeness instead of stopping at the first familiar fact.

NYS standards
  • 7R2 theme or central idea
  • 7R3 plot elements and ideas
Grade level
Grade 7 reading and task
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Summarizing a process is regular grade 7 work. These choices are long and two-part, and the steps are spread over several paragraphs of a technical article, but the excerpt tells the process in order, so the overall demand stays typical.
Estimated difficulty
Moderate: several steps, or a close reading with one strong distractor.
Evidence
Answered from several paragraphs or stanzas
Reading level
Passage: about grade 10, 890 words; question and choices: about grade 11, 162 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

Every summary is built from real details of the experiment, so the decision rests on completeness and accuracy rather than on recognition. Students who remember paragraph 2 best are drawn to the version that reports only the selection and the frozen peppers, while those who trust vivid details accept a meal of “the most nutritious” peppers or tape that stops them floating. The question rewards listing the stages, tending, harvesting, choosing and returning, before reading the choices.

  1. Evidence in several places moderate Working it out

    The process has to be pieced together out of order: the harvest opens paragraph 1, the 14 kept and the rest frozen come in paragraph 2, and the adjustable light and moisture only in paragraph 4. (Kirsch & Mosenthal, 1990; Gorin & Embretson, 2006)

  2. A very close wrong answer moderate Choosing the answer

    The summary about the 14 finest peppers and the frozen remainder is the key’s second sentence on its own; only the key adds the controlled growing conditions and the 137-day cycle before the harvest. (Embretson & Wetzel, 1987; Gorin & Embretson, 2006; Ascalon et al., 2007)

  3. A lot to read minor Understanding the question

    Each choice is two sentences of 34 to 44 words, so four summaries that mix accurate and inaccurate details must be read and compared one step at a time. (Kintsch, 1998; Gorin & Embretson, 2006; Freedle & Kostin, 1993)

Strategy: Before reading the choices, list in order what happens to the pepper plants across the opening paragraphs, then test each summary for details the excerpt does not support and for stages it leaves out.

Traps

  • Too narrow: A single detail offered as the central idea or a summary, or a summary that keeps minor details and leaves out an essential part.
  • Twists what the text says: Uses the text's topic and ideas but changes what it says: who did it, how much, when, or why.

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Working it out, step by step

  1. Figure out what the question asks

    This question asks for the best summary. A summary retells the main steps in order, in a few words. It leaves out small details. It must also be accurate, with no facts the article doesn’t give. Here you sum up what the astronauts did in Project Plant Habitat-04, from start to finish.

  2. Find the steps in the article

    The steps are spread over several paragraphs, and not in order.

    • Growing: Spencer guided “the astronauts through maintaining the plants in orbit” (paragraph 5). The astronauts “can adjust the color and intensity of the light” (paragraph 4).
    • Harvest: the crew snips the ripe peppers (paragraph 1) “after a 137-day growth cycle” (paragraph 2).
    • Choosing: “only the 14 finest will stay” on the station “for consumption” (paragraph 2). Consumption means eating.
    • Sending back: the rest are frozen and sent “back to Earth in the next cargo capsule to be studied later” (paragraph 2).
  3. Put the process in plain words

    So the whole process has four parts. First, the astronauts tend the plants for months, with help from scientists on Earth. Second, they harvest the peppers after 137 days. Third, they keep the 14 best peppers to eat. Fourth, they send the rest back to Earth to be studied. A good summary needs all four parts.

  4. Check each choice

    • A is wrong. It skips the months of growing and the peppers sent back. It also says they ate “the most nutritious ones,” but the article says “the 14 finest.”
    • B is wrong. It covers only harvest day and leaves out the 137 days of growing. The article also never says the peppers go to Kennedy Space Center.
    • C is right. It has all four parts: tending the plants with the scientists’ help, harvesting after 137 days, keeping 14, and sending the rest back.
    • D is wrong. It strings together side details. The peppers were taped to a board “to photograph,” not to stop them floating.

    Watch out: B closely repeats paragraph 2, so it feels right. But a summary of the process must include the growing, too.

  5. Choose the answer

    Only one summary covers the whole process, from tending the plants to sending peppers home. So the answer is C, “With the help of plant scientists, the astronauts carefully control and monitor the growing conditions in the APH, ultimately harvesting the peppers after a 137-day growth cycle. The astronauts choose 14 of the peppers for consumption and send the rest back to be studied.”

Why this answer and not the closest wrong one

B is the closest wrong answer. Its facts come from paragraph 2. But it starts on harvest day, so a reader would never learn that the astronauts tended the plants for 137 days. C keeps B’s ending and adds that growing stage. That makes C complete.

The original DOE question
Question 34 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 52 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test C English, page 52, question 34.
The passage “Excerpt from “Growing Peppers on the ISS Is Just the Start of Space Farming”” as printed (pages 50–51)The passage “Excerpt from “Growing Peppers on the ISS Is Just the Start of Space Farming”” as printed on page 50 of the DOE handbook.The passage “Excerpt from “Growing Peppers on the ISS Is Just the Start of Space Farming”” as printed on page 51 of the DOE handbook.

Question 70 of 120

2026 Practice Test C English, question 35

Uses the passage above: “Excerpt from “Growing Peppers on the ISS Is Just the Start of Space Farming””.

Question

Read this sentence from paragraph 5.

Though astronauts can spend upwards of 100 days in space, their on-mission meals come dehydrated and pre-packaged; their vitamins and minerals are isolated in supplements, which lose nutritional value the longer they’re stored.

The sentence contributes to the overall meaning of the excerpt by

  • Aindicating that the attempt to grow crops aboard the ISS is an important endeavor.
  • Bdescribing the health effects of spending a significant length of time in space.
  • Crevealing why certain kinds of foods are more appealing in space than on Earth.
  • Demphasizing the difficulty of preserving the nutrients in the crops grown in space.
Show the answer

Correct answer: A

The question asks how a sentence from paragraph 5 contributes to the overall meaning of the excerpt.

A. CORRECT. The sentence explains that astronauts’ current food supply consists of dehydrated foods along with vitamin and mineral supplements that lose nutritional value over time. These details support the idea that growing fresh crops in space, as described in the excerpt, is important for astronauts’ nutrition during long missions.

B. Incorrect. While the sentence mentions food and nutrients and astronauts spending “upwards of 100 days in space,” it does not describe the overall health effects of being in space for this long. Instead, the sentence focuses on the limitations of the food available to astronauts.

C. Incorrect. While the sentence does mention that astronauts eat packaged and dehydrated food while in space and that the food and supplements provided are limited in nutritional value, it does not mention the appeal of foods eaten in space compared with foods eaten on Earth.

D. Incorrect. The sentence explains that supplements can lose their nutritional value over time, but it does not mention whether crops grown in space might also lose nutrients.

Question analysis

This question quotes a sentence from paragraph 5 of the space-farming excerpt about the dehydrated, pre-packaged meals astronauts eat on missions of 100 days or more and the vitamin supplements that lose value in storage. Students explain how the sentence contributes to the overall meaning of the excerpt, which means looking past what it says to the job it does in the article.

NYS standards
  • 7R5 structure and genre features
  • 7R2 theme or central idea
Grade level
Grade 7 reading and task
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Explaining how one sentence adds to a text’s overall meaning is a core grade 7 skill. The quoted sentence is long but plainly worded, and the paragraph around it is easy to follow, so the task matches typical grade 7 reading.
Estimated difficulty
Straightforward: two steps or one careful reading.
Evidence
Answered from one paragraph or stanza
Reading level
Passage: about grade 10, 890 words; question and choices: about grade 9, 102 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

The sentence is easy to understand but easy to misuse: its last clause about supplements losing value invites a choice about nutrients fading, and its “100 days” invites one about health. Students who ask what problem the sentence sets up, and notice that the next sentence answers it with Spencer’s goal, see that it explains why growing food in orbit matters.

  1. How, not what moderate Working it out

    The stem asks what the sentence does for the whole excerpt, so its facts about dehydrated meals and fading supplements matter only as the problem that crops grown aboard the ISS would solve. (Anderson & Krathwohl, 2001)

  2. The right answer is reworded minor Choosing the answer

    The key names none of the sentence’s facts, while the nutrient choice echoes “lose nutritional value the longer they’re stored” and so looks better supported by the quoted words. (Freedle & Kostin, 1993; Kirsch & Mosenthal, 1990)

  3. Reading between the lines minor Working it out

    The sentence never says why its facts matter; the reason appears only in the next one, Spencer’s goal of plants that “sustain healthy astronauts on long-term missions.” (Graesser, Singer & Trabasso, 1994; Kintsch, 1998)

Strategy: Put the sentence into your own words, note exactly what it says loses value, and then decide what role that fact plays in the excerpt as a whole, not just within the sentence.

Traps

  • Twists what the text says: Uses the text's topic and ideas but changes what it says: who did it, how much, when, or why.
  • Reads too much in: A reasonable-sounding conclusion that goes further than the text allows.

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Working it out, step by step

  1. Figure out what the question asks

    This question asks about the job one sentence does in the whole article. Don’t just restate the sentence. Ask why the author put it here. What bigger idea does it help explain?

  2. Read the sentence closely

    The sentence is in paragraph 5. It says astronauts can spend “upwards of 100 days in space.” Upwards of means more than. Their meals “come dehydrated and pre-packaged.” Dehydrated means dried out. Their vitamins and minerals come in pills called supplements. And those pills “lose nutritional value the longer they’re stored.” So they get less healthy the longer they sit.

  3. See what comes right after it

    The next sentence shows why this matters: “Spencer’s goal is to create the conditions necessary for cultivating healthy plants in space, so those plants can sustain healthy astronauts on long-term missions.” To sustain means to keep going. So the sentence sets up a problem. Food on long trips is dried, packaged and weak. Fresh crops grown in space would solve it. That makes the pepper project worth doing.

  4. Check each choice

    • A is right. The sentence shows the problem that fresh crops would fix. So it shows that growing crops on the ISS is important.
    • B is wrong. It mentions “100 days,” but it tells about food, not what space does to the body.
    • C is wrong. It never compares how food tastes in space and on Earth.
    • D is wrong. The things that lose value are the stored supplements, not crops grown in space.

    Watch out: D uses words close to the sentence’s own. But it moves the problem to the wrong thing.

  5. Choose the answer

    The sentence explains why fresh food grown in space matters. So the answer is A, “indicating that the attempt to grow crops aboard the ISS is an important endeavor.” An endeavor is a serious effort.

Why this answer and not the closest wrong one

D is the closest wrong answer, because the sentence does say that something loses value over time. But it is the supplements in storage that “lose nutritional value.” The sentence never says crops grown in space lose nutrients. Fresh crops are the fix, not the problem. That is why A fits.

The original DOE question
Question 35 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 53 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test C English, page 53, question 35.

Question 71 of 120

2026 Practice Test C English, question 36

Uses the passage above: “Excerpt from “Growing Peppers on the ISS Is Just the Start of Space Farming””.

Question

Which statement best explains why Lashelle Spencer is a relevant source of information for the excerpt?

  • AShe works at NASA’s Kennedy Space Center.
  • BShe is part of the APH project team.
  • CShe is sensitive to the astronauts’ need for healthy food in space.
  • DShe witnessed how astronauts aboard the APH responded when harvesting their food.
Show the answer

Correct answer: B

The question asks which statement best explains why Lashelle Spencer is a relevant source of information for the excerpt.

A. Incorrect. While paragraphs 4 and 5 do mention that Lashelle Spencer works at NASA’s Kennedy Space Center, that fact does not explain her direct expertise on growing plants in space.

B. CORRECT. In paragraph 4, Spencer is identified as a “plant scientist” at NASA, and paragraph 5 states that she is directly involved with the Advanced Plant Habitat as “part of the project team,” making her a relevant source of information for the excerpt’s discussion of growing plants in space.

C. Incorrect. Although the details in paragraph 5 do indicate that Spencer is interested in providing better food choices to astronauts, her empathy toward the astronauts’ needs does not make her a relevant source of information for the excerpt.

D. Incorrect. Paragraph 5 does mention that Spencer helped facilitate the harvest from the Kennedy Space Center, so she likely did witness the astronauts’ reactions as they harvested the peppers; however, this inference does not explain Spencer’s relevance as a source of information for the excerpt.

Question analysis

Why is Lashelle Spencer, the NASA plant scientist quoted throughout the article on growing peppers in space, a relevant source of information? This question asks students to judge what qualifies a person quoted in an informational text to speak on its subject. Several choices state facts about her, so students must decide which one actually explains her value as a source.

NYS standards
  • 7R1 textual evidence and inferences
  • 7R8 evaluating arguments and claims
Grade level
Grade 7 reading and task
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Grade 7 readers often judge whether evidence is relevant, though asking why a quoted expert deserves trust is a less common form of the task. The facts about Spencer sit in two neighboring paragraphs, so the reading demand itself is typical.
Estimated difficulty
Moderate: several steps, or a close reading with one strong distractor.
Evidence
Answered from several paragraphs or stanzas
Reading level
Passage: about grade 10, 890 words; question and choices: about grade 7, 55 words.
Corrected from the DOE handbook
  • A wrong paragraph number in the explanation was corrected.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

The pull of this question is that the first thing the excerpt says about Spencer, her job at NASA’s Kennedy Space Center, sounds like a credential. Paragraph 5 gives the stronger one: she helped prepare the seeds and guided the crew, so she knows this experiment firsthand. Students lose the point by stopping at the job title, or by treating her sympathy for the astronauts or a harvest she supposedly watched as expertise.

  1. Every choice must be checked moderate Choosing the answer

    Her Kennedy workplace, her concern for well-fed astronauts and her role on the project all come from paragraphs 4 and 5, so truth rules out little; each must be weighed as a qualification. (Embretson & Wetzel, 1987)

  2. Reading between the lines minor Working it out

    The excerpt never says why Spencer is quoted; a reader must connect “part of the project team” and “guiding the astronauts” to her firsthand knowledge of this particular experiment. (Graesser, Singer & Trabasso, 1994; Kintsch, 1998)

  3. Evidence in several places minor Working it out

    Spencer is introduced in paragraph 4 as a NASA plant scientist, but her place on the pepper project appears only in paragraph 5, after a sentence about Thanksgiving. (Kirsch & Mosenthal, 1990; Gorin & Embretson, 2006)

Strategy: Find every detail paragraphs 4 and 5 give about Spencer, then ask of each choice whether it explains why her statements about this experiment deserve a reader’s trust.

Traps

The wrong answers, classified

What was corrected from the DOE handbook, and why

  • Explanation: The handbook’s explanation of Option A says “paragraphs 5 and 8 do mention that Lashelle Spencer works at NASA’s Kennedy Space Center.” Spencer is introduced in paragraph 4 as “a plant scientist at NASA’s Kennedy Space Center,” and paragraph 5 says she “has been at Kennedy since 5 a.m.” Paragraph 8 is about Paul Bosland and does not mention her. The site now says “paragraphs 4 and 5.”

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Working it out, step by step

  1. Figure out what the question asks

    A source is a person whose words an article uses. A relevant source is one who really knows the topic. This question asks why Lashelle Spencer is worth quoting in an article about growing peppers in space. Several choices are true facts about her. You need the one that shows why she knows this subject.

  2. Find what the article says about her

    Paragraph 4 introduces her as “a plant scientist at NASA’s Kennedy Space Center.” Paragraph 5 says she “has been at Kennedy since 5 a.m. to facilitate the peppers’ final harvest.” To facilitate means to help make something happen. Then comes the key sentence: “As part of the project team, she played a crucial role in preparing the seeds that were sent hurtling into space in June and guiding the astronauts through maintaining the plants in orbit.”

  3. Explain what that tells you

    Spencer didn’t just watch this project from far away. She helped run it. She got the seeds ready. She coached the astronauts as they cared for the plants. So she has firsthand knowledge, meaning she learned it by doing it herself. That is what makes her a good source for this article.

  4. Check each choice

    • A is wrong. It is true, and paragraphs 4 and 5 both say it. But many people work at Kennedy. A job there doesn’t make someone an expert on growing plants in space.
    • B is right. Being on the project team means she helped plan and guide this exact experiment.
    • C is wrong. She does care about healthy food for astronauts. But caring is not the same as knowing.
    • D is wrong. The article never says she watched how the crew reacted. Even if she did, watching a harvest wouldn’t make her an expert.

    Watch out: A is the first fact you learn about her, so it feels like her main qualification. Paragraph 5 gives a stronger one.

  5. Choose the answer

    Spencer helped prepare and guide the pepper experiment herself. So the answer is B, “She is part of the APH project team.”

Why this answer and not the closest wrong one

A is the closest wrong answer. Working at NASA’s Kennedy Space Center sounds impressive, and it is true. But a job at a big space center doesn’t prove she knows this experiment. B does. Being on the project team means she prepared the seeds and guided the crew.

The original DOE question
Question 36 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 54 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test C English, page 54, question 36. This is the DOE’s version, before the corrections listed in the analysis.

Question 72 of 120

2026 Practice Test C English, question 37

Uses the passage above: “Excerpt from “Growing Peppers on the ISS Is Just the Start of Space Farming””.

Question

How does the author support the claim in paragraph 4 that the APH is a complex plant growth system?

  • Aby indicating how many sensors help control the variables of plant growth
  • Bby detailing how the method of growing plants has been adapted to the conditions of space
  • Cby explaining the steps required to package and return the plants to Earth
  • Dby describing how NASA has spent years experimenting with plants grown in a controlled environment
Show the answer

Correct answer: A

The question asks how the author supports the claim in paragraph 4 that the APH is a complex plant growth system.

A. CORRECT. The author supports the claim that the APH is a complex plant growth system by stating that it has “more than 180 sensors” that control and monitor temperature, humidity, and carbon dioxide (paragraph 4). These details, along with the description of how astronauts can adjust light and moisture via these sensors, directly illustrate the system’s complexity.

B. Incorrect. Although paragraph 4 describes some of the APH’s features, such as monitoring “temperature, humidity, and carbon dioxide,” it does not focus on how the key elements of plant growing are adapted to space conditions. The details instead emphasize the number of sensors and the variety of variables they control.

C. Incorrect. Although paragraph 2 mentions packaging and returning plants to Earth, the process does not directly contribute to the complexity of the APH system of growing plants in space.

D. Incorrect. While paragraph 3 references NASA’s experimentation “with growing lettuces, brassicas, and zinnias in space” since 2014 and how it relied “on highly specialized technology,” there is no indication in the paragraph that the APH system existed during the same time period or that the experiments relied on the complexity of a similar system.

Question analysis

Paragraph 4 of the excerpt quotes a NASA scientist calling the Advanced Plant Habitat “the most complex plant growth system on orbit today.” This evidence question asks how the author supports that claim. Students must trace a claim to the evidence offered for it and tell that evidence apart from other true facts the article gives about the pepper project.

NYS standards
  • 7R8 evaluating arguments and claims
  • 7R1 textual evidence and inferences
Grade level
Grade 7 reading and task
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Tracing how an author supports a stated claim is standard grade 7 work, and the stem names the paragraph where the claim appears. The technical vocabulary of the article adds some load, but the task itself is routine.
Estimated difficulty
Straightforward: two steps or one careful reading.
What makes it hard
Evidence
Answered from one paragraph or stanza
Reading level
Passage: about grade 10, 890 words; question and choices: about grade 8, 74 words.
Corrected from the DOE handbook
  • A misquotation of the excerpt in the explanation was corrected.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

The claim and its support sit side by side in paragraph 4, so a student who rereads it finds the sensors at once. The wrong choices come from neighboring paragraphs: the habitat that does not copy Earth’s conditions, the frozen peppers and NASA’s work since 2014. Each is true of the article, so the question rewards matching the support to the claim’s own paragraph rather than to the article’s general themes.

  1. How, not what minor Working it out

    The stem asks how the claim is supported, so the answer is the evidence in the sentences right after the quotation, the “more than 180 sensors” and the controls they run. (Anderson & Krathwohl, 2001)

  2. An unfamiliar subject minor Understanding the question

    Paragraph 4 describes a growth chamber in technical terms, sensors for temperature, humidity and carbon dioxide, and adjustable light and moisture, which students must picture without having seen anything like it. (Recht & Leslie, 1988; Kintsch, 1998)

Strategy: Find the sentence in paragraph 4 that makes the claim, read the sentences right after it, and choose the description that matches what those sentences actually offer as support.

Traps

The wrong answers, classified

What was corrected from the DOE handbook, and why

  • Explanation: The handbook’s explanation of Option D says NASA’s experimentation relied “on specialized technology.” Paragraph 3 says the endeavor “relies on highly specialized technology over 50 years in the making,” so the site now quotes “on highly specialized technology.”

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Working it out, step by step

  1. Figure out what the question asks

    A claim is an idea the writer wants you to believe. Support is the proof given for it. Paragraph 4 claims the Advanced Plant Habitat (APH) is complex. Complex means it has many parts that work together. You need to find how the author backs that up.

  2. Find the claim and what follows

    Paragraph 4 opens with Spencer’s words: “The Advanced Plant Habitat is the most complex plant growth system on orbit today.” On orbit means circling Earth in space. The very next sentence gives the proof: “Its more than 180 sensors control and monitor temperature, humidity, and carbon dioxide.” Then the paragraph adds that the astronauts can change the light and the water.

  3. Explain what the proof means

    A sensor is a small device that measures something, like a thermometer. Humidity is how much water is in the air. To monitor means to keep checking. So the habitat has more than 180 measuring tools. They watch and control each condition the plants need. These conditions are called variables, things that can change, like heat and light. That big number of sensors shows how complex the habitat is.

  4. Check each choice

    • A is right. The author gives a number, “more than 180 sensors,” and says what they control.
    • B is wrong. Paragraph 4 doesn’t explain how growing methods were changed for space. It counts sensors and lists what they control.
    • C is wrong. Packing the peppers to send home is in paragraph 2. It says nothing about how the habitat works.
    • D is wrong. Paragraph 3 says NASA’s work since 2014 relies “on highly specialized technology.” But that is the program’s history, not proof about this habitat.

    Watch out: B sounds like it could describe a complex machine. But the proof sits right after the claim, and it is about sensors.

  5. Choose the answer

    The author shows the habitat is complex by counting its sensors and naming what they control. So the answer is A, “by indicating how many sensors help control the variables of plant growth.”

Why this answer and not the closest wrong one

B is the closest wrong answer. Paragraph 3 does say the habitat “doesn’t aim to re-create Earth’s conditions.” But the question asks how paragraph 4 supports its own claim. Paragraph 4 does it with a count of sensors and a list of what they control. That matches A.

The original DOE question
Question 37 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 55 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test C English, page 55, question 37. This is the DOE’s version, before the corrections listed in the analysis.

Question 73 of 120

2026 Practice Test C English, question 38

Uses the passage above: “Excerpt from “Growing Peppers on the ISS Is Just the Start of Space Farming””.

Question

Which two sentences in paragraphs 5–9 best support the idea that the astronauts working in space enjoyed participating in the food-growing experiment?

Select the two correct answers.

On the test you click the words in the text; here, choose them below. The DOE has not published how answers with several parts are scored; this site counts one right only when every part is right.

  • ABut you’re missing that crunch. You’re missing that fresh pop of flavor, the green flavor that’s not there in that packaged food.”
  • BSpencer says the team cracked open the door of the APH every day to observe their vegetable companions with all the tenderness of home gardeners.
  • CWhen harvest day came, they batted their bounty around the ISS, taking selfies and delighting in watching the fruits pirouetting around the spacecraft.
  • D“We were thinking no heat, so that [the peppers] wouldn’t be dangerous, but maybe the astronauts need a little spice in their life,” says Paul Bosland
  • E“I think in an optimal world, a scientist like me would say that they would be growing plants from day one.
Show the answer

Correct answer: B and C

The question asks which two sentences in paragraphs 5–9 best support the idea that the astronauts working in space enjoyed participating in the food-growing experiment.

Incorrect. Choice 1. “But you’re missing that crunch. You’re missing that fresh pop of flavor, the green flavor that’s not there in that packaged food” is incorrect because it illustrates an opinion on fresh foods of Lashelle Spencer, a plant scientist at NASA’s Kennedy Space Center. Although astronauts are likely to enjoy fresh food, the statement does not describe the enjoyment of the astronauts participating in the experiment.

CORRECT. Choice 2. “Spencer says the team cracked open the door of the APH every day to observe their vegetable companions with all the tenderness of home gardeners” is a correct response. The details about the attitude of the astronauts toward the plants and their desire to observe them every day support the idea that they enjoyed participating in the experiment.

CORRECT. Choice 3. “When harvest day came, they batted their bounty around the ISS, taking selfies and delighting in watching the fruits pirouetting around the spacecraft” is a correct response. That the astronauts were taking selfies with the peppers and “delighting in watching the fruits pirouetting around the spacecraft” suggests that the astronauts enjoyed being part of the experiment.

Incorrect. Choice 4. “ ‘We were thinking no heat, so that [the peppers] wouldn’t be dangerous, but maybe the astronauts need a little spice in their life,’ says Paul Bosland” is incorrect because the quotation only gives information about the variables taken into account in the selection of peppers by a scientist at the Chile Pepper Institute. Although the observation suggests that the spicy heat of peppers might be enjoyed by astronauts in space, the sentence does not address the attitude of the astronauts toward the experiment.

Incorrect. Choice 5. “ ‘I think in an optimal world, a scientist like me would say that they would be growing plants from day one’ ” is incorrect because it emphasizes the opinion of Lashelle Spencer, a plant scientist at NASA’s Kennedy Space Center, regarding the growth of plants in space. Although she suggests growing plants is a good idea, the quotation does not support the idea that the astronauts enjoyed participating in the experiment.

Question analysis

This select-two evidence question asks which two sentences in paragraphs 5–9 of the space-farming excerpt best show that the astronauts enjoyed taking part in the pepper-growing experiment. On the test students click two of five sentences highlighted in the passage, and credit comes only when both picks are right. Each sentence mentions food, peppers or plants, so each must be checked against the idea itself.

NYS standards
  • 7R1 textual evidence and inferences
Grade level
Grade 7 reading and task
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Choosing evidence for an idea is everyday grade 7 work. This item asks for two sentences out of five and gives credit only for a fully right pair, but the sentences come from a few neighboring paragraphs and the idea to support is concrete.
Estimated difficulty
Straightforward: two steps or one careful reading.
Evidence
Answered from several paragraphs or stanzas
Reading level
Passage: about grade 10, 890 words; question and choices: about grade 9, 143 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

The harvest-day sentence, with its selfies and delight, is the easy pick. The second takes more care, because “the team” that opened the habitat every day seems at first to be Spencer’s team on Earth, and both picks must be right for credit. Students who look for the word “astronauts” or a cheerful phrase are pulled to Bosland’s “a little spice in their life” or to Spencer’s longing for crunch, which report the views of the scientists.

  1. Reading between the lines moderate Working it out

    The second right sentence says “the team” opened the habitat’s door, right after paragraph 5 called Spencer “part of the project team,” so students must see that only the crew aboard could do it. (Graesser, Singer & Trabasso, 1994; Kintsch, 1998)

  2. Every choice must be checked minor Choosing the answer

    All five sentences mention food, peppers or plants, and credit needs both picks, so each must be traced to its speaker: Spencer, the crew or Bosland. (Embretson & Wetzel, 1987)

  3. Figurative or literary language minor Understanding the question

    The enjoyment is shown in images rather than stated: “vegetable companions,” “the tenderness of home gardeners” and fruits “pirouetting around the spacecraft.” (Graesser, Singer & Trabasso, 1994; Kintsch, 1998)

Strategy: Read each of the five sentences in its paragraph and work out whose actions or opinions it reports, then keep the two that show both parts of the idea: astronauts in space, and their enjoyment.

Traps

  • Supports only part of the claim: In a question about evidence: a line that backs one half of the claim but not the other, or a related point rather than the claim itself.
  • Word match: Repeats striking words or phrases from the text, so it looks supported, but its meaning does not fit the question.
  • Reads too much in: A reasonable-sounding conclusion that goes further than the text allows.

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Working it out, step by step

  1. Figure out what the question asks

    You need two sentences from paragraphs 5–9 that show the astronauts enjoyed the experiment. Each one must do two things. It must be about the astronauts in space, not the scientists on Earth. And it must show they liked the work. On the test you click two sentences in the passage. Here, you choose two of the five choices. Both must be right.

  2. Find who each sentence is about

    • A is Spencer, a scientist on Earth, talking about packaged food.
    • B says “the team” opened the habitat every day.
    • C says “they” played with the peppers on harvest day.
    • D is Paul Bosland, the scientist who made the seeds, talking about spice.
    • E is Spencer again, giving her own opinion.

    So only B and C could be about the astronauts. But who is “the team” in B?

  3. Work out who the team is

    Paragraph 5 calls Spencer “part of the project team,” and she works on Earth. So the team in paragraph 6 might seem to be the scientists. But look at what the team did. They “cracked open the door of the APH every day.” The APH is a plant box on the space station, so only the crew could open it. The next sentence says they batted the peppers “around the ISS,” so they were on board. Paragraph 1 also calls the crew Mark Vande Hei’s “team.” “Spencer says” only means she is telling us what they did.

  4. See how they show enjoyment

    In B, the team checked on “their vegetable companions with all the tenderness of home gardeners.” Companions are friends. Tenderness is gentle, loving care. They treated the plants almost like pets. In C, the same team “batted their bounty around the ISS, taking selfies.” Bounty means a big harvest. They were “delighting,” or taking great joy, in watching the peppers spin like dancers.

  5. Rule out the other three

    • A is wrong. Spencer is saying packaged food lacks crunch. That is her view of the food, not the crew enjoying the work.
    • D is wrong. “A little spice in their life” sounds fun. But it is Bosland explaining why the peppers have some heat.
    • E is wrong. Spencer says crews should grow plants “from day one.” That is a scientist’s advice, not the crew’s feelings.

    Watch out: D names the astronauts and sounds cheerful. But the speaker is a scientist on Earth.

  6. Choose the answers

    Both sentences show the crew in space caring for and playing with their plants. So the answers are B and C: B, “Spencer says the team cracked open the door of the APH every day to observe their vegetable companions with all the tenderness of home gardeners.” And C, “When harvest day came, they batted their bounty around the ISS, taking selfies and delighting in watching the fruits pirouetting around the spacecraft.”

Why this answer and not the closest wrong one

The hard part is B. It says “the team,” and Spencer was on a team too. But only the crew on the station could open the habitat every day, so B is about the astronauts. D sounds fun, but Bosland is a scientist explaining spice. It says nothing about how the crew felt.

The original DOE question
Question 38 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 56 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test C English, page 56, question 38.

Question 74 of 120

2026 Practice Test C English, question 40

Uses the passage above: “Excerpt from “Growing Peppers on the ISS Is Just the Start of Space Farming””.

Question

What is the relationship between the scientists and the astronauts in carrying out the plant-growing experiments?

Move the correct answer to each box.

Scientists on earth are primarily responsible for for conducting plant experiments in space, while the astronauts aboard the International Space Station are responsible for for the experiment.

On the test you drag tiles into the boxes; here, choose each box’s tile from its menu. Each tile can be used once. The DOE has not published how answers with several parts are scored; this site counts one right only when every part is right.

Show the answer

Correct answer: blank 1: developing the materials and systems; blank 2: growing the plants to harvest

The question asks for the two phrases that should be added to the sentence to explain the relationship between the scientists and the astronauts in carrying out the plant-growing experiments.

CORRECT. The phrase “growing the plants to harvest” should be added to the second box in the sentence. Paragraphs 1 and 2 of the excerpt show that astronauts aboard the ISS are responsible for tending to the plants in the system and harvesting them after the growth cycle is complete.

Incorrect. The phrase “documenting the nutritional goals” should not be added to either box in the sentence. While the excerpt does mention that the experiment is helping gather data about the nutritional value of the peppers, there is no evidence that either the scientists on Earth or the astronauts aboard the ISS are tasked with documenting specific nutritional goals.

Incorrect. The phrase “analyzing the environment” should not be added to either box in the sentence. Although the experiment requires control of environmental factors like light and moisture, the excerpt does not describe or primarily focus on describing how either the scientists on Earth or the astronauts aboard the ISS are responsible for formally analyzing the environment of the habitat as part of the experiment.

CORRECT. The phrase “developing the materials and systems” should be added to the first box in the sentence. The excerpt explains that the scientists on Earth create and prepare the systems, seeds, and equipment needed for the plant-growing experiments in space.

Incorrect. The phrase “determining the most nutritional plants” should not be added to either box in the sentence. Although growing nutritious plants is important, the excerpt does not focus on the scientists on Earth or the astronauts aboard the ISS evaluating or selecting plants based on their nutritional value.

Question analysis

This question asks students to complete a sentence describing how scientists on Earth and astronauts aboard the International Space Station divided the work of the pepper-growing experiment. On the test students drag phrase tiles into two boxes, choosing from five. Each group’s role must be pieced together from details spread across the excerpt, and each tile names a task in general words that must be matched to the text.

NYS standards
  • 7R3 plot elements and ideas
  • 7R1 textual evidence and inferences
Grade level
Grade 7 reading and task
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Explaining how the people in an informational text relate to one another is grade 7 work. Filling two boxes from five tiles with all-or-nothing credit adds some demand, but the excerpt shows the two groups doing clearly different jobs.
Estimated difficulty
Moderate: several steps, or a close reading with one strong distractor.
Evidence
Answered from several paragraphs or stanzas
Reading level
Passage: about grade 10, 890 words; question and choices: about grade 13, 50 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

The astronauts’ box is the easy half, since the excerpt opens with the crew snipping and catching ripe peppers. The scientists’ box is where points are lost: the right tile is abstract, while the tempting ones name nutrition and the environment, both prominent in the article. Students who match a tile to a phrase they remember, rather than to everything the people on Earth are shown doing, fill the first box wrongly.

  1. The right answer is reworded moderate Choosing the answer

    The scientists’ tile, “developing the materials and systems,” sums up preparing seeds, engineering a variety and building the habitat in words the excerpt never uses, while the nutrition tile echoes paragraph 9. (Freedle & Kostin, 1993; Kirsch & Mosenthal, 1990)

  2. Evidence in several places moderate Working it out

    The scientists’ work is scattered: the habitat’s technology in paragraphs 3 and 4, Spencer preparing seeds in paragraph 5, Bosland’s engineered variety in paragraphs 7 and 8; the crew’s tending and harvest fill paragraphs 1 and 2. (Kirsch & Mosenthal, 1990; Gorin & Embretson, 2006)

  3. Much to keep track of minor Working it out

    Two boxes must both be right from five tiles that cannot be reused, so each group’s whole role must be held in mind while three plausible-sounding tiles are rejected. (Sweller, 1988; Carpenter, Just & Shell, 1990)

Strategy: List what the people on Earth did and what the crew in orbit did, then fill each box with the tile that sums up its list, not one that echoes a single word of the excerpt.

Traps

  • Word match: Repeats striking words or phrases from the text, so it looks supported, but its meaning does not fit the question.
  • Twists what the text says: Uses the text's topic and ideas but changes what it says: who did it, how much, when, or why.

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Working it out, step by step

  1. Figure out what the question asks

    You need to finish a sentence about who did what. The first box tells what the scientists on Earth did. The second box tells what the astronauts in space did. On the test you drag a tile into each box. Here, you pick each box’s tile from a menu. Each tile can be used only once, and three tiles are left over.

  2. List what the scientists did

    • Spencer played “a crucial role in preparing the seeds that were sent hurtling into space” (paragraph 5).
    • Bosland and his colleagues “genetically engineered” the pepper seeds (paragraph 7). The footnote says they “combined parts of DNA from different plants to produce a new plant.”
    • Growing plants in space “relies on highly specialized technology over 50 years in the making” (paragraph 3).

    So the scientists made and got ready what the experiment needed: seeds and machines.

  3. List what the astronauts did

    • They “can adjust the color and intensity of the light” for the plants (paragraph 4).
    • “The team cracked open the door of the APH every day” to check on the plants (paragraph 6).
    • They “snip the stems of those that are ready for harvest” (paragraph 1).
    • They finish “after a 137-day growth cycle” (paragraph 2).

    So the astronauts cared for the plants until the peppers were ripe, then picked them.

  4. Match a tile to each list

    The scientists’ list is about making things: seeds, a new pepper and a high-tech habitat. The tile developing the materials and systems sums that up. Materials are the things you use, like seeds. Systems are machines with many parts, like the habitat. The astronauts’ list is about care and picking. The tile growing the plants to harvest sums that up.

  5. Rule out the other tiles

    • documenting the nutritional goals: no one in the article writes down nutrition goals.
    • analyzing the environment: the habitat’s sensors “control and monitor” conditions. The crew adjusts light and water, but that is caring for plants, not studying them.
    • determining the most nutritional plants: paragraph 9 says the data will “determine the nutritional content of crops.” But no one picks the healthiest plants. Bosland made one special kind.

    Watch out: The last tile repeats words from paragraph 9, so it is tempting for the first box. Matching a word is not the same as matching the job.

  6. Fill in both boxes

    Scientists on Earth develop the materials and systems for the experiment. Astronauts grow the plants to harvest. So the first box gets developing the materials and systems, and the second box gets growing the plants to harvest.

Why this answer and not the closest wrong one

The most tempting wrong tile for the first box is determining the most nutritional plants, because it echoes paragraph 9. But the scientists in the article prepared seeds, engineered a new pepper and built the habitat. That is developing materials and systems. Nobody compares plants to find the most nutritious one.

The original DOE question
Question 40 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 58 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test C English, page 58, question 40.

Question 75 of 120

2026 Practice Test C English, question 42

Uses the passage above: “Excerpt from “Growing Peppers on the ISS Is Just the Start of Space Farming””.

Question

How is the discussion of the genetic engineering of the peppers consumed on the ISS (paragraphs 7–8) important to the excerpt as a whole?

  • AIt provides a detail that helps the reader identify a particular variety of pepper consumed on the ISS.
  • BIt indicates that the peppers eaten on the ISS resulted from a collaboration between scientists and astronauts.
  • CIt allows the reader to understand how the peppers consumed on the ISS differ from most peppers grown on Earth.
  • DIt suggests that the peppers consumed on the ISS are of a type that could be grown in natural conditions.
Show the answer

Correct answer: C

The question asks how the discussion of the genetic engineering of the peppers consumed on the ISS (paragraphs 7–8) is important to the excerpt as a whole.

A. Incorrect. Although paragraph 7 names the NuMex Española Improved chile pepper as the variety grown on the ISS, this detail is not further developed and does not play a significant role in the overall focus of the excerpt. The passage emphasizes the process and purpose of developing the pepper rather than the pepper itself.

B. Incorrect. While paragraph 7 notes that Paul Bosland collaborated with colleagues to develop the seeds for the experiment, this fact alone is not the reason why the discussion of genetic engineering is important to the excerpt. The key point is that the pepper variety in the experiment was specifically modified to meet the needs of both astronauts and space cultivation. Who participated in the development of the peppers is secondary.

C. CORRECT. Paragraph 7 explains how specialists selected a pepper variety and genetically engineered the seeds for the experiment, while paragraph 8 adds that the variety developed also needed to provide astronauts with proper nutrition and be capable of growing in space. These details are important to the excerpt as a whole because they illustrate how the peppers grown on the ISS differ from most peppers cultivated on Earth in both purpose and design.

D. Incorrect. The details about the genetic engineering of the pepper seeds highlight that the variety was modified to suit specific space-related requirements. However, the excerpt does not discuss whether this type of pepper could be grown in natural conditions on Earth or if doing so is even a goal. Instead, these paragraphs are important because they explain how the pepper was adapted to address astronauts’ nutritional needs and the constraints of space farming.

Question analysis

Paragraphs 7–8 of the ISS pepper excerpt explain that a scientist at the Chile Pepper Institute genetically engineered the seeds grown aboard the space station. This text-structure question asks why that discussion matters to the excerpt as a whole. Students must look past what the two paragraphs say to what they add to the article’s larger account of farming in space.

NYS standards
  • 7R5 structure and genre features
  • 7R3 plot elements and ideas
Grade level
Grade 7 reading and task
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Explaining how a section contributes to a whole text is standard grade 7 reading. The two paragraphs in question are short and the four choices are brief single sentences, so the demand matches ordinary grade 7 structure questions.
Estimated difficulty
Moderate: several steps, or a close reading with one strong distractor.
What makes it hard
Evidence
Answered from several paragraphs or stanzas
Reading level
Passage: about grade 10, 890 words; question and choices: about grade 11, 98 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

The paragraphs are short, but the question asks what they add, not what they say, and the key states something the article leaves implicit. The trap is the collaboration choice: “Working with NASA” and Bosland’s colleagues suggest teamwork, and the excerpt as a whole does pair scientists with astronauts, but the peppers were developed on the ground. Students who instead pick the named variety have found a true detail without a purpose.

  1. How, not what moderate Working it out

    The stem asks why paragraphs 7–8 matter to the excerpt as a whole, so naming what they say, a variety bred at Bosland’s institute, is not enough; their contribution to the account must be stated. (Anderson & Krathwohl, 2001)

  2. Reading between the lines moderate Working it out

    The excerpt never says the space peppers differ from Earth peppers; that follows from a variety bred for “the nutritional needs of astronauts” and “the logistics of growing a plant in space.” (Graesser, Singer & Trabasso, 1994; Kintsch, 1998)

  3. Hard words minor Understanding the question

    Paragraph 8 turns on “cultivated,” “accommodate” and “logistics,” and paragraph 7 needs its footnote for “genetically engineered,” words a reader must decode to see why the variety is special. (Perfetti, 2007; Freedle & Kostin, 1993)

Strategy: Restate what paragraphs 7 and 8 say about how the pepper was developed and why, then ask what that information adds to the excerpt’s account of farming in space as a whole.

Traps

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Working it out, step by step

  1. Figure out what the question asks

    This question asks why paragraphs 7 and 8 matter to the whole article. Those paragraphs tell how the peppers’ seeds were made. Don’t just repeat what they say. Ask what they add to the article’s story of farming in space.

  2. Find what paragraphs 7 and 8 say

    Paragraph 7 says Paul Bosland and his colleagues “genetically engineered the NuMex Española Improved chile pepper seeds grown in Plant Habitat-04.” The footnote explains that they “combined parts of DNA from different plants to produce a new plant.” Paragraph 8 says Bosland developed “a variety that could accommodate both the nutritional needs of astronauts as well as the logistics of growing a plant in space.”

  3. Put it in plain words

    A variety is one special kind of a plant. To accommodate means to meet the needs of. Logistics are the practical details of getting a job done. So this pepper was made for space. It had to feed astronauts well. It also had to grow in a small box in orbit. The scientists even chose how hot it would be: “maybe the astronauts need a little spice in their life.”

  4. Check each choice

    • A is wrong. The pepper’s name is a true detail. But knowing its name is not why these paragraphs matter.
    • B is wrong. Bosland worked “with NASA” and his colleagues, not with the astronauts. The crew only grew the seeds he made.
    • C is right. The paragraphs show that this pepper was designed for space. Most peppers on Earth were never made to meet astronauts’ needs or to grow in orbit.
    • D is wrong. The paragraphs never say this pepper could grow in a normal field. They show it was made for space.

    Watch out: “Working with NASA” can sound like teamwork with the crew. That is the trap in B.

  5. Choose the answer

    These paragraphs show that the space peppers were specially made, unlike ordinary peppers. So the answer is C, “It allows the reader to understand how the peppers consumed on the ISS differ from most peppers grown on Earth.”

Why this answer and not the closest wrong one

B is the closest wrong answer, since the article does show scientists and astronauts working together. But paragraphs 7 and 8 are about seeds made on the ground by Bosland’s team. What they add is that the pepper was designed for astronauts’ needs and for space. That is how it differs from most peppers, as C says.

The original DOE question
Question 42 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 60 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test C English, page 60, question 42.

Question 76 of 120

2026 Practice Test C English, question 44
Passage New York City and the Hudson Valley Brickmaking Industry

New York City and the Hudson Valley Brickmaking Industry

(1) Residents of New York City cannot help but notice that the buildings they are surrounded by are predominantly made of brick. (2) Indeed, one author described the bricks that make up some of New York City’s most recognizable landmarks, including the Empire State Building and the arches of the Brooklyn Bridge, as “an inescapable presence.” (3) Nearly 65 million people visit New York City every year to see these and other attractions. (4) Why was so much brick used in buildings constructed during the century before World War II? (5) The answer involves an explosion in New York City’s population that caused an increase in demand for bricks starting in the mid-1800s and lasting into the 1940s that affected the area more than 100 miles up the Hudson River Valley toward Albany. (6) When demand later declined, the industry would entirely disappear.

(7) New York City’s appetite for brick was fueled by surging population and demand for safer building materials. (8) The city’s population ballooned from about 313,000 people in 1840 to more than 7 million a century later. (9) Following large, destructive fires in the 1830s, the city had enacted laws requiring the use of fire-resistant materials. (10) Bricks turned out to be an inexpensive way for builders to quickly throw together a lot of structures while keeping building owners and safety inspectors happy.

(11) The brickmaking industry in the Hudson Valley skyrocketed. (12) At the industry’s peak, approximately 130 brick factories crammed themselves into a 120-mile stretch along the Hudson River. (13) These factories employed much of the region’s population. (14) Population growth in the Hudson River Valley after the mid-1800s was substantial, though percentage increases were smaller than those in New York City. (15) Even though the factories operated only during the summers, their production was immense. (16) Hudson Valley factories shipped over a billion bricks on barges down the river to New York City annually. (17) In fact, The New York Times declared, “It’s fairly safe to assume that any brick building constructed between 1800 and 1950 includes some form of sediment from the banks of the Hudson River.”

(18) History has proven, however, that boom times eventually end. (19) Shifting architectural trends halted not only the Hudson Valley’s brickmaking boom, but its entire industry. (20) Starting early in the twentieth century, architects and builders increasingly favored steel, glass, and concrete instead of brick. (21) By 1979, reduced demand for brick had driven every Hudson Valley brick factory out of business.

(22) The Hudson Valley’s brickmaking legacy lives on in the architecture of New York City. (23) Throughout the city, famous and ordinary buildings stand as evidence of the remarkable productivity achieved by the Valley’s brickmakers. (24) The brick buildings surrounding New Yorkers today serve as a reminder that, as one amateur brick historian put it, “The skyline of New York City used to be the landscape of the Hudson River Valley.”

Question

Which revision of sentence 10 would best maintain the style established in the passage?

  • ABuilders turned to brick, which was an affordable material that met safety standards while satisfying the city’s large demand for buildings.
  • BFiguring out that bricks were inexpensive, builders used tons of them to satisfy inspectors and the city’s desperate construction needs.
  • CBuilders favored brick as a pleasingly economical way to meet significant construction demand while following municipal regulations.
  • DOnce builders realized that low-cost brick was a law-abiding way to meet the city’s building needs, they hardly ever used any other materials.
Show the answer

Correct answer: A

The question asks for the revision of sentence 10 that would best maintain the style established in the passage.

A. CORRECT. This sentence maintains the style established in the passage because it uses clear, precise, and formal language. The phrases “affordable material” and “met safety standards” are accurate and appropriate to the historical and technical context. The word “satisfying” is a precise replacement for “keeping building owners . . . happy” from the original sentence, preserving both the meaning and the formal tone of the passage.

B. Incorrect. Although the sentence conveys the same basic ideas as the passage, the phrases “Figuring out” and “tons of them” are informal and inconsistent with the passage’s formal style. In addition, the word “desperate” introduces a subjective and emotional tone, whereas the passage maintains an objective, fact-based style.

C. Incorrect. Although this sentence incorporates some formal vocabulary, the phrase “pleasingly economical” introduces an opinion that is inconsistent with formal historical writing. The passage’s style avoids subjective language and focuses on precise, factual descriptions of events and conditions. The phrase “municipal regulations” is also more technical and at the same time less clear and precise than the style established in the passage.

D. Incorrect. This sentence does not maintain the passage’s formal style because the phrase “law-abiding way” is awkward and informal for a historical description, and the expression “hardly ever” is conversational. The passage uses precise, objective language when describing building practices and material choices, avoiding casual or conversational phrasing.

Question analysis

This style question asks which revision of sentence 10 of the passage “New York City and the Hudson Valley Brickmaking Industry” best keeps the passage’s style. The original says bricks let builders “quickly throw together a lot of structures” while keeping owners and inspectors “happy.” Students compare four rewrites for wording that sounds casual, emotional or out of place.

NYS standards
  • 7W2f informative writing style
  • 7L3a precise and concise language
Grade level
Grade 7 reading and task
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Choosing wording that fits a passage’s formal style is regular grade 7 writing work. The four rewrites are single sentences on a familiar subject, but they differ in small word choices that must each be weighed, a typical grade 7 demand.
Estimated difficulty
Moderate: several steps, or a close reading with one strong distractor.
Evidence
Answered from one sentence or line
Reading level
Passage: about grade 12, 465 words; question and choices: about grade 13, 94 words.
Corrected from the DOE handbook
  • A misquotation of the passage in the explanation was corrected.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

Sentence 10 is the passage’s most casual sentence, so the task is to raise its register without overshooting. Students who equate formality with long words fall for the rewrite with “pleasingly economical” and “municipal regulations,” which sounds official but adds an opinion. Others overlook the chatty “tons of them,” or miss that “hardly ever used any other materials” claims more than the original does. The plain, accurate key can look too ordinary to be best.

  1. A very close wrong answer moderate Choosing the answer

    The “pleasingly economical” rewrite carries the same three ideas as the key, low cost, heavy demand and the rules, in grander words; only its opinion word and the stiffer “municipal regulations” set it apart. (Embretson & Wetzel, 1987; Gorin & Embretson, 2006; Ascalon et al., 2007)

  2. Every choice must be checked minor Choosing the answer

    Each rewrite hides its off-key words among neutral ones, “tons of them” and “desperate,” “pleasingly,” “hardly ever,” so every phrase must be checked, not the overall sound. (Embretson & Wetzel, 1987)

  3. Something you must already know minor Working it out

    Students must already know what counts as formal written English, and the passage’s own lively verbs, “ballooned,” “skyrocketed” and “crammed themselves,” make its style harder to pin down. (Anderson & Krathwohl, 2001)

Strategy: Spot what makes sentence 10 sound casual, then check every phrase of each rewrite, not just its overall sound, for chatty, emotional or opinionated wording, and make sure the facts stay the same.

Traps

The wrong answers, classified

What was corrected from the DOE handbook, and why

  • Explanation: The handbook’s explanation of Option A calls “satisfying” a replacement for “keeping owners happy” from the original sentence. Sentence 10 ends “while keeping building owners and safety inspectors happy,” so the site now quotes “keeping building owners . . . happy.”

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Working it out, step by step

  1. Figure out what the question asks

    This question is about style, the way a passage sounds. You need a new version of sentence 10 that sounds like the rest of the passage. The passage is an informational article. It uses clear, serious, factual language. It has no slang or chatty phrases, and the writer doesn’t share feelings.

  2. Spot the casual words in sentence 10

    Sentence 10 says: “Bricks turned out to be an inexpensive way for builders to quickly throw together a lot of structures while keeping building owners and safety inspectors happy.” Three phrases sound like everyday talk: “throw together,” “a lot of,” and “keeping … happy.” Here is the rule with a made-up example. Casual: The kids threw together a ton of posters. Formal: The students quickly made many posters.

  3. See how A keeps the meaning

    Choice A says the same things in formal words. “Inexpensive” becomes “affordable material.” Keeping the safety inspectors happy becomes “met safety standards.” The word “satisfying” takes the place of keeping the building owners happy. And the many buildings become the city’s “large demand for buildings.” Nothing is added, and no feelings slip in.

  4. Check each choice

    • A is right. It is clear, exact and serious, like the rest of the passage.
    • B is wrong. “Figuring out” and “tons of them” are chatty. “Desperate” adds strong feeling.
    • C is wrong. “Pleasingly” gives the writer’s opinion. “Municipal regulations” is stiff and less clear than plain words like city rules.
    • D is wrong. “Hardly ever” is chatty, and “law-abiding way” is awkward. It also claims builders almost never used other materials. Sentence 10 never says that.

    Watch out: C uses long, official-sounding words, so it can seem the most formal. But formal writing still avoids opinions.

  5. Choose the answer

    Only one version sounds like the rest of the passage and keeps the meaning. So the answer is A, “Builders turned to brick, which was an affordable material that met safety standards while satisfying the city’s large demand for buildings.”

Why this answer and not the closest wrong one

C is the closest wrong answer. It carries the same three ideas as A: low cost, high demand and the rules. But “pleasingly economical” tells you how the writer feels about brick. The passage reports facts and doesn’t judge. A says the same things plainly and without an opinion.

The original DOE question
Question 44 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 65 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test C English, page 65, question 44. This is the DOE’s version, before the corrections listed in the analysis.
The passage “New York City and the Hudson Valley Brickmaking Industry” as printed (page 64)The passage “New York City and the Hudson Valley Brickmaking Industry” as printed on page 64 of the DOE handbook.

Question 77 of 120

2026 Practice Test C English, question 46

Uses the passage above: “New York City and the Hudson Valley Brickmaking Industry”.

Question

Which phrase should be added to the beginning of sentence 11 to provide the best transition from the ideas in sentence 10?

  • AWhile adapting to new uses for brick,
  • BBecause the building boom preferred brick,
  • CAs a result of New York City’s building boom,
  • DAlthough reliance on brick became the norm,
Show the answer

Correct answer: C

The question asks which phrase should be added to the beginning of sentence 11 to provide the best transition from the ideas in sentence 10.

A. Incorrect. The phrase “While adapting to new uses for brick” is not the best transition to place at the beginning of sentence 11 because it does not accurately describe the content of sentence 10. Although sentence 10 conveys that brick was a low-cost way for builders to adapt to two new demands—New York City’s need for a lot of new buildings and its recently changed fire-safety laws—neither sentence 10 nor any of the preceding sentences in the second paragraph (sentences 7–10) indicate that builders found any new ways to use bricks. The focus is on the amount of bricks used, rather than any changes in how the builders used them.

B. Incorrect. Although the phrase “Because the building boom preferred brick” accurately indicates a cause-and-effect relationship between builders using a lot of bricks and the skyrocketing brick production mentioned in sentence 11, it overstates the position of builders described in sentence 10. While sentence 10 says that builders found bricks to be a low-cost way of meeting several needs, it does not say that builders actually preferred to use bricks. In addition, the phrase is awkward and imprecise because a “building boom” cannot literally “prefer” something. Thus, this is not the best transition phrase to add to sentence 11.

C. CORRECT. The transition phrase “As a result of New York City’s building boom” clearly conveys the cause-and-effect relationship between sentence 10, which describes a trend among New York City’s builders to use a lot of bricks to “quickly throw together a lot of structures while keeping building owners and safety inspectors happy,” and sentence 11, which points out a result of the building trend: brickmaking skyrocketed in the nearby Hudson River Valley.

D. Incorrect. The word “although” in the transition phrase “Although reliance on brick became the norm,” incorrectly indicates an opposing relationship that does not exist between the ideas in sentences 10 and 11. Sentence 10 explains how using a lot of bricks helped New York City’s builders meet the demands of a building boom and new safety regulations. As sentence 16 details, many of the bricks made in the Hudson River Valley were shipped “down the river to New York City.” Thus, it is not logical that the skyrocketing growth of the brickmaking industry in the Hudson River Valley described in sentence 11 happened “although” or despite New York City builders using a lot of brick. Therefore, this transition is not the best one to place at the beginning of sentence 11.

Question analysis

This transition question asks which phrase should open sentence 11 of the brickmaking passage, where the third paragraph begins with the Hudson Valley industry that “skyrocketed,” to connect it with sentence 10 about how New York City’s builders used brick. Students must name the relationship between the two paragraphs, and more than one phrase sounds reasonable on a first reading.

NYS standards
  • 7W2d transitions in informative writing
Grade level
Grade 7 reading and task
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Choosing a transition that shows how ideas relate is standard grade 7 writing work. Here the link crosses from one paragraph to the next, and each phrase must be checked for the relationship it signals and for accurate wording, a typical grade 7 demand.
Estimated difficulty
Moderate: several steps, or a close reading with one strong distractor.
What makes it hard
Evidence
Answered from several paragraphs or stanzas
Reading level
Passage: about grade 12, 465 words; question and choices: about grade 5, 49 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

Most students sense that the Hudson Valley boom follows from New York City’s appetite for brick, which rules out the contrast of “Although” quickly. The real decision is between two phrases that both signal a cause: one names the building boom accurately, the other gives the boom a preference it cannot have and that sentence 10 never states. The question rewards checking a transition’s own words as well as the relationship it signals.

  1. How sentences fit together moderate Working it out

    The phrase must bridge two paragraphs: sentence 10 ends the account of New York City’s builders turning to brick, and sentence 11 opens with the Hudson Valley industry that “skyrocketed,” its result. (Halliday & Hasan, 1976)

  2. A very close wrong answer moderate Choosing the answer

    The “Because the building boom preferred brick” phrase signals the same cause and effect as the key; only its wording, a boom that “preferred” something, separates the two. (Embretson & Wetzel, 1987; Gorin & Embretson, 2006; Ascalon et al., 2007)

Strategy: Before reading the phrases, name how sentence 11 relates to sentences 7–10, then pick the phrase that signals that relationship and is also accurate and logical in its own words.

Traps

  • Wrong transition: A connecting word or phrase that signals the wrong relationship, such as contrast where the idea continues.
  • Changes the meaning: A revision is correct English but no longer says what the writer meant.
  • Wordy, vague or informal: A revision is grammatical but wordy, imprecise or too casual for the passage.

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Working it out, step by step

  1. Figure out what the question asks

    A transition is a word or phrase that shows how two ideas connect. You need one to start sentence 11. It must show how sentence 11 follows from sentence 10. It must also make sense in its own words.

  2. Read sentences 10 and 11

    Sentence 10 says bricks were a cheap way for builders “to quickly throw together a lot of structures.” That ends a paragraph about New York City’s huge demand for brick. Sentence 11 starts a new paragraph: “The brickmaking industry in the Hudson Valley skyrocketed.” Skyrocketed means it grew very fast.

  3. Name the link between them

    Why did the brick industry grow so fast? Because New York City was building so much with brick. So sentence 10 is the cause, and sentence 11 is the effect. Here is a made-up example: It rained all week. As a result, the river rose. You need a phrase that shows cause and effect, in accurate words.

  4. Check each phrase

    • A is wrong. The passage never mentions “new uses for brick.” Builders used more brick, not new kinds. “While” also hides the cause.
    • B is wrong. It shows cause and effect, but a building boom can’t “prefer” anything. Only people can. And sentence 10 says brick was cheap, not that builders liked it best.
    • C is right. “As a result of” shows cause and effect. A building boom, a time of very fast building, matches sentences 7–10.
    • D is wrong. “Although” signals a contrast, a turn against the idea before. There is no contrast here.

    Watch out: B gets the link right. Its words are what make it wrong.

  5. Choose the answer

    With the phrase in place, sentence 11 reads: As a result of New York City’s building boom, the brickmaking industry in the Hudson Valley skyrocketed. So the answer is C, “As a result of New York City’s building boom,”

Why this answer and not the closest wrong one

B is the closest wrong answer. Like C, it shows that the Valley’s growth was caused by the building boom. But it says the boom “preferred” brick, as if a boom could have opinions. Sentence 10 also never says brick was preferred. C names the cause in clear, accurate words.

The original DOE question
Question 46 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 67 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test C English, page 67, question 46.

Question 78 of 120

2026 Practice Test C English, question 47

Uses the passage above: “New York City and the Hudson Valley Brickmaking Industry”.

Question

Which sentence would best follow sentence 20 to support ideas in the fourth paragraph (sentences 18–21)?

  • AAt first many people thought the new materials did not look as strong as brick, but eventually the public embraced the trend.
  • BIncreasingly expensive shipping and labor costs also drove up the costs for brickmaking factories.
  • CThe Flatiron building, completed in 1902, is a notable example of an early steel-framed building.
  • DThe more that New York City builders chose to use these materials, the fewer bricks they bought.
Show the answer

Correct answer: D

The question asks which sentence would best follow sentence 20 to support ideas in the fourth paragraph (sentences 18–21).

A. Incorrect. Although the information in the sentence that consumers eventually “embraced the trend” of building with steel, glass, and concrete suggests that demand for those building materials likely increased, this detail does not clearly link increased use of steel, glass, and concrete to lower demand for brick. Therefore, this sentence would not be the best choice to follow sentence 20 to support the ideas in the fourth paragraph.

B. Incorrect. This sentence introduces a different cause of the decline of brickmaking—economic costs—rather than providing support or explanation for the idea that the shift to steel, glass, and concrete caused lower demand for brick. Thus, this sentence is not the best one to follow sentence 20.

C. Incorrect. Although this sentence adds detail related to sentence 20 by giving an example of steel use, it shifts focus toward a specific building rather than the overall trend in material preference. It does not help explain the link between a growing preference for steel, glass, and concrete and declining demand for brick. Therefore, this sentence would not best follow sentence 20 to support the ideas in the fourth paragraph.

D. CORRECT. This sentence supports the ideas in the fourth paragraph. It would best follow sentence 20 because it directly states the cause-and-effect relationship between builders’ preference for steel, glass, and concrete described in sentence 20 and the resulting decline in brick use detailed in sentence 21. It also supports the idea in sentence 19 that shifting architectural trends ended the entire Hudson Valley brickmaking industry.

Question analysis

This supporting-details question asks which sentence would best follow sentence 20 of the brickmaking passage. Sentence 20 sits in the fourth paragraph, which tells how a turn toward steel, glass and concrete ended the Hudson Valley brick industry. Each option is plausible and about building, so students must judge which one best supports the paragraph’s point at that spot.

NYS standards
  • 7W2b developing a topic
Grade level
Grade 7 reading and task
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Choosing a sentence that supports a paragraph’s point is regular grade 7 writing work. The paragraph is only four sentences long and the options are short, but each one relates to the topic, so the choice rests on a close judgment of relevance.
Estimated difficulty
Moderate: several steps, or a close reading with one strong distractor.
Evidence
Answered from one paragraph or stanza
Reading level
Passage: about grade 12, 465 words; question and choices: about grade 9, 81 words.
Corrected from the DOE handbook
  • An inaccurate statement in the explanation was corrected.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

The paragraph’s logic has a gap between a change in taste and the closing of the factories, and only one option fills it. The Flatiron example is the strongest lure because it follows naturally from steel in sentence 20, and the shipping-costs option tempts students who see that the paragraph explains a decline. Both are reasonable sentences; they fail because they do not link the new materials to fewer bricks.

  1. How sentences fit together moderate Working it out

    Sentence 20 says builders favored steel, glass and concrete; sentence 21 says reduced demand closed every factory. The missing step, that the new materials cut brick purchases, is what the added sentence must supply. (Halliday & Hasan, 1976)

  2. Every choice must be checked minor Choosing the answer

    All four options concern building materials or brickmaking, and three would be true and on topic somewhere in the passage, so each must be judged at this exact spot. (Embretson & Wetzel, 1987)

Strategy: Restate the point of sentences 18–21 in one sentence, then ask of each option whether it would help a reader see how that point follows from sentence 20, not just whether it is true and related.

Traps

  • Off the point: Adds or keeps something that does not support the paragraph's or the passage's focus, or an introduction or conclusion that misses the main point.

The wrong answers, classified

What was corrected from the DOE handbook, and why

  • Explanation: The handbook’s explanation of Option D ends “It also supports, with a detail about the closing of the last factory, the idea in sentence 18 that the entire Hudson Valley brickmaking industry was ended.” Option D (“The more that New York City builders chose to use these materials, the fewer bricks they bought.”) contains no detail about a factory closing; the closing of every factory is sentence 21, already in the passage. The idea that the entire industry ended is in sentence 19 (“Shifting architectural trends halted not only the Hudson Valley’s brickmaking boom, but its entire industry”); sentence 18 says only that “boom times eventually end.” The site now says “It also supports the idea in sentence 19 that shifting architectural trends ended the entire Hudson Valley brickmaking industry.” Option D is still the answer.

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Working it out, step by step

  1. Figure out what the question asks

    You need a sentence to add right after sentence 20. It must support the main idea of the fourth paragraph, sentences 18–21. To support means to help explain or prove. So first find that main idea. Then find the gap after sentence 20.

  2. Read sentences 19 to 21

    Sentence 19 gives the main idea: “Shifting architectural trends halted not only the Hudson Valley’s brickmaking boom, but its entire industry.” Architectural trends are changes in how buildings are designed. Sentence 20 says builders “increasingly favored steel, glass, and concrete instead of brick.” Sentence 21 says “reduced demand for brick had driven every Hudson Valley brick factory out of business.”

  3. Find the missing step

    Sentence 20 is about builders liking new materials. Sentence 21 is about factories closing. A step is missing in between. Builders who used new materials bought fewer bricks. That is the link from sentence 20 to sentence 21. The new sentence should spell it out.

  4. Check each choice

    • A is wrong. It is about what people thought of the new materials. It never says fewer bricks were bought.
    • B is wrong. It adds a different cause, rising costs. The paragraph blames changing building styles.
    • C is wrong. The Flatiron Building is one example of steel. It doesn’t show how steel cut the demand for brick.
    • D is right. “These materials” points back to steel, glass and concrete in sentence 20. It says that more of them meant fewer bricks, which leads straight into sentence 21.

    Watch out: C fits sentence 20 nicely, since both are about steel. But one building doesn’t explain why the factories closed.

  5. Choose the answer

    D links the new building styles to fewer bricks, which explains why every factory closed. It also supports the idea in sentence 19 that changing trends ended the whole industry. So the answer is D, “The more that New York City builders chose to use these materials, the fewer bricks they bought.”

Why this answer and not the closest wrong one

C is the closest wrong answer. It follows sentence 20 smoothly, because the Flatiron Building is a steel building. But the paragraph needs to explain why the brick factories closed. Only D says that using more steel, glass and concrete meant buying fewer bricks. That is the missing link.

The original DOE question
Question 47 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 68 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test C English, page 68, question 47. This is the DOE’s version, before the corrections listed in the analysis.

Question 79 of 120

2026 Practice Test C English, question 49

Question

Read these sentences.

(1) Jordan rehearsed his role for weeks.

(2) He delivered his lines with ease.

(3) His performance was met with a burst of applause from the audience.

What is the best way to combine the sentences to clarify the relationship between ideas?

  • AThough Jordan had rehearsed his role for weeks, when he delivered his lines with ease, his performance was met with a burst of applause from the audience.
  • BJordan had rehearsed his role for weeks, yet he delivered his lines with ease, so his performance was met with a burst of applause from the audience.
  • CBecause Jordan had rehearsed his role for weeks, he delivered his lines with ease, and his performance was met with a burst of applause from the audience.
  • DJordan had rehearsed his role for weeks, so he delivered his lines with ease, but his performance was met with a burst of applause from the audience.
Show the answer

Correct answer: C

The question asks for the best way to combine the sentences to clarify the relationship between ideas.

A. Incorrect. The conjunction “though” does not make sense with the rest of the sentence since Jordan likely received applause for his performance because he rehearsed, not in spite of rehearsing.

B. Incorrect. The conjunction “yet” is incongruous with the rest of the sentence because Jordan was successful at delivering his lines likely because he rehearsed, not in spite of rehearsing.

C. CORRECT. This combination of sentences clarifies the relationship among the ideas in a way that is logical. Jordan was able to deliver his lines with ease and receive applause from the audience because he had rehearsed. “Because” is the best choice for conveying the cause-and-effect relationship between rehearsing and a successful performance.

D. Incorrect. This combination of sentences correctly expresses the relationship between rehearsing and delivering lines with ease by linking the ideas with the word “so”; however, the word “but” incorrectly links the delivery of lines with applause, suggesting that the burst of applause from the audience was unexpected.

Question analysis

This sentence-combining question gives three short sentences about Jordan, who rehearsed his role for weeks, delivered his lines with ease and drew a burst of applause, and asks for the best way to join them. Every version keeps the same facts, so students must judge which connecting words show how rehearsing, performing and the audience’s response relate.

NYS standards
  • 7L1 grammar and usage conventions
  • 7L3 knowledge of language
Grade level
Grade 7 reading and task
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Combining sentences with connecting words that show how ideas relate is a grade 7 language skill. The three sentences are short and describe an everyday event, and the versions differ only in their connecting words, so the demand is typical.
Estimated difficulty
Straightforward: two steps or one careful reading.
Evidence
Answered from one sentence or line
Reading level
Question and choices: about grade 7, 150 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

The three facts form a simple chain of causes, and most students see that rehearsal explains the easy delivery. Points are lost by checking only the first connector: one version starts with a correct “so” and then joins the applause with “but,” as if it were a surprise. Versions opening with “Though” or using “yet” fail on the first link, so they are easier to rule out.

  1. Every choice must be checked moderate Choosing the answer

    Every version runs 27 words and keeps the same three facts, differing only in its two connecting words, so a wrong one can hide at the end, as “but” does after a correct “so.” (Embretson & Wetzel, 1987)

  2. How sentences fit together minor Working it out

    Students must first see the chain the sentences imply, weeks of rehearsal causing an easy delivery and the easy delivery earning applause, before any connector can be judged. (Halliday & Hasan, 1976)

Strategy: Before reading the choices, decide how each sentence leads to the next, then check every connecting word in each version, since one wrong word anywhere makes the whole combined sentence wrong.

Traps

  • Wrong transition: A connecting word or phrase that signals the wrong relationship, such as contrast where the idea continues.

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Working it out, step by step

  1. Figure out what the question asks

    You need the best way to join three short sentences into one. The joined sentence must show how the ideas connect. All four choices keep the same facts. They differ only in their connecting words. So check every connecting word in each choice.

  2. See how the three ideas connect

    Sentence 1: “Jordan rehearsed his role for weeks.” To rehearse means to practice. Sentence 2: “He delivered his lines with ease.” With ease means easily. Sentence 3: the audience burst into applause. These ideas form a chain. Practice made his lines easy. A strong performance then earned the applause. Nothing here is surprising.

  3. Learn what each connecting word signals

    • Because and so show cause and effect: I studied, so I passed.
    • Though, yet and but show a contrast, something surprising: I studied, but I still failed.
    • And simply adds the next idea: I studied, and I passed.
  4. Check each choice

    • A is wrong. “Though” makes the practice sound like it should have hurt him.
    • B is wrong. “Yet” makes his easy delivery sound surprising after weeks of practice.
    • C is right. “Because” shows that practice caused his easy delivery. “And” adds the applause that followed.
    • D is wrong. “So” is right, but “but” makes the applause sound unexpected.

    Watch out: D starts well with “so.” The mistake hides in its second connecting word.

  5. Choose the answer

    Only one version shows that practice led to success, with no false surprise. So the answer is C, “Because Jordan had rehearsed his role for weeks, he delivered his lines with ease, and his performance was met with a burst of applause from the audience.”

Why this answer and not the closest wrong one

D is the closest wrong answer, since its first half uses “so” correctly. But “but” tells the reader the applause was a surprise. A smooth performance after weeks of practice should earn applause. C uses “because” and “and,” which show the real chain of events.

The original DOE question
Question 49 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 71 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test C English, page 71, question 49.

Question 80 of 120

2026 Practice Test C Math, question 2

Question

If (8÷m)+4=20(8 \div m) + 4 = 20, what is the value of m?

  • A13\frac{1}{3}
  • B12\frac{1}{2}
  • C2
  • D3
Show the answer

Correct answer: B

The quantity (8÷m)(8 \div m) means the same as 8m\frac{8}{m}, so the equation can be rewritten:

(8m)+4=20\left(\frac{8}{m}\right) + 4 = 20

Subtract 4 from both sides:

(8m)=16\left(\frac{8}{m}\right) = 16

Multiply both sides of the equation by m:

8=16m8 = 16m

Solve for m:

(816)=m\left(\frac{8}{16}\right) = m

Simplify:

(8(÷8)16(÷8))=(12)\left(\frac{8(\div 8)}{16(\div 8)}\right) = \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)

Question analysis

This equation question asks for the value of m when 8 divided by m, plus 4, equals 20. Students undo the addition, then work out what m must be for 8 divided by it to give the value left. Because m is the divisor rather than the number being divided, the last step needs care.

NYS standards
Grade level
Grade 7 content, by NYS standard
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Undoing an addition and then a division is typical two-step grade 7 equation work. The unknown sitting in a denominator is less common than px + q = r, which makes the last step easier to get backward.
Estimated difficulty
Straightforward: two steps or one careful reading.
Solution
3 steps
Reading level
Question and choices: about grade 6, 10 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

Undoing the + 4 is routine, so nearly all the risk sits in the last step, where m divides 8 rather than being divided by it. Students who read 8 ÷ m = 16 as asking how many 8s make 16 answer 2, and substituting it back, 8 ÷ 2 + 4 = 8, shows at once that it fails. The right value makes 8 ÷ 1/2 = 16, a division that gives a larger number, which feels wrong but is correct.

  1. Error-prone arithmetic moderate Working it out

    The unknown is the divisor, so 8 ÷ m = 16 ends in m = 8 ÷ 16, a quotient less than 1; the familiar order, 16 ÷ 8, gives a whole number instead. (Brown & Burton, 1978; Junker & Sijtsma, 2001)

  2. Something you must already know minor Working it out

    Students must see that (8 ÷ m) is the fraction 8/m and that freeing m from a denominator means multiplying both sides by it, a move grade 7 equations rarely need. (Anderson & Krathwohl, 2001)

Strategy: Subtract 4 from both sides, multiply both sides by m so the unknown is no longer in a denominator, then divide; check by substituting your value back into the equation.

Traps

  • Wrong operation: Adds instead of multiplying, divides the wrong way round, turns a ratio or rate upside down, or undoes a step in the wrong direction (subtracts what should be added back).

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Worked solution, step by step

Formulas used

Keeping an equation balanced
if a=b, then a−c=b−c and a×c=b×c\text{if } a = b \text{, then } a - c = b - c \text{ and } a \times c = b \times c
a and b are the two sides of an equation, and c is any number. An equation is like a balanced scale. Subtract the same number from both sides, or multiply both sides by the same number, and it stays balanced. That is how you get the unknown by itself.
  1. Sort out the question

    The equation is (8÷m)+4=20(8 \div m) + 4 = 20. You need the value of m. Here m is the number you divide 8 by. In words: 8 divided by some number, plus 4, makes 20.

  2. Undo the plus 4

    A fraction bar means divide, so 8÷m8 \div m is the same as 8m\frac{8}{m}. Subtract 4 from both sides to undo the plus 4:

    8m+4−4=20−4\frac{8}{m} + 4 - 4 = 20 - 4

    8m=16\frac{8}{m} = 16

    Now 8 divided by m equals 16.

    Watch out: adding 4 instead gives 24 on the right. That leads to choice A, 1/3, or to D, 3.

  3. Get m out of the bottom

    m is on the bottom of the fraction. Multiply both sides by m to free it:

    8=16×m8 = 16 \times m

    Now divide both sides by 16:

    m=816=8÷816÷8=12m = \frac{8}{16} = \frac{8 \div 8}{16 \div 8} = \frac{1}{2}

    8 goes into both 8 and 16, so 8/16 simplifies to 1/2.

  4. Choose the answer

    Watch out: it is tempting to divide 16 by 8 and get 2, choice C. But ask yourself: 8 divided by what number makes 16? To get an answer bigger than 8, you must divide by a number less than 1.

    So the answer is B, 1/2.

Check your answer

Put 1/2 back into the equation. How many halves are in 8? There are 16, so 8÷12=168 \div \frac{1}{2} = 16. Then 16+4=2016 + 4 = 20. That matches the equation, so m = 1/2 is right.

The original DOE question
Question 2 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 75 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test C Math, page 75, question 2.

Question 81 of 120

2026 Practice Test C Math, question 3

Question

6x=x−1,6806x = x - 1{,}680

What is the value of x in the equation shown above?

  • A336
  • B240
  • C−240
  • D−336
Show the answer

Correct answer: D

Simplify 6x=x−1,6806x = x - 1{,}680. First, subtract x from both sides of the equation. Then, divide both sides by 5.

6x−x=x−x−1,6806x - x = x - x - 1{,}680

5x=−1,6805x = -1{,}680

5x5=−1,6805\frac{5x}{5} = \frac{-1{,}680}{5}

x=−336x = -336

Question analysis

This algebra question gives the equation 6x = x − 1,680, with x on both sides, and asks for the value of x. Students collect the x terms on one side and divide by the coefficient that remains. The choices pair two sizes with both signs, so every move across the equals sign has to keep its sign right.

NYS standards
  • 8.EE.7b linear equations with rational coefficients
  • 7.NS.2b rational number division
Grade level
Grade 8 content, by NYS standard
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 An unknown on both sides of the equals sign is a grade 8 topic, yet gathering the x terms here takes one subtraction and one division, the same work as a two-step grade 7 equation.
Estimated difficulty
Straightforward: two steps or one careful reading.
What makes it hard
Solution
2 steps
Reading level
Question and choices: about grade 5, 12 words.
Corrected from the DOE handbook
  • A line of the explanation’s working, printed without its fraction bars and equals sign, was restored.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

Collecting the x terms takes one subtraction, and the only way the method goes wrong is moving x across the equals sign, which turns the 5 into a 7. The sign is the bigger hazard: 6x equals x minus a large number, so x must be negative, yet the division 1,680 ÷ 5 is done on positive numbers. Substituting −336 back gives −2,016 on each side, which confirms both the size and the sign.

  1. Error-prone arithmetic moderate Working it out

    Subtracting x from both sides leaves 5x = −1,680, and 1,680 ÷ 5 = 336 has to be worked out by hand while the negative sign is carried through to the result. (Brown & Burton, 1978; Junker & Sijtsma, 2001)

  2. A very close wrong answer moderate Choosing the answer

    The choices are two sizes, 336 and 240, each offered with both signs, so 336 and −336 are written the same except for the minus; only tracking the sign of 1,680 separates them. (Embretson & Wetzel, 1987; Gorin & Embretson, 2006; Ascalon et al., 2007)

Strategy: Subtract x from both sides so the unknown appears once, divide by the coefficient that is left, and substitute the result into both sides to check that they match.

Traps

  • Negatives and direction: Arithmetic with negative numbers, the order of a subtraction, or direction on a number line. (Moving a term across the equals sign without changing its sign is a faulty procedure.)
  • A faulty procedure: A systematic but wrong procedure: adding fractions straight across, applying an exponent to each term of a sum, dropping a sign when moving a term.

The wrong answers, classified

What was corrected from the DOE handbook, and why

  • Explanation: The DOE’s explanation page for this question is one of the pages replaced in the appendix, and on it the step between 5x = −1,680 and x = −336 shows only 5x over 5 and −1,680 over 5: the two fraction bars and the equals sign between them are missing, so the line is not an equation. The sentence above it says to divide both sides by 5, and the 2022–23 guide, which first printed this explanation, prints the step as 5x/5 = −1,680/5. The site shows 5x/5 = −1,680/5.

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Worked solution, step by step

Formulas used

Keeping an equation balanced
if a=b, then a−c=b−c and ac=bc\text{if } a = b \text{, then } a - c = b - c \text{ and } \frac{a}{c} = \frac{b}{c}
a and b are the two sides of an equation, and c is any number (not 0 when you divide). An equation is like a balanced scale. Subtract the same thing from both sides, or divide both sides by the same number, and it stays balanced.
Dividing a negative by a positive
(−a)÷b=−(a÷b)(-a) \div b = -(a \div b)
a and b are positive numbers, so −a is negative. Divide the sizes as usual. Then give the answer a minus sign, because a negative divided by a positive is negative.
  1. Sort out the question

    The equation is 6x=x−1,6806x = x - 1{,}680. You need the value of x. Here 6x means 6 times x. The unknown x is on both sides. So first gather it on one side.

  2. Subtract x from both sides

    Take x away from both sides. On the right, x − x is 0, so only −1,680 is left:

    6x−x=x−x−1,6806x - x = x - x - 1{,}680

    5x=−1,6805x = -1{,}680

    Six x’s take away one x leaves five x’s.

    Watch out: moving x to the left without changing its sign gives 7x. Dividing by 7 then leads to choice C, −240, or B, 240.

  3. Divide both sides by 5

    5x means 5 times x. Divide both sides by 5 to undo it:

    5x5=−1,6805\frac{5x}{5} = \frac{-1{,}680}{5}

    Find the size first. Split 1,680 into 1,500 + 180:

    1,500÷5+180÷5=300+36=3361{,}500 \div 5 + 180 \div 5 = 300 + 36 = 336

    A negative divided by a positive is negative:

    x=−336x = -336

  4. Choose the answer

    Watch out: the minus sign is easy to drop. Positive 336 is choice A. Carry the sign of −1,680 all the way to the end.

    So the answer is D, −336.

Check your answer

Put −336 into both sides. The left side is 6×(−336)=−2,0166 \times (-336) = -2{,}016. The right side is −336−1,680=−2,016-336 - 1{,}680 = -2{,}016. The two sides match, so x = −336 is right.

The original DOE question
Question 3 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 76 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test C Math, page 76, question 3. This is the DOE’s version, before the corrections listed in the analysis.

Question 82 of 120

2026 Practice Test C Math, question 5

Question

Maya read n pages for her English homework. Trevor read three times as many pages as Maya. Together, Maya and Trevor read 12 more pages than Ali read. Write an expression that shows how many pages Ali read, in terms of n.

Enter your answer in the space provided. Enter only your answer.

On the test you build the answer on an on-screen keypad; here, type it. Use ^ for a power, sqrt( ) or √ for a root, pi for π, and <= or >= for ≤ and ≥.

Show the answer

Correct answer: 4n – 12

Let n represent the number of pages that Maya read.

Trevor read three times as many pages as Maya: Trevor’s pages =3n= 3n

To find how many pages they read together, add Maya’s and Trevor’s pages: n+3n=4nn + 3n = 4n

This means that together, they read 4n4n pages.

Ali read 12 fewer pages than Maya and Trevor read together. So 12 should be subtracted from the total:

Ali’s pages =4n−12= 4n - 12

Question analysis

Maya reads n pages, Trevor reads three times as many, and together they read 12 more pages than Ali. Students type an expression in n for the number of pages Ali read. It tests writing and simplifying expressions from words, and the comparison with Ali has to be translated with care.

NYS standards
  • 6.EE.6 variables representing unknown numbers
  • 6.EE.2a writing algebraic expressions
  • 6.EE.3 generating equivalent expressions
Grade level
Grade 6 content, by NYS standard
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Writing an expression from words is grade 6 content, but this chains three relationships, and the last compares the pair with Ali rather than describing Ali directly. Typing the answer with no choices to compare adds risk.
Estimated difficulty
Moderate: several steps, or a close reading with one strong distractor.
Solution
3 steps
Reading level
Question and choices: about grade 3, 52 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

Building the pair's total, n + 3n = 4n, is quick; the question turns on the direction of the last comparison. The pair read more than Ali, so Ali's count is the smaller one, yet the word more pulls toward adding 12. Testing n = 10 settles it: Maya and Trevor read 40 pages together, so Ali must have read 28, not 52.

  1. Turning words into math moderate Understanding the question

    “Together, Maya and Trevor read 12 more pages than Ali read” compares the pair with Ali, so Ali read 12 fewer than 4n, though the word more invites adding 12. (Hegarty, Mayer & Monk, 1995; Koedinger & Nathan, 2004)

  2. Variables instead of numbers minor Understanding the question

    Every count is written in terms of n, so there is no page total to check an expression against unless the student picks a value for n and tests it. (Koedinger & Nathan, 2004; Enright, Morley & Sheehan, 2002)

  3. An answer in an unexpected form minor Choosing the answer

    The expression is typed into a box with no choices to compare, so an entry such as 4n + 12 gets no warning that the comparison was read backward. (Enright, Morley & Sheehan, 2002)

Strategy: Write Trevor's pages and the pair's total in terms of n, then test your expression with a value such as n = 10 to check that the pair really read 12 more than Ali.

Traps

  • Follows a key word: Picks the operation from a single word rather than the situation: "removed" so subtract, "of" so multiply, "more" so add, when the situation needs something else.
  • Answers a different question: A choice is right for another quantity: the other unknown, the rest instead of the part, the part instead of the whole.
  • Negatives and direction: Arithmetic with negative numbers, the order of a subtraction, or direction on a number line. (Moving a term across the equals sign without changing its sign is a faulty procedure.)

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Worked solution, step by step

Formulas used

Adding like terms
n+3n=4nn + 3n = 4n
n is the number of pages Maya read. Terms with the same letter are called like terms. Add them by adding the numbers in front: 1 n plus 3 n is 4 n. It works because 1 group of n pages and 3 more groups make 4 groups.
Turning a more-than fact around
if T=A+12, then A=T−12\text{if } T = A + 12 \text{, then } A = T - 12
T is the pages Maya and Trevor read together. A is the pages Ali read. The pair read 12 more than Ali, so Ali read 12 fewer than the pair. Subtracting 12 undoes adding 12.
  1. Sort out the question

    Maya read n pages. n is a variable, a letter that stands for a number you don’t know. Trevor read 3 times as many pages as Maya. Together they read 12 more pages than Ali. You need Ali’s pages, written with n.

  2. Write Trevor’s pages

    Three times as many as n is 3 times n:

    Trevor=3n\text{Trevor} = 3n

    A number written next to a letter means multiply. So 3n means 3 × n pages.

  3. Add Maya’s and Trevor’s pages

    Together means add. Maya read 1 group of n, and Trevor read 3 groups:

    n+3n=4nn + 3n = 4n

    Together they read 4n pages.

    Watch out: do not leave Maya out. Using only Trevor’s 3n gives 3n − 12, which is wrong.

  4. Decide who read more

    The pair read 12 more than Ali. So Ali read 12 fewer than the pair. Take 12 away from their total:

    Ali=4n−12\text{Ali} = 4n - 12

    Watch out: the word more tempts you to add 12. But 4n + 12 would mean Ali read more than the pair. And 12 − 4n subtracts in the wrong order.

  5. Enter the expression

    On the test, the keypad has an n key. Press 4, then n. Then press the minus key beside the plus key, then 1 and 2. You don’t need a times sign. On this site, type 4n-12.

    So you would enter 4n − 12. Any expression equal to it, such as −12 + 4n, is also right.

Check your answer

Pick a number for n, such as 10. Maya read 10 pages and Trevor read 30, so together they read 40. Your expression gives Ali 4×10−12=284 \times 10 - 12 = 28 pages. Is 40 twelve more than 28? Yes, 28+12=4028 + 12 = 40. So the expression works.

The original DOE question
Question 5 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 78 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test C Math, page 78, question 5.

Question 83 of 120

2026 Practice Test C Math, question 6

Question

A parallelogram that leans to the right. The angle at its upper left vertex is labeled 3x°, and the angle at its lower left vertex is labeled 2x°.

In the parallelogram above, what is the value of x?

  • A36
  • B18
  • C6
  • D5
Show the answer

Correct answer: A

In a parallelogram, any two adjacent angles are supplementary, so the sum of the two given angles is equal to 180°.

Write an equation showing that the sum of 3x∘3x^{\circ} and 2x∘2x^{\circ} is equal to 180°:

3x+2x=1803x + 2x = 180

Solve for x:

5x=1805x = 180

5x5=1805\frac{5x}{5} = \frac{180}{5}

x=36x = 36

Question analysis

A parallelogram is drawn with the two angles at the ends of its left side labeled 3x° and 2x°, and students find the value of x. It tests the angle facts of a parallelogram and solving a simple equation. Knowing what the two angles must add up to is the key fact, since the figure gives no other number.

NYS standards
  • 7.G.5 angle relationships and equations
  • 8.G.5 angle sums, transversals, angle-angle similarity
Grade level
Grade 8 content, by NYS standard
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 The angle fact needed, about consecutive angles of a parallelogram, rests on grade 8 parallel-line reasoning. Once it is known, the work is one short equation, like a typical grade 7 problem about angle sums.
Estimated difficulty
Straightforward: two steps or one careful reading.
Solution
2 steps
Reading level
Question and choices: about grade 7, 10 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

Once the angle fact is in place, 5x = 180 is a one-line equation, so the question tests recall more than computation. Students who use 90° for the pair land on half the right value, and the two smallest choices come only from combining the labels' 3 and 2. A sense check helps: x = 36 makes the angles 108° and 72°, one obtuse and one acute, just as the drawing shows.

  1. Something you must already know moderate Working it out

    The figure gives no number of degrees, only 3x° and 2x°, so everything rests on recalling that the two angles at the ends of one side of a parallelogram add to 180°. (Anderson & Krathwohl, 2001)

  2. Reading a figure, table or graph minor Understanding the question

    The marked angles sit at the upper and lower ends of the left side, consecutive rather than opposite, which is what makes them supplementary instead of equal. (Lesh, Post & Behr, 1987; Kirsch & Mosenthal, 1990)

Strategy: Decide what two angles that share a side of a parallelogram add up to, set 3x + 2x equal to that total, solve for x, and check that the two angles fit the figure.

Traps

  • Wrong formula: Uses a related but wrong formula: perimeter for area, diameter for radius, area for volume, or a misremembered one.
  • Stops one step early: A choice is a number from partway through the solution.
  • Numbers taken from the question: Combines the numbers in the question without a model of the situation, or is simply a number that appears in the question.

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Worked solution, step by step

Formulas used

Neighboring angles of a parallelogram
a+b=180∘a + b = 180^{\circ}
a and b are two angles of a parallelogram that share a side, like the top left and bottom left angles. They always add to 180°. Here is why. The four angles add to 360°, and opposite angles are equal. So each pair of neighbors is half of 360°.
  1. Sort out the question

    The figure is a parallelogram. That is a four-sided shape whose opposite sides are parallel, so they never meet. Two angles are marked: 3x° at the upper left and 2x° at the lower left. You need the value of x.

  2. Write an equation for the angles

    The two marked angles are at the two ends of the left side. So they are neighbors, not opposite angles. Use the rule that neighbors add to 180°:

    3x+2x=1803x + 2x = 180

    Watch out: the total is 180°, not 90°. Using 90 gives 5x = 90 and x = 18, choice B.

  3. Solve for x

    Three x’s plus two x’s make five x’s:

    5x=1805x = 180

    Divide both sides by 5 to get x alone:

    x=1805=36x = \frac{180}{5} = 36

    Watch out: stopping at 5, the number in front of x, gives choice D. Multiplying 3 × 2 = 6 gives choice C, but that uses no angle fact.

  4. Choose the answer

    The value of x is 36. It is a number, not the size of an angle. The angles themselves are 3 × 36 and 2 × 36 degrees.

    So the answer is A, 36.

Check your answer

Find the two angles. The top one is 3×36=1083 \times 36 = 108 degrees. The bottom one is 2×36=722 \times 36 = 72 degrees. They add to 180°. In the figure, the top angle is wide, more than 90°. The bottom one is narrow, less than 90°. That matches.

The original DOE question
Question 6 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 79 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test C Math, page 79, question 6.

Question 84 of 120

2026 Practice Test C Math, question 12

Question

A spinner has 5 congruent sections labeled as shown. One side of a fair coin is heads, and the other side is tails.

A spinner shaped like a regular pentagon, divided into 5 congruent triangular sections that meet at the center, where an arrow points straight up. Going clockwise from the upper left, the sections are labeled 1, 2, 1, 4 and 3. Beside the spinner is a coin (a dime) showing its heads side, captioned Heads.

The spinner is spun one time, and the coin is flipped. What is the probability that the spinner lands on 1 and the coin lands on tails?

Select the place on the number line that represents the probability.

On the test you click a point on the number line; here, choose it from the menu.

00.10.20.30.40.50.60.70.80.91

Show the answer

Correct answer: the point 0.2

The spinner has five equal-sized sections. Two of the sections are labeled with a 1. So, the probability of landing on a 1 is two out of five, or 2/5.

A coin has two sides, one heads and one tails. So, the probability of landing on tails is one out of two, or 1/2.

The compound probability of the spinner landing on a 1 and the coin landing on tails can be calculated by multiplying 2/5 and 1/2 as shown:

25⋅12=210=0.2\frac{2}{5} \cdot \frac{1}{2} = \frac{2}{10} = 0.2

Question analysis

A spinner with five equal sections is spun once and a fair coin is flipped. Students find the probability that the spinner lands on 1 and the coin shows tails, then select that point on a number line from 0 to 1. Counting the right sections and combining the two events correctly are the tricky parts.

NYS standards
  • 7.SP.8a compound event as fraction of outcomes
  • 6.SP.6 probability from 0 to 1
Grade level
Grade 7 content, by NYS standard
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Finding the chance of two independent events together is grade 7 compound probability, here with one spinner and one coin. Counting sections from the picture and placing the result on a number line add two small steps.
Estimated difficulty
Moderate: several steps, or a close reading with one strong distractor.
Solution
3 steps
Reading level
Question and choices: about grade 5, 59 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

The probability itself takes one multiplication of two simple fractions; the losses come before and after it. Before, the spinner has to be searched for every section labeled 1, and the coin's chance brought in as well. After, 1/5 has to be rewritten as 2/10 to find its point, since only 0, 1/2 and 1 are labeled. Checking that the result is smaller than both separate chances catches an addition.

  1. Reading a figure, table or graph moderate Understanding the question

    The two sections labeled 1, upper left and right, are not side by side, and the number line labels only 0, 1/2 and 1, so its nine points must be read as tenths. (Lesh, Post & Behr, 1987; Kirsch & Mosenthal, 1990)

  2. Something you must already know minor Working it out

    Nothing says that the chance of two independent events both happening is the product of their chances, 2/5 × 1/2, rather than their sum. (Anderson & Krathwohl, 2001)

Strategy: Count the sections labeled 1 to get the spinner's chance, take the coin's chance of tails, multiply the two because both must happen, and write the result in tenths.

Traps

  • Stops one step early: A choice is a number from partway through the solution.
  • Wrong operation: Adds instead of multiplying, divides the wrong way round, turns a ratio or rate upside down, or undoes a step in the wrong direction (subtracts what should be added back).
  • Misreads the figure: Reads a value, label or tick spacing in a figure, table or graph wrongly.

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Worked solution, step by step

Formulas used

Probability of an event
P=number of results you wanttotal number of resultsP = \frac{\text{number of results you want}}{\text{total number of results}}
P is the probability, the chance that something happens. It goes from 0 (never) to 1 (always). The top counts the results you want. The bottom counts all possible results. It works when every result is equally likely, like equal sections of a spinner.
Probability that two things both happen
P(A and B)=P(A)×P(B)P(A \text{ and } B) = P(A) \times P(B)
A and B are two events that do not affect each other, like a spin and a coin flip. P(A) and P(B) are their chances. Multiply them to get the chance that both happen. Needing both makes the chance smaller, never bigger.
  1. Sort out the question

    The spinner has 5 congruent sections. Congruent means the same size and shape, so each is equally likely. The coin has a heads side and a tails side. You need the chance that the spinner lands on 1 and the coin lands on tails.

  2. Find the spinner’s chance

    Two sections show 1: the upper left one and the one on the right. So 2 of the 5 equal sections give a 1:

    P(1)=25P(1) = \frac{2}{5}

    Watch out: the two 1s are not next to each other. Counting only one gives 1/5 here, and 0.1 at the end.

  3. Find the coin’s chance

    A fair coin is equally likely to land on either side. Tails is 1 of its 2 sides:

    P(tails)=12P(\text{tails}) = \frac{1}{2}

  4. Multiply the two chances

    The spin and the flip do not affect each other, and both must happen. So multiply:

    25×12=210=0.2\frac{2}{5} \times \frac{1}{2} = \frac{2}{10} = 0.2

    Watch out: stopping at 2/5 gives 0.4. Adding gives 25+12=910\frac{2}{5} + \frac{1}{2} = \frac{9}{10}, or 0.9. Both are wrong.

  5. Select the point

    On the test, the number line labels only 0, 1/2 and 1. Between 0 and 1 are 9 targets, one at each tenth. 0.2 is the second target to the right of 0. On this site, choose 0.2 from the Point menu.

    So the answer is the point at 0.2.

Check your answer

List every result. The spinner has 5 sections and the coin has 2 sides, so there are 5×2=105 \times 2 = 10 results, all equally likely. Just 2 of them are a 1 with tails, one for each section labeled 1. That is 2 out of 10, or 0.2.

The original DOE question
Question 12 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 85 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test C Math, page 85, question 12.

Question 85 of 120

2026 Practice Test C Math, question 14

Question

If x=−2x = -2, what is the value of |x+x2+x3|−|x+2x+3x||x + x^{2} + x^{3}| - |x + 2x + 3x|?

  • A−18
  • B−6
  • C−2
  • D2
Show the answer

Correct answer: B

Substitute −2-2 for each value of x in the expression:

|(−2)+(−2)2+(−2)3|\left|(-2) + (-2)^{2} + (-2)^{3}\right|
minus
|(−2)+2(−2)+3(−2)||(-2) + 2(-2) + 3(-2)|

Evaluate the terms involving exponents:

|(−2)+4+(−8)||(-2) + 4 + (-8)|
minus
|(−2)+2(−2)+3(−2)||(-2) + 2(-2) + 3(-2)|

Evaluate the terms involving multiplication:

|(−2)+4+(−8)||(-2) + 4 + (-8)|
minus
|(−2)+(−4)+(−6)||(-2) + (-4) + (-6)|

Simplify the expression:

|2+(−8)|−|(−2)+(−10)||2 + (-8)| - |(-2) + (-10)|

|−6|−|−12|\lvert -6 \rvert - \lvert -12 \rvert

The absolute value of (−6)(-6) is 6, and the absolute value of (−12)(-12) is 12, so |−6|−|−12|\lvert -6 \rvert - \lvert -12 \rvert is the equivalent of subtracting 12 from 6:

6−12=(−6)6 - 12 = (-6)

Question analysis

This substitution question sets x = −2 in an expression that subtracts one absolute value from another: the first holds x, x squared and x cubed, the second x, 2x and 3x. Students evaluate the expression. It tests powers of negative numbers, absolute value and integer subtraction, and the signs of the square and the cube are where answers go wrong.

NYS standards
  • 7.NS.2a rational number multiplication
  • 6.EE.2c evaluating expressions and order of operations
  • 6.NS.7c absolute value as distance
Grade level
Grade 7 content, by NYS standard
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Substituting a negative number and taking absolute values is typical grade 7 sign practice. This expression puts a square and a cube of a negative inside one pair of bars and then subtracts two absolute values, so there are several places to slip.
Estimated difficulty
Moderate: several steps, or a close reading with one strong distractor.
What makes it hard
Solution
4 steps
Reading level
Question and choices: about grade 7, 8 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

Every step is routine, but the expression stacks sign decisions, and each wrong choice records a different one going wrong. The powers of −2 alternate in sign, which students who treat every power as positive, or the square as negative, miss. The last step catches students who know the rules: both absolute values are positive, yet 6 − 12 is still negative, so the answer keeps its minus sign.

  1. Error-prone arithmetic moderate Working it out

    With x = −2 the square is 4 but the cube is −8, so the first bars hold −2 + 4 − 8 = −6, and the sign changes from each term to the next. (Brown & Burton, 1978; Junker & Sijtsma, 2001)

  2. Many steps minor Working it out

    Six terms are substituted, two pairs of bars are simplified and made positive, and only then is 12 subtracted from 6, four stages that must come in a fixed order. (Daniel & Embretson, 2010; Enright, Morley & Sheehan, 2002)

Strategy: Work out each power of −2 separately, keeping its sign, add the terms inside each pair of bars, take both absolute values, and subtract only at the end.

Traps

  • Negatives and direction: Arithmetic with negative numbers, the order of a subtraction, or direction on a number line. (Moving a term across the equals sign without changing its sign is a faulty procedure.)
  • A faulty procedure: A systematic but wrong procedure: adding fractions straight across, applying an exponent to each term of a sum, dropping a sign when moving a term.

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Worked solution, step by step

Formulas used

Absolute value
|a|=the distance from a to 0|a| = \text{the distance from } a \text{ to } 0
a is any number. The bars mean absolute value: how far a is from 0 on the number line. A distance is never negative, so |−6| = 6 and |6| = 6. Work out what is inside the bars first, then take the absolute value.
Powers of a negative number
(−2)2=(−2)×(−2)(−2)3=(−2)×(−2)×(−2)(-2)^{2} = (-2) \times (-2) \quad (-2)^{3} = (-2) \times (-2) \times (-2)
The small raised number is the exponent. It tells how many times −2 is multiplied by itself. Two negatives multiply to a positive. So an even number of negative factors gives a positive answer, and an odd number gives a negative one.
  1. Sort out the question

    You need the value of |x+x2+x3|−|x+2x+3x||x + x^{2} + x^{3}| - |x + 2x + 3x| when x = −2. The bars | | mean absolute value. Work out each pair of bars on its own. Subtract only at the end.

  2. Find the powers of −2

    Put −2 in for x. Keep each negative sign:

    (−2)2=(−2)×(−2)=4(-2)^{2} = (-2) \times (-2) = 4

    (−2)3=4×(−2)=−8(-2)^{3} = 4 \times (-2) = -8

    The square is positive, but the cube is negative.

    Watch out: taking (−2)3(-2)^{3} as +8 makes the first bars hold 10. That leads to choice C, −2.

  3. Work out the first bars

    Add the three terms inside the first pair of bars:

    |(−2)+4+(−8)|=|−6|=6|(-2) + 4 + (-8)| = |-6| = 6

    −2 + 4 is 2, and 2 + (−8) is −6. The distance from −6 to 0 is 6.

  4. Work out the second bars

    Here 2x means 2 times x, so it is −4. And 3x is −6:

    |(−2)+(−4)+(−6)|=|−12|=12|(-2) + (-4) + (-6)| = |-12| = 12

    All three terms are negative, so they add to −12. Its absolute value is 12.

  5. Subtract the second value

    Now subtract the second value from the first:

    6−12=−66 - 12 = -6

    Watch out: the bars make each part positive, but the difference can still be negative. Keeping −6 inside the first bars gives −6 − 12 = −18, choice A.

    So the answer is B, −6.

Check your answer

Check the second bars a faster way. x+2x+3x=6xx + 2x + 3x = 6x, and 6×(−2)=−126 \times (-2) = -12. That matches. Also, the second value, 12, is bigger than the first, 6. So the difference must be negative, as −6 is.

The original DOE question
Question 14 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 87 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test C Math, page 87, question 14.

Question 86 of 120

2026 Practice Test C Math, question 17

Question

A number line from 0 to 8 with a tick and a label at every whole number. Four points are marked on it: M at 1, R at 3, S at 6 and N at 7.

What is the distance between the midpoints of MN\overline{MN} and RS\overline{RS}?

  • A12\frac{1}{2} unit
  • B1 unit
  • C1121\frac{1}{2} units
  • D2 units
Show the answer

Correct answer: A

MN\overline{MN} begins at 1 and ends at 7. Determine the length of MN\overline{MN}:

7−1=67 - 1 = 6

The midpoint of a line segment is located exactly halfway between the two endpoints. Since MN\overline{MN} is 6 units in length, the two endpoints are 6 units apart. Determine the location of the midpoint, in relation to each endpoint, by dividing 6 by 2:

6÷2=36 \div 2 = 3

The location of the midpoint of MN\overline{MN} is 3 units from either endpoint. Find the midpoint by either adding 3 to the location of M (1) or subtracting 3 from the location of N (7):

1+3=41 + 3 = 4

7−3=47 - 3 = 4

The midpoint of MN\overline{MN} is located at 4.

RS\overline{RS} begins at 3 and ends at 6. Determine the length of RS\overline{RS}:

6−3=36 - 3 = 3

Since RS\overline{RS} is 3 units in length, the two endpoints are 3 units apart. Determine the location of the midpoint, in relation to each endpoint, by dividing 3 by 2:

3÷2=1.53 \div 2 = 1.5

The location of the midpoint of RS\overline{RS} is 1.5 units from either endpoint. Find the midpoint by either adding 1.5 to the location of R (3) or subtracting 1.5 from the location of S (6):

3+1.5=4.53 + 1.5 = 4.5

6−1.5=4.56 - 1.5 = 4.5

The midpoint of RS\overline{RS} is located at 4.5.

Determine the distance between the two midpoints by subtracting:

4.5−4=0.54.5 - 4 = 0.5

0.5 is equivalent to 12\frac{1}{2}, making the distance between the two midpoints 12\frac{1}{2} unit.

Question analysis

A number line from 0 to 8 shows points M, R, S and N, and students find the distance between the midpoint of segment MN and the midpoint of segment RS. It tests locating points and finding distances on a number line. One segment sits inside the other, and several lengths in the figure can be mistaken for the distance wanted.

NYS standards
  • 7.NS.1c rational number subtraction
  • 6.NS.6c positioning rational numbers and points
Grade level
Grade 7 content, by NYS standard
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Finding distances between points on a number line is grade 7 work, here with whole-number positions. Two midpoints must be located before their distance can be found, so the task takes three short steps rather than one.
Estimated difficulty
Straightforward: two steps or one careful reading.
What makes it hard
Solution
3 steps
Reading level
Question and choices: about grade 8, 17 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

The positions are whole numbers, so the midpoints come from simple averages, (1 + 7) ÷ 2 and (3 + 6) ÷ 2. The difficulty is keeping several lengths apart: the half-lengths of the two segments, the gaps at their ends, and the distance actually asked for, half a unit. Marking both midpoints on the number line before subtracting makes the small gap visible.

  1. Reading a figure, table or graph minor Understanding the question

    Segment RS lies inside MN, from 3 to 6, and its midpoint, 4 1/2, falls between two ticks of the number line rather than on a labeled point. (Lesh, Post & Behr, 1987; Kirsch & Mosenthal, 1990)

  2. Many steps minor Working it out

    Two midpoints have to be found, at 4 and 4 1/2, before their distance is taken, and the half-length of RS met on the way, 1 1/2, is among the choices. (Daniel & Embretson, 2010; Enright, Morley & Sheehan, 2002)

Strategy: Find each midpoint as the average of its segment's two endpoints, then subtract the smaller midpoint from the larger one.

Traps

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Worked solution, step by step

Formulas used

Midpoint on a number line
midpoint=a+b2\text{midpoint} = \frac{a + b}{2}
a and b are the numbers at the two ends of a segment. The midpoint is the point exactly halfway between them. Adding the ends and dividing by 2 finds their average, which is the middle.
Distance on a number line
distance=larger−smaller\text{distance} = \text{larger} - \text{smaller}
The distance between two points on a number line is how many units apart they are. Subtract the smaller number from the larger one, so the distance is never negative.
  1. Sort out the question

    The number line shows M at 1, R at 3, S at 6 and N at 7. Segment MN goes from 1 to 7. Segment RS goes from 3 to 6. A midpoint is the point exactly halfway along a segment. You need the distance between the two midpoints.

  2. Find the midpoint of MN

    Use the midpoint formula with the ends 1 and 7:

    1+72=82=4\frac{1 + 7}{2} = \frac{8}{2} = 4

    The midpoint of MN is at 4, which is 3 units from each end.

  3. Find the midpoint of RS

    Use the same formula with the ends 3 and 6:

    3+62=92=4.5\frac{3 + 6}{2} = \frac{9}{2} = 4.5

    The midpoint of RS is at 4.5. That is halfway between the marks for 4 and 5, where no point is labeled.

  4. Subtract the two midpoints

    Use the distance formula:

    4.5−4=0.54.5 - 4 = 0.5

    0.5 is one half, so the midpoints are 1/2 unit apart.

    Watch out: half of MN is 3, and half of RS is 1 1/2. Subtracting those gives 1 1/2, choice C. But they are half-lengths, not positions. And 2, choice D, is only the distance from M to R.

  5. Choose the answer

    The midpoints, 4 and 4.5, are close together because RS sits near the middle of MN. So the answer is A, 1/2 unit.

Check your answer

Find each midpoint another way: walk half the length from the left end. MN is 7−1=67 - 1 = 6 units long, and 1+3=41 + 3 = 4. RS is 6−3=36 - 3 = 3 units long, and 3+1.5=4.53 + 1.5 = 4.5. Same midpoints, 1/2 unit apart.

The original DOE question
Question 17 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 90 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test C Math, page 90, question 17.

Question 87 of 120

2026 Practice Test C Math, question 19

Question

What is the value of (−34)(−25)\left(-\frac{3}{4}\right)\left(-\frac{2}{5}\right)?

  • A−720-\frac{7}{20}
  • B−310-\frac{3}{10}
  • C310\frac{3}{10}
  • D720\frac{7}{20}
Show the answer

Correct answer: C

Evaluate the expression by multiplying the terms in the numerator and the terms in the denominator. The product of two negative values is positive:

(−3)×(−2)4×5=620\frac{(-3) \times (-2)}{4 \times 5} = \frac{6}{20}

Simplify the result:

6÷220÷2=310\frac{6 \div 2}{20 \div 2} = \frac{3}{10}

Question analysis

This question asks for the product of negative three fourths and negative two fifths. Students multiply the fractions, settle the sign of the result, and simplify. The choices mix positive and negative answers with results from other operations, so both the sign and the operation have to be right.

NYS standards
  • 7.NS.2a rational number multiplication
  • 7.NS.2c properties for multiplying and dividing
Grade level
Grade 7 content, by NYS standard
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Multiplying two negative fractions is a standard grade 7 exercise, done here in one product and one simplification. It matches typical classroom work, with the sign rule and lowest terms as the only points of care.
Estimated difficulty
Routine: one familiar step, little to misread.
Solution
2 steps
Reading level
Question and choices: about grade 10, 10 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

This is a single product of two fractions, and most students finish it quickly. The choices are built around two decisions, the sign of the product and the operation itself: two of them come from subtracting the fractions, and one keeps a minus sign that two negative factors cancel. Settling the sign first, positive, rules out half of the choices before any multiplying.

  1. A very close wrong answer minor Choosing the answer

    3/10 and −3/10 are identical except for the sign, so the size alone does not separate them; only the rule for multiplying two negatives does. (Embretson & Wetzel, 1987; Gorin & Embretson, 2006; Ascalon et al., 2007)

  2. Error-prone arithmetic minor Working it out

    Two negative fractions are multiplied, 3 × 2 over 4 × 5, and the product 6/20 has to be reduced to 3/10 before it matches a choice. (Brown & Burton, 1978; Junker & Sijtsma, 2001)

Strategy: Decide the sign of the product first, then multiply the numerators and the denominators and reduce the fraction to lowest terms.

Traps

  • Negatives and direction: Arithmetic with negative numbers, the order of a subtraction, or direction on a number line. (Moving a term across the equals sign without changing its sign is a faulty procedure.)
  • Wrong operation: Adds instead of multiplying, divides the wrong way round, turns a ratio or rate upside down, or undoes a step in the wrong direction (subtracts what should be added back).

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Worked solution, step by step

Formulas used

Multiplying fractions
ab×cd=a×cb×d\frac{a}{b} \times \frac{c}{d} = \frac{a \times c}{b \times d}
a and c are the tops (numerators). b and d are the bottoms (denominators). Multiply the tops together and the bottoms together. You do not need a common denominator to multiply. That is only for adding and subtracting.
Multiplying two negatives
(−a)×(−b)=a×b(-a) \times (-b) = a \times b
a and b are positive numbers, so −a and −b are negative. A negative times a negative is positive. So when both factors are negative, the minus signs cancel.
  1. Sort out the question

    The two fractions sit side by side in parentheses, with nothing between them. That means multiply. Both fractions are negative. You need their product, the answer to the multiplication.

  2. Decide the sign first

    A negative times a negative is positive. So the answer will be positive. That rules out choices A and B.

    Watch out: choice B, −3/10, has the right size but the wrong sign. The two minus signs cancel.

  3. Multiply tops and bottoms

    Now multiply the sizes. Multiply the tops, then the bottoms:

    34×25=3×24×5=620\frac{3}{4} \times \frac{2}{5} = \frac{3 \times 2}{4 \times 5} = \frac{6}{20}

    Watch out: do not find a common denominator. That is for adding and subtracting. Subtracting the fractions gives 7/20 or −7/20, choices D and A.

  4. Simplify the fraction

    2 goes into both 6 and 20. Divide the top and the bottom by 2:

    6÷220÷2=310\frac{6 \div 2}{20 \div 2} = \frac{3}{10}

    The product is positive 3/10. So the answer is C, 3/10.

Check your answer

Use decimals. 3/4 is 0.75 and 2/5 is 0.4. Then 0.75×0.4=0.30.75 \times 0.4 = 0.3, which is 3/10. Two negatives give a positive, so the product is positive 3/10.

The original DOE question
Question 19 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 92 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test C Math, page 92, question 19.

Question 88 of 120

2026 Practice Test C Math, question 20

Question

Two circles, with centers at A and C, are shown. Line segment AB is congruent to line segment DE.

Two circles. The larger circle has center A, and a radius is drawn from A to point B on the circle, labeled 5. The smaller circle has center C, and a segment is drawn from point D on the circle, through C, to point E on the circle.

Determine the area, A, and the circumference, C, of each circle to complete the table.

Select one answer in each row.

Choose one answer in each row, then check. The DOE has not published how answers with several parts are scored; this site counts one right only when every part is right.

Circle ACircle CNeither
A=25πA = 25\pi
C=5πC = 5\pi
Show the answer

Correct answer: A = 25π: Circle A; C = 5π: Circle C

A=25πA = 25\pi: Circle A

C=5πC = 5\pi: Circle C

As shown in the illustration, AB (the radius of Circle A) is 5 units in length. Since DE (the diameter of Circle C) is congruent to AB, we know it is also 5 units in length.

Circle A:

A=πr2A = \pi r^{2}

A=25πA = 25\pi

r=5r = 5

We know the radius of Circle A is 5 so the answer to row 1 is A.

Circle C:

C=π⋅dC = \pi \cdot d

C=5πC = 5\pi

We have to look for the circle with a diameter of 5. That is circle C.

Question analysis

Two circles centered at A and C are shown: radius AB of Circle A is labeled 5, and segment DE, drawn through C, is congruent to AB. Students decide whether an area of 25π and a circumference of 5π each belong to Circle A, Circle C or neither. Keeping radius and diameter apart, and area and circumference, is the challenge.

NYS standards
  • 7.G.4 circle area and circumference
Grade level
Grade 7 content, by NYS standard
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Applying the area and circumference formulas is the grade 7 circle standard. This gives a radius for one circle and, for the other, a segment known only through congruence, and both rows of the table must be right.
Estimated difficulty
Moderate: several steps, or a close reading with one strong distractor.
Solution
4 steps
Reading level
Question and choices: about grade 5, 40 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

Circle A is direct: its labeled radius of 5 gives an area of 25π. Circle C is where points are lost, since its size comes from a sentence rather than a label, and the segment through its center is a diameter, so its circumference is 5π while its area is only 6.25π. The row labels favor guessers, because the A and C in A = 25π and C = 5π match the circles' names, though they stand for area and circumference.

  1. Reading a figure, table or graph moderate Understanding the question

    Circle C's size is shown only by segment DE, drawn through center C with no label, and only the stem's sentence that DE is congruent to AB makes it a diameter of 5. (Lesh, Post & Behr, 1987; Kirsch & Mosenthal, 1990)

  2. Something you must already know moderate Working it out

    Neither A = πr² nor C = πd is given, and one circle is measured by a radius and the other by a diameter, so each formula needs the right length. (Anderson & Krathwohl, 2001)

  3. Much to keep track of minor Working it out

    Four values are in play, areas of 25π and 6.25π and circumferences of 10π and 5π, and both rows must be matched correctly for the item to count. (Sweller, 1988; Carpenter, Just & Shell, 1990)

Strategy: Write down the radius and the diameter of each circle, compute both circles' areas and circumferences in terms of π, then match each value in the table.

Traps

  • Wrong formula: Uses a related but wrong formula: perimeter for area, diameter for radius, area for volume, or a misremembered one.
  • Misreads the question: Misses or misreads a condition or a word in the question: "at least", "each", "remaining", "not".
  • A formula you must know: Needs a formula the test does not give: area, circumference, volume, probability rules.

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Worked solution, step by step

Formulas used

Area of a circle
A=πr2A = \pi r^{2}
A is the area, the space inside the circle. r is the radius, the distance from the center to the edge. π (pi) is a fixed number, a little more than 3. Square the radius, then multiply by π.
Circumference of a circle
C=πdC = \pi d
C is the circumference, the distance around the circle. d is the diameter, the distance across the circle through its center. A diameter is twice as long as a radius. Multiply the diameter by π.
  1. Sort out the question

    Circle A has its center at A. Its radius, AB, is 5. Circle C has its center at C. Segment DE goes through C, so it is a diameter. Congruent means the same length, so DE is 5 too.

    Careful: in the table, A means area and C means circumference. Circle A and Circle C are just names.

  2. Find each radius and diameter

    Circle A: the radius is 5, so the diameter is 2×5=102 \times 5 = 10.

    Circle C: the diameter is 5, so the radius is 5÷2=2.55 \div 2 = 2.5.

    Watch out: without the sentence about DE, Circle C seems to have no size. Then you might pick Neither for the second row.

  3. Check the area row

    Use the area formula for each circle. For Circle A:

    A=π×52=25πA = \pi \times 5^{2} = 25\pi

    For Circle C:

    A=π×2.52=6.25πA = \pi \times 2.5^{2} = 6.25\pi

    Only Circle A has an area of 25π.

    Watch out: squaring Circle C’s diameter instead of its radius gives 25π by mistake.

  4. Check the circumference row

    Use the circumference formula for each circle. For Circle A:

    C=π×10=10πC = \pi \times 10 = 10\pi

    For Circle C:

    C=π×5=5πC = \pi \times 5 = 5\pi

    Only Circle C has a circumference of 5π.

    Watch out: π times the radius is not the circumference. It would give Circle A 5π.

  5. Fill in the table

    Choose one button in each row. In the row for A = 25π, choose the Circle A column. In the row for C = 5π, choose the Circle C column. Neither stays empty.

    So the answers are A = 25π: Circle A and C = 5π: Circle C.

Check your answer

Compare sizes. Circle A’s radius, 5, is twice Circle C’s radius, 2.5. So the distance around Circle C should be half of Circle A’s 10π. Half of 10π is 5π, which matches. And the bigger circle has the bigger area, 25π.

The original DOE question
Question 20 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 93 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test C Math, page 93, question 20.

Question 89 of 120

2026 Practice Test C Math, question 22

Question

During a hiking trip, a group of students recorded the elevation (in feet) at several points along the trail:

−120 ft, −80 ft, 0 ft, 45 ft, −30 ft, 90 ft-120\text{ ft},\ -80\text{ ft},\ 0\text{ ft},\ 45\text{ ft},\ -30\text{ ft},\ 90\text{ ft}

What is the difference between the highest and lowest elevations recorded on the trail?

Enter your answer in the space.

Fill-in question: work out the answer and type it as a number.

Show the answer

Correct answer: 210

Determine the difference between the highest and lowest elevations:

Determine the highest elevation:

Of −120, −80, 0, 45, −30, and 90, the greatest value is 90 because its location is farthest to the right on a number line.

Highest elevation =90 ft= 90\text{ ft}

Determine the lowest elevation:

Of −120, −80, 0, 45, −30, and 90, the lowest value is −120 because its location is farthest to the left on a number line.

Lowest elevation =−120 ft= -120\text{ ft}

Determine the difference between the two elevations:

90 ft−(−120) ft=90 ft+120 ft=210 ft90\text{ ft} - (-120)\text{ ft} = 90\text{ ft} + 120\text{ ft} = 210\text{ ft}

Question analysis

A group of students on a hiking trip records six elevations in feet, some below zero and some above, and finds the difference between the highest and the lowest, typing the result. It tests ordering positive and negative numbers and subtracting integers. Spotting the lowest reading among several negatives and subtracting a negative number correctly are where errors creep in.

NYS standards
  • 7.NS.1c rational number subtraction
  • 6.NS.7b order statements in context
Grade level
Grade 7 content, by NYS standard
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Finding the gap between a positive and a negative value by subtracting is core grade 7 work with integers. Picking the extremes from six readings is quick, so the demand is the subtraction of a negative number.
Estimated difficulty
Straightforward: two steps or one careful reading.
Solution
2 steps
Reading level
Question and choices: about grade 7, 40 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

Picking the highest and lowest of six readings is quick, though −120 must be recognized as lower than −80 and −30. The points are lost in the subtraction: the span runs 120 feet up to zero and 90 more above it, and students who treat the readings as plain sizes find only 30. Picturing the two readings on a vertical number line shows the whole span.

  1. Error-prone arithmetic moderate Working it out

    The difference is 90 − (−120), and subtracting a negative means adding 120, so the part of the trail below zero is easy to leave out. (Brown & Burton, 1978; Junker & Sijtsma, 2001)

  2. An answer in an unexpected form minor Choosing the answer

    The difference is typed with no choices, so 30 or −30, the results of mishandling the negative, gets no warning that the two readings lie on opposite sides of zero. (Enright, Morley & Sheehan, 2002)

Strategy: Pick the greatest and the least elevation by their places on a number line, then subtract the least from the greatest, turning the subtraction of a negative into an addition.

Traps

  • Negatives and direction: Arithmetic with negative numbers, the order of a subtraction, or direction on a number line. (Moving a term across the equals sign without changing its sign is a faulty procedure.)
  • Wrong operation: Adds instead of multiplying, divides the wrong way round, turns a ratio or rate upside down, or undoes a step in the wrong direction (subtracts what should be added back).
  • Information you don't need: The question gives numbers or facts that play no part in the answer.

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Worked solution, step by step

Formulas used

Difference between highest and lowest
difference=highest−lowest\text{difference} = \text{highest} - \text{lowest}
The difference between the highest and lowest values is how far apart they are. Subtract the lowest from the highest, so the answer is never negative.
Subtracting a negative
a−(−b)=a+ba - (-b) = a + b
a and b are numbers. Subtracting a negative is the same as adding a positive. On a number line, it means moving to the right.
  1. Sort out the question

    Elevation is height above or below a starting level, here 0 feet. Negative elevations are below 0. The six readings are −120, −80, 0, 45, −30 and 90 feet. You need the difference between the highest and the lowest.

  2. Find the highest and the lowest

    Picture the readings on a number line. The highest is farthest right: 90 feet. The lowest is farthest left: −120 feet.

    For negative numbers, the bigger the number after the minus sign, the lower it is. So −120 is lower than −80.

  3. Subtract the lowest from the highest

    Use the difference formula. Subtracting a negative is the same as adding:

    90−(−120)=90+120=21090 - (-120) = 90 + 120 = 210

    So the two readings are 210 feet apart.

    Watch out: 120−90=30120 - 90 = 30 treats both readings as if they were above 0. Adding them, 90+(−120)=−3090 + (-120) = -30, is wrong too.

  4. Enter the answer

    A difference like this is a distance, so it is positive. Subtracting in the other order gives −210, which is wrong. Type only the number, with no units.

    So you would enter 210.

Check your answer

Count the distance in two parts. From −120 feet up to 0 is 120 feet. From 0 up to 90 is 90 more feet. Together, 120+90=210120 + 90 = 210 feet. That matches.

The original DOE question
Question 22 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 95 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test C Math, page 95, question 22.

Question 90 of 120

2026 Practice Test C Math, question 24

Question

In a showing of an artist’s works, the ratio of the number of paintings, drawings, and photographs shown is 3:5:4, respectively. If the number of drawings shown was 45, what is the total number of photographs and paintings that were shown?

  • A36
  • B63
  • C84
  • D108
Show the answer

Correct answer: B

The ratio of paintings to drawings to photographs is 3:5:43 : 5 : 4.

First, determine the number of actual paintings and photographs.

Since the number of actual drawings is 45, each ratio is multiplied by 9, since 5×9=455 \times 9 = 45.

Type Ratio Actual Number
Paintings 3 27
Drawings 5 45
Photographs 4 36

Then, add the actual number of paintings and photographs.

27+36=6327 + 36 = 63

Question analysis

An art showing has paintings, drawings and photographs in the ratio 3:5:4, and 45 drawings were shown. Students find the total number of photographs and paintings. It tests using a three-part ratio to find actual amounts, and the question asks for two of the three groups together, not any single group or the whole show.

NYS standards
  • 7.RP.3 multistep ratio and percent problems
  • 6.RP.1 ratio concepts and language
Grade level
Grade 7 content, by NYS standard
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Scaling a ratio from one known part is grade 6 and 7 work. A three-part ratio, and a question about two of the three groups combined, make it a three-step task typical of grade 7 ratio problems.
Estimated difficulty
Moderate: several steps, or a close reading with one strong distractor.
What makes it hard
Solution
3 steps
Reading level
Question and choices: about grade 10, 39 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

The scale factor comes from one division, 45 ÷ 5 = 9, so the risk lies in what to do with it. Two tempting results are listed: the photographs alone, and the whole show with the drawings added in. Multiplying the 3 + 4 = 7 parts for paintings and photographs by 9 gives the total in one step and avoids both.

  1. Much to keep track of moderate Working it out

    The ratio has three parts, the known count belongs to the middle part, drawings, and the question wants the first and third parts combined, so three roles must be tracked. (Sweller, 1988; Carpenter, Just & Shell, 1990)

  2. Turning words into math minor Understanding the question

    The word respectively assigns 3, 5 and 4 to paintings, drawings and photographs in that order, and the question then names two of them in the other order. (Hegarty, Mayer & Monk, 1995; Koedinger & Nathan, 2004)

Strategy: Find how many works each ratio part stands for from the drawings, multiply it by the parts for paintings and for photographs, and add only those two.

Traps

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Worked solution, step by step

Formulas used

Using the parts of a ratio
actual number=parts×value of one part\text{actual number} = \text{parts} \times \text{value of one part}
The ratio 3:5:4 splits the show into equal parts. Parts is how many parts a group has. Each part stands for the same number of works. Find that number from the group you know, then multiply each group’s parts by it.
  1. Sort out the question

    The ratio of paintings to drawings to photographs is 3:5:4. Respectively means in that order: 3 for paintings, 5 for drawings and 4 for photographs. There were 45 drawings. You need the number of photographs and paintings together.

  2. Find the value of one part

    Drawings are 5 parts, and there were 45 drawings:

    45÷5=945 \div 5 = 9

    So each part of the ratio stands for 9 works.

  3. Find each group

    Multiply each group’s parts by 9:

    TypePartsActual number
    Paintings33×9=273 \times 9 = 27
    Drawings55×9=455 \times 9 = 45
    Photographs44×9=364 \times 9 = 36

    The drawings row gives 45, which matches the question.

  4. Add only the two groups asked for

    Add the paintings and the photographs:

    27+36=6327 + 36 = 63

    Watch out: 36 alone, choice A, leaves out the paintings. Adding the 45 drawings too gives 108, choice D, the whole show.

    So the answer is B, 63.

Check your answer

Paintings and photographs are 3+4=73 + 4 = 7 parts. Each part is 9 works, so 7×9=637 \times 9 = 63. That matches. Also, 63 to 45 is the same as 7 to 5, just as the ratio says.

The original DOE question
Question 24 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 97 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test C Math, page 97, question 24.

Question 91 of 120

2026 Practice Test C Math, question 25

Question

For each 38\frac{3}{8} foot of curtain width, 56\frac{5}{6} yard of fabric is needed to make ruffles. How many yards of fabric are needed per foot of curtain width?

  • A516\frac{5}{16} yd
  • B2924\frac{29}{24} yd
  • C209\frac{20}{9} yd
  • D72\frac{7}{2} yd
Show the answer

Correct answer: C

It takes 56\frac{5}{6} yard of fabric to make 38\frac{3}{8} foot of curtain width.

To find the ratio of 1 foot of curtain width to 38\frac{3}{8} foot of curtain width (1:38)\left(1:\frac{3}{8}\right), divide.

1÷38=1×83=831 \div \frac{3}{8} = 1 \times \frac{8}{3} = \frac{8}{3}

So the amount of fabric needed for 1 foot of curtain width is 83\frac{8}{3} times the amount needed for 38\frac{3}{8} foot of curtain width.

83×56=4018\frac{8}{3} \times \frac{5}{6} = \frac{40}{18}

40÷218÷2=209\frac{40 \div 2}{18 \div 2} = \frac{20}{9}

The amount of fabric needed for 1 foot of curtain width is 209\frac{20}{9} yards.

Question analysis

Making ruffles takes 5/6 yard of fabric for every 3/8 foot of curtain width, and students find how many yards of fabric one foot of curtain width needs. It tests finding a unit rate when both quantities are fractions. The two units differ, and choosing whether to multiply, divide or add the fractions is the crucial decision.

NYS standards
  • 7.RP.1 unit rates with fractions
  • 6.NS.1 dividing fractions by fractions
Grade level
Grade 7 content, by NYS standard
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Computing a unit rate from a ratio of two fractions is the grade 7 rate standard itself. Two units, feet and yards, and an unfamiliar sewing setting make it harder to see which fraction divides which.
Estimated difficulty
Moderate: several steps, or a close reading with one strong distractor.
What makes it hard
Solution
2 steps
Reading level
Question and choices: about grade 5, 36 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

Two fractions and two units, feet and yards, leave students to decide whether to multiply, divide or add, and each wrong choice records one of those decisions. A sense check rules out the most tempting one before any arithmetic: a whole foot is more than 3/8 foot, so it needs more than 5/6 yard, yet multiplying gives only 5/16. Dividing the yards by the feet then picks out the answer among the rest.

  1. Turning words into math moderate Understanding the question

    “For each 3/8 foot of curtain width, 5/6 yard of fabric” gives the rate as a pair of fractions, and “per foot” means dividing the yards by the feet. (Hegarty, Mayer & Monk, 1995; Koedinger & Nathan, 2004)

  2. Error-prone arithmetic minor Working it out

    Dividing by 3/8 means multiplying by 8/3, and the product 40/18 has to be reduced to 20/9, an improper fraction rather than a whole number. (Brown & Burton, 1978; Junker & Sijtsma, 2001)

Strategy: Divide the yards of fabric by the feet of curtain width, since a rate per foot puts feet in the denominator, then simplify the fraction.

Traps

  • Wrong operation: Adds instead of multiplying, divides the wrong way round, turns a ratio or rate upside down, or undoes a step in the wrong direction (subtracts what should be added back).

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Worked solution, step by step

Formulas used

Unit rate
yards per foot=yards÷feet\text{yards per foot} = \text{yards} \div \text{feet}
A unit rate tells how much for exactly 1 of something. Here it is yards of fabric for 1 foot of curtain. Per foot means for each foot, so feet go on the bottom. Divide the yards by the feet.
Dividing by a fraction
a÷bc=a×cba \div \frac{b}{c} = a \times \frac{c}{b}
a is any number, and b/c is a fraction. Dividing by a fraction is the same as multiplying by its reciprocal, the fraction flipped upside down. It works because b/c fits into 1 exactly c/b times.
  1. Sort out the question

    For every 3/8 foot of curtain width, you need 5/6 yard of fabric. You need the yards of fabric for 1 whole foot. That is a unit rate, an amount for exactly 1 foot.

    3/8 foot is less than a whole foot. So a whole foot needs more than 5/6 yard.

  2. Set up the division

    Per foot means divide the yards by the feet:

    56÷38\frac{5}{6} \div \frac{3}{8}

    Watch out: multiplying 5/6 by 3/8 gives 5/16, choice A. That is less fabric for more curtain, which makes no sense. Adding them gives 29/24, choice B, but you can’t add yards and feet.

  3. Multiply by the reciprocal

    Flip 3/8 to get 8/3, and multiply:

    56×83=5×86×3=4018\frac{5}{6} \times \frac{8}{3} = \frac{5 \times 8}{6 \times 3} = \frac{40}{18}

    The 8/3 says a whole foot is 8/3 times as long as 3/8 foot. So it needs 8/3 times as much fabric.

    Watch out: adding 8/3 and 5/6 gives 7/2, choice D. Multiply them instead.

  4. Simplify the fraction

    2 goes into both 40 and 18:

    40÷218÷2=209\frac{40 \div 2}{18 \div 2} = \frac{20}{9}

    So 1 foot of curtain width needs 20/9 yards of fabric, a little more than 2 yards. So the answer is C, 20/9 yd.

Check your answer

Multiply back. 3/8 foot should need 3/8 of the fabric for a whole foot: 209×38=6072=56\frac{20}{9} \times \frac{3}{8} = \frac{60}{72} = \frac{5}{6} yard. That is the amount the question gives. Also, 20/9 is more than 5/6, as it should be.

The original DOE question
Question 25 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 98 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test C Math, page 98, question 25.

Question 92 of 120

2026 Practice Test C Math, question 26

Question

A coordinate grid with the x-axis and y-axis each from 0 to 10, grid lines every 1 unit, labeled at 2, 4, 6, 8 and 10, and the origin labeled O. Four straight lines are drawn: one through M (0, 8) and S (8, 0); one through V (2, 3) and P (3, 6); a horizontal one through V (2, 3) and Q (6, 3); and one drawn from the origin O through T (4, 1) and R (8, 2).

Which straight line is the graph of a proportional relationship?

  • AMS↔\overleftrightarrow{\mathrm{MS}}
  • BVP↔\overleftrightarrow{\mathrm{VP}}
  • CVQ↔\overleftrightarrow{\mathrm{VQ}}
  • DTR↔\overleftrightarrow{\mathrm{TR}}
Show the answer

Correct answer: D

The graph of any proportional line must intersect the origin, (0,0)(0, 0).

The only line on the coordinate plane that contains (0,0)(0, 0) is TR↔\overleftrightarrow{\mathrm{TR}}.

Both point T(4,1)\mathrm{T}\,(4, 1) and point R(8,2)\mathrm{R}\,(8, 2) have a y-value that is 14\frac{1}{4} of the x-value, and every point on the line fits the proportional equation y=14xy = \frac{1}{4}x.

When x=0, y=14(0)x = 0,\ y = \frac{1}{4}(0). So the line contains the origin, (0,0)(0, 0).

Question analysis

A coordinate grid shows four straight lines, each named by two labeled points such as M and S or V and Q, and students choose the one that is the graph of a proportional relationship. It tests recognizing proportional relationships on a graph. Every line is straight, so being straight is not enough, and the lines must be told apart by what defines proportionality.

NYS standards
  • 7.RP.2a testing for proportionality
Grade level
Grade 7 content, by NYS standard
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Deciding from a graph whether a relationship is proportional is a named grade 7 skill, and this is a typical case: four lines on a clean grid, each checked against the same rule, with no calculation needed.
Estimated difficulty
Routine: one familiar step, little to misread.
Solution
1 step
Reading level
Question and choices: about grade 9, 14 words.
Corrected from the DOE handbook
  • Coordinates and an equation in the explanation were corrected to match the graph.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

Once the origin rule is recalled, the graph answers the question at a glance: only the line from O through T and R starts at (0, 0). Students who think of proportional as any steady pattern have three other candidates, from the falling line through M and S to the flat line at height 3. The steep line through V and P is the closest call, because its lower end disappears near the corner where the axes meet.

  1. Something you must already know minor Working it out

    The rule that a proportional graph is a straight line through the origin is not printed, and all four lines are straight, so straightness alone rules none of them out. (Anderson & Krathwohl, 2001)

  2. Reading a figure, table or graph minor Understanding the question

    Line VP runs off the grid just right of O, crossing the x-axis at (1, 0), so whether it passes through the origin has to be read from the gridlines, not from its general direction. (Lesh, Post & Behr, 1987; Kirsch & Mosenthal, 1990)

Strategy: Recall what every proportional graph must look like, then test each line: see where it would be when x is 0, and whether y divided by x stays the same at both labeled points.

Traps

  • Misunderstands the concept: A wrong belief about a concept: that percents can be added, that area grows like length, that averages can be averaged, that a bigger denominator means a bigger fraction.
  • Misreads the figure: Reads a value, label or tick spacing in a figure, table or graph wrongly.

The wrong answers, classified

What was corrected from the DOE handbook, and why

  • Explanation: The DOE’s explanation says “Both point T (1, 4) and point R (2, 8) have a y-value that is 4 times the x-value, and every point on the line fits the proportional equation y = 4x”, and then “When x = 0, y = 4(0).” On the graph, T is at (4, 1) and R at (8, 2): each y-value is 1/4 of its x-value, and the line through the origin, T and R is y = (1/4)x. (The line y = 4x would pass through (1, 4) and (2, 8), which are not marked.) The 2022–23 guide, which first printed this question with the same graph, has the same slip. The site now gives T (4, 1) and R (8, 2), “a y-value that is 1/4 of the x-value”, y = (1/4)x, and y = (1/4)(0) at x = 0. The answer is unchanged: TR is still the only line through the origin.

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Worked solution, step by step

Formulas used

Proportional relationship
y=kxy = kx
y and x are two amounts that change together. k is the constant of proportionality: the number you always multiply x by to get y. When x is 0, y is k times 0, which is 0. So the graph is a straight line through the origin, the point (0, 0) where the axes meet.
  1. Sort out the question

    The grid shows four straight lines. Each one is named by two labeled points on it: line MS, line VP, line VQ and line TR.

    You need the line that shows a proportional relationship. In that kind of relationship, y is always the same number times x. For example, y might always be 3 times x.

  2. Recall what a proportional graph looks like

    Use the rule y=kxy = kx. Put in 0 for x:

    y=k×0=0y = k \times 0 = 0

    So every proportional graph goes through the origin. That is the corner point (0, 0), labeled O, where the two axes meet. The graph must also be a straight line.

    All four lines here are straight. So being straight does not settle it. Look for the line through O.

  3. Check where each line starts

    • Line MS meets the y-axis at M (0, 8). When x is 0, y is 8, not 0.
    • Line VP is steep. Its lower end crosses the x-axis at (1, 0), one unit to the right of O.
    • Line VQ is flat at a height of 3. It never comes down to 0.
    • Line TR starts at O and runs up through T and R.

    Watch out: the lower end of line VP looks close to O. Follow it along the grid lines. It misses O by one unit, so choice B is wrong.

  4. Test the ratio on line TR

    In a proportional relationship, the ratio y ÷ x is the same at every point. T is at (4, 1) and R is at (8, 2):

    T: 14R: 28=14\text{T: } \frac{1}{4} \qquad \text{R: } \frac{2}{8} = \frac{1}{4}

    Both give 14\frac{1}{4}. So each y-value is 14\frac{1}{4} of its x-value, and the line is y=14xy = \frac{1}{4}x.

    Watch out: line VQ keeps the same y-value, 3, but not the same ratio. At V it is 32\frac{3}{2}, and at Q it is 36=12\frac{3}{6} = \frac{1}{2}. So choice C is wrong.

  5. Give the answer

    Line MS starts at 8 on the y-axis, so choice A is out too. Only line TR goes through the origin and keeps y ÷ x the same.

    So the answer is D, line TR.

Check your answer

Put the origin into the rule for line TR: y=14×0=0y = \frac{1}{4} \times 0 = 0. So (0, 0) is on the line. Then test R: 14×8=2\frac{1}{4} \times 8 = 2, which matches R (8, 2). The rule fits every labeled point on the line.

The original DOE question
Question 26 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 99 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test C Math, page 99, question 26. This is the DOE’s version, before the corrections listed in the analysis.

Question 93 of 120

2026 Practice Test C Math, question 27

Question

A graph titled ICE COSTS, with Weight of Ice (lb) on the x-axis from 0 to 20, labeled every 2, and Cost (dollars) on the y-axis from 0 to 3.0, labeled every 0.3, with a grid line at each label. A straight line starts at the origin, O, and rises 0.3 dollars for every 2 pounds, passing through (4, 0.6) and (20, 3.0).

Some friends are buying bags of ice for a picnic. The graph shows the cost of the ice, in dollars, in relation to the weight, in pounds. Which statement about a point on the graph is true?

  • AThe point (20, 3) means that 3 lbs of ice costs $20.00.
  • BThe point (1, 0.15) means that 1 bag of ice costs $0.15.
  • CThe point (10, 1.5) means that 10 lbs of ice costs $1.50.
  • DThe point (0, 0) means that 0 lbs of ice will be needed if 0 people go to the picnic.
Show the answer

Correct answer: C

The x-axis represents the weight, in pounds (lbs), of ice purchased, and the y-axis represents the cost of the ice, in dollars.

The x-value in the point (10, 1.5) represents 10 lbs of ice, and the y-value represents 1.5 dollars, or $1.50. Therefore, the cost of 10 lbs of ice is $1.50.

Question analysis

Some friends buying ice for a picnic use a graph of the ice's cost in dollars against its weight in pounds, a straight line from the origin. Students pick the statement that correctly explains what a point on the graph means. Each statement names a point that really is on the line, so the units and the order of the coordinates decide.

NYS standards
  • 7.RP.2d points on proportional graphs
  • 7.RP.2b constant of proportionality
Grade level
Grade 7 content, by NYS standard
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Explaining what a point on a proportional graph means in its situation is a named grade 7 skill. The graph is clear and starts at the origin, but each statement has to be read closely against the axis labels.
Estimated difficulty
Straightforward: two steps or one careful reading.
Solution
2 steps
Reading level
Question and choices: about grade 2, 77 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

Nothing needs computing, but each statement attaches words to two numbers, and three of them attach the wrong words. The point (1, 0.15) is the unit rate students are trained to look for, and the “bags” in the stem’s story make its statement sound right, though the graph measures pounds. Saying each point aloud as so many pounds for so many dollars exposes the swapped coordinates and the extra people as well.

  1. Reading a figure, table or graph moderate Understanding the question

    Each statement must be checked against the axis labels: x is the weight of ice in pounds and y the cost in dollars, on a grid ruled every 2 pounds and every $0.30. (Lesh, Post & Behr, 1987; Kirsch & Mosenthal, 1990)

  2. Every choice must be checked minor Choosing the answer

    All four statements name a point that really lies on the line, (1, 0.15) included, so being on the graph rules nothing out; only the meaning given to each coordinate does. (Embretson & Wetzel, 1987)

Strategy: Read both axis labels and their units first, then for each choice say in words what its x-coordinate and its y-coordinate stand for, and compare that with the statement.

Traps

  • Misreads the figure: Reads a value, label or tick spacing in a figure, table or graph wrongly.
  • Units or scale: The answer is wanted in other units, or a rate or scale must be converted first.
  • Misunderstands the concept: A wrong belief about a concept: that percents can be added, that area grows like length, that averages can be averaged, that a bigger denominator means a bigger fraction.

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Worked solution, step by step

Formulas used

Unit rate
cost per pound=costweight\text{cost per pound} = \frac{\text{cost}}{\text{weight}}
The cost is in dollars, and the weight is in pounds. The unit rate is the cost of just 1 pound. On a straight line through the origin, it is the same at every point. So you can find it from any point you can read.
  1. Sort out the question

    The graph is called ICE COSTS. Read both axes first:

    • The x-axis, across the bottom, is the weight of the ice in pounds (lb).
    • The y-axis, up the side, is the cost in dollars.

    A point is written (x, y), weight first and cost second. So a point means: x pounds of ice cost y dollars. You need the statement that says this correctly.

  2. Find the cost of one pound

    The line reaches $3.00 at 20 pounds. Use the unit rate formula:

    cost per pound=320=0.15\text{cost per pound} = \frac{3}{20} = 0.15

    So 1 pound of ice costs $0.15. This helps you test each point.

  3. Test the point in choice C

    Find 10 on the weight axis and go straight up to the line. The line crosses there at 1.5 on the cost axis. The unit rate agrees:

    10×0.15=1.510 \times 0.15 = 1.5

    So the point (10, 1.5) means 10 pounds of ice cost $1.50. That is exactly what choice C says.

  4. Check the other statements

    Each one names a real point on the line. The problem is the meaning it gives the numbers.

    Watch out: choice A reads (20, 3) backward. It means 20 pounds cost $3, not 3 pounds cost $20.

    Watch out: choice B is tricky. The point (1, 0.15) is on the line, but the x-axis counts pounds, not bags. So it means 1 pound costs $0.15.

    Choice D talks about people, but the graph never counts people. The point (0, 0) means 0 pounds cost $0.

  5. Give the answer

    Only choice C gives the right meaning to both numbers.

    So the answer is C, 10 lbs of ice costs $1.50.

Check your answer

Use halves. The point (20, 3) says 20 pounds cost $3.00. Half as much ice, 10 pounds, should cost half as much. Half of $3.00 is $1.50. That matches choice C.

The original DOE question
Question 27 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 100 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test C Math, page 100, question 27.

Question 94 of 120

2026 Practice Test C Math, question 29

Question

A smoothie shop uses a consistent ratio of fruit to yogurt in its recipes. The table shows the proportional relationship between the number of cups of fruit (x) and the number of cups of yogurt (y) in different smoothie batches.

SMOOTHIE RECIPE

Cups of Fruit x Cups of Yogurt y
6 1.5
8 2.0
10 2.5
12 3.0

What is the constant of proportionality of the number of cups of yogurt to the number of cups of fruit?

Enter your answer in the space.

Fill-in question: work out the answer and type it as a number.

Show the answer

Correct answer: 0.25

To find p, the constant of proportionality of the number of cups of yogurt, y, to the number of cups of fruit, x, use the equation y=pxy = px.

The table shows that there are 1.5 cups of yogurt for 6 cups of fruit.

1.5=6p1.5 = 6p

1.56=6p6\frac{1.5}{6} = \frac{6p}{6}

14=0.25=p\frac{1}{4} = 0.25 = p

The constant of proportionality is 0.25.

Question analysis

A smoothie shop's recipe table lists cups of fruit and cups of yogurt for four batches in a proportional relationship. Students type the constant of proportionality of yogurt to fruit. It tests finding a unit rate from a table, and since fruit is listed first while the question names yogurt first, the ratio is easy to take upside down.

NYS standards
  • 7.RP.2b constant of proportionality
  • 6.NS.3 multi-digit decimal operations
Grade level
Grade 7 content, by NYS standard
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Finding the constant of proportionality in a table is a core grade 7 skill, and these values are friendly decimals. Typing the answer with no choices, and taking the ratio in the order the question gives, are the added demands.
Estimated difficulty
Straightforward: two steps or one careful reading.
Solution
1 step
Reading level
Question and choices: about grade 6, 75 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

Any row gives the answer with one division, and the values divide evenly, so the points are lost on direction. Fruit fills the first column and comes first in the stem’s own ratio, which invites dividing it by the yogurt. The table also climbs by a steady half cup of yogurt, a number that looks like a constant but ignores the 2 cups of fruit added each time. Checking that 0.25 times each fruit value gives its yogurt value settles it.

  1. Turning words into math moderate Understanding the question

    The opening sentence speaks of a ratio of fruit to yogurt, but the question asks for the constant of yogurt to fruit, so the division is y ÷ x, against the table’s column order. (Hegarty, Mayer & Monk, 1995; Koedinger & Nathan, 2004)

  2. An answer in an unexpected form minor Choosing the answer

    The constant is typed into a box with no choices, so 4, the ratio taken the other way round, is a believable entry that nothing on screen questions. (Enright, Morley & Sheehan, 2002)

Strategy: Check which quantity the question names first, divide that column by the other in any row, and confirm the quotient is the same in a second row.

Traps

  • Wrong operation: Adds instead of multiplying, divides the wrong way round, turns a ratio or rate upside down, or undoes a step in the wrong direction (subtracts what should be added back).
  • Misunderstands the concept: A wrong belief about a concept: that percents can be added, that area grows like length, that averages can be averaged, that a bigger denominator means a bigger fraction.
  • Numbers taken from the question: Combines the numbers in the question without a model of the situation, or is simply a number that appears in the question.

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Worked solution, step by step

Formulas used

Constant of proportionality
k=yxk = \frac{y}{x}
k is the constant of proportionality. y and x are two matching amounts from the same row of the table. In a proportional relationship, y = kx, so y is always k times x. That is why dividing y by x gives the same k in every row.
  1. Sort out the question

    The table lists cups of fruit (x) and cups of yogurt (y) for four batches. You need the constant of proportionality of yogurt to fruit.

    That is the number of cups of yogurt for each 1 cup of fruit. It is also the number you multiply x by to get y.

  2. Divide yogurt by fruit

    Use the first row: 6 cups of fruit and 1.5 cups of yogurt. Yogurt goes on top, because the question says yogurt to fruit:

    k=yx=1.56=0.25k = \frac{y}{x} = \frac{1.5}{6} = 0.25

    So there is 0.25 cup, or one quarter of a cup, of yogurt for each cup of fruit.

    Watch out: the first sentence says fruit to yogurt, but the question asks the other way. Dividing 6÷1.5=46 \div 1.5 = 4 turns the answer upside down.

  3. Check two more rows

    The constant must be the same in every row. Test two more:

    2.08=0.253.012=0.25\frac{2.0}{8} = 0.25 \qquad \frac{3.0}{12} = 0.25

    They match. Watch out: the yogurt goes up by 0.5 cup from row to row. That 0.5 is not the constant. The fruit goes up by 2 cups at the same time, and 0.5÷2=0.250.5 \div 2 = 0.25.

  4. Enter the number

    Type only the number in the box, with no units. You can type 0.25 or .25. On this site, 1/4 counts too.

    So you would enter 0.25.

Check your answer

Multiply each amount of fruit by 0.25. 6×0.25=1.56 \times 0.25 = 1.5, 8×0.25=28 \times 0.25 = 2, 10×0.25=2.510 \times 0.25 = 2.5 and 12×0.25=312 \times 0.25 = 3. Every result matches the yogurt column. Also, each batch has less yogurt than fruit, so the constant should be less than 1.

The original DOE question
Question 29 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 102 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test C Math, page 102, question 29.

Question 95 of 120

2026 Practice Test C Math, question 33

Question

A bag contains 40 tiles that are either red, green, or blue. A tile is selected at random, the color is recorded, and the tile is put back in the bag. This process is carried out 120 times, and 18 of those times a red tile is selected. Based on the information, what is the most likely number of red tiles in the bag?

  • A6
  • B15
  • C18
  • D30
Show the answer

Correct answer: A

First, determine what fraction of the sample were red tiles, given 18 of the 120 tiles drawn were red.

18÷6120÷6=320\frac{18 \div 6}{120 \div 6} = \frac{3}{20}

To predict how many of the actual 40 tiles in the bag are red, multiply 40 by the fraction of red tiles in the sample.

320(40)=12020=6\frac{3}{20}(40) = \frac{120}{20} = 6

Question analysis

A bag holds 40 red, green and blue tiles, and a tile is drawn and put back 120 times, with red coming up 18 times. Students predict the most likely number of red tiles in the bag. It tests using experimental results to estimate what is in the bag, and the draws outnumber the tiles, which can confuse the scaling.

NYS standards
  • 6.SP.7 long-run relative frequency
  • 6.RP.3 ratio and rate reasoning
Grade level
Grade 6 content, by NYS standard
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Predicting from repeated trials is grade 6 probability, and grade 7 students make similar estimates from samples. The twist is scaling down, from 120 draws to a bag of 40 tiles, rather than up to a larger group.
Estimated difficulty
Straightforward: two steps or one careful reading.
Solution
2 steps
Reading level
Question and choices: about grade 6, 61 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

There are more draws than tiles, which is what makes this unusual: the 120 draws must be scaled down to a bag of 40, not up to a bigger group. Red came up 18 times because each tile went back in the bag, so 18 is not a count of red tiles. Since there are three draws for every tile, dividing the 18 red draws by 3 gives the same estimate as taking 3/20 of 40.

  1. Turning words into math minor Understanding the question

    The 18 red draws come from 120 draws with the tile put back each time, so they give a share, 3/20, to take of the 40 tiles, not a count of red tiles. (Hegarty, Mayer & Monk, 1995; Koedinger & Nathan, 2004)

  2. Something you must already know minor Working it out

    Students must know that the share of red in repeated draws estimates the share of red tiles in the bag; the stem never says to multiply 40 by that share. (Anderson & Krathwohl, 2001)

Strategy: Write the red draws as a fraction of all 120 draws, simplify it, and take that same fraction of the 40 tiles in the bag.

Traps

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Worked solution, step by step

Formulas used

Predicting from repeated draws
red tiles≈red drawsall draws×tiles in the bag\text{red tiles} \approx \frac{\text{red draws}}{\text{all draws}} \times \text{tiles in the bag}
The fraction is the share of draws that came up red. That share is your best guess for the share of tiles that are red. Multiply it by the number of tiles in the bag to predict the red tiles. The sign ≈ means about equal.
  1. Sort out the question

    The bag has 40 tiles, each red, green or blue. A tile is drawn, its color is written down, and it goes back in the bag. This happens 120 times, and red comes up 18 times.

    You need the most likely number of red tiles in the bag.

  2. See why 18 is not the answer

    Each tile goes back in the bag after it is drawn. So the same red tile can be drawn again and again. That means 18 counts draws, not tiles.

    Watch out: choice C, 18, mixes up the number of red draws with the number of red tiles.

  3. Find the share of red draws

    Red came up 18 times out of 120. Simplify by dividing the top and bottom by 6:

    18120=320\frac{18}{120} = \frac{3}{20}

    As a decimal, that is 0.15, or 15%.

    Watch out: 15 is a percent here, not a number of tiles. Stopping now gives choice B.

  4. Take that share of the bag

    Use the same share of the 40 tiles in the bag:

    320×40=12020=6\frac{3}{20} \times 40 = \frac{120}{20} = 6

    So about 6 of the 40 tiles are red.

  5. Give the answer

    The best prediction is 6 red tiles. The other 34 tiles are probably green or blue.

    So the answer is A, 6.

Check your answer

There were 120 draws for 40 tiles. That is 3 draws for every tile. So divide the red draws by 3: 18÷3=618 \div 3 = 6. Same answer. Choice D, 30 red tiles, would be three quarters of the bag. Then red would come up far more than 18 times.

The original DOE question
Question 33 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 106 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test C Math, page 106, question 33.

Question 96 of 120

2026 Practice Test C Math, question 34

Question

A teacher will randomly select 3 students to be on a school committee. He will choose either a student from Classroom A or a student from Classroom B with each selection. This tree diagram shows the selection possibilities.

A tree diagram with three columns of boxes. From a starting point, two arrows lead to boxes A and B. From each of those, two arrows lead to boxes A and B, four boxes in all. From each of those four, two arrows lead to boxes A and B, so the last column has eight boxes: A, B, A, B, A, B, A, B.

What is the probability that the teacher will select 2 students from Classroom A and 1 student from Classroom B (in any order) for the committee?

  • A18\frac{1}{8}
  • B38\frac{3}{8}
  • C12\frac{1}{2}
  • D34\frac{3}{4}
Show the answer

Correct answer: B

The tree diagram shows that each of the 3 randomly selected students is from Classroom A or Classroom B. So the first chosen is either A or B, represented by the left column of the diagram.

The second student is either A or B, so if the first is A, the first two chosen will be either AA or AB. If the first is B, then the first two chosen will be either BA or BB, represented by the middle column.

The third student is either A or B, so if the first 2 were AA, the group of 3 would be either AAA or AAB. These outcomes are represented by the top two boxes of the right column. This pattern is followed so that 8 distinct outcomes can be visualized in order:

AAA, AAB, ABA, ABB, BAA, BAB, BBA, BBB

Since the order does not matter, there are 3 groups made up of 2 students from Classroom A and 1 student from Classroom B: AAB, ABA, and BAA.

Out of 8 possible outcomes, 3 outcomes have 2 students from Classroom A and 1 student from Classroom B. Therefore, the probability is 3 out of 8, or 38\frac{3}{8}.

Question analysis

A teacher picks 3 students for a committee, each from Classroom A or Classroom B, and a tree diagram shows every possible sequence of picks. Students find the probability of getting 2 students from A and 1 from B in any order. Reading the tree as a list of outcomes, and counting each order, is the key.

NYS standards
  • 7.SP.8b sample spaces for compound events
  • 7.SP.8a compound event as fraction of outcomes
Grade level
Grade 7 content, by NYS standard
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Finding a compound probability from a tree diagram is a grade 7 standard, and here the tree is already drawn. Listing its paths and counting the ones that fit the event, in any order, is typical grade 7 classwork.
Estimated difficulty
Straightforward: two steps or one careful reading.
Solution
3 steps
Reading level
Question and choices: about grade 7, 65 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

The tree does the hard part of the setup, but it shows each outcome only as a path through three columns, not as a list. The parenthesis “in any order” is the key phrase: missing it leaves a single path, while reading the event loosely, as at least two from Classroom A, adds A, A, A. Writing out all eight paths and marking those with exactly two A’s settles the count.

  1. Reading a figure, table or graph moderate Understanding the question

    The tree prints only A or B in each box, so the eight three-pick outcomes, such as A, B, A, have to be read by tracing each path across all three columns. (Lesh, Post & Behr, 1987; Kirsch & Mosenthal, 1990)

  2. Much to keep track of minor Working it out

    All eight paths must be tracked while counting those with exactly two A’s and one B, and “in any order” means three of them count, not just A, A, B. (Sweller, 1988; Carpenter, Just & Shell, 1990)

Strategy: Follow each path through the tree to write out every three-letter outcome, mark the ones with exactly two A's and one B, and divide by the total number of outcomes.

Traps

  • Misreads the question: Misses or misreads a condition or a word in the question: "at least", "each", "remaining", "not".
  • Answers a different question: A choice is right for another quantity: the other unknown, the rest instead of the part, the part instead of the whole.

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Worked solution, step by step

Formulas used

Probability
P=outcomes you wantall possible outcomesP = \frac{\text{outcomes you want}}{\text{all possible outcomes}}
P is the probability, the chance something happens. The top counts the outcomes that fit the event. The bottom counts every outcome that can happen. This works when every outcome is equally likely, like each path through this tree.
  1. Sort out the question

    The teacher picks 3 students, one at a time. Each pick is from Classroom A or Classroom B.

    You need the chance of getting 2 students from A and 1 from B. The words “in any order” matter. They mean the B can be the first, second or third pick.

  2. List every path in the tree

    Each path from left to right is one outcome, or possible result. The top path is A, then A, then A. Read all of them:

    AAA, AAB, ABA, ABB, BAA, BAB, BBA, BBB

    Each pick has 2 choices, so there are 2×2×2=82 \times 2 \times 2 = 8 outcomes in all.

  3. Mark the ones that fit

    Look for exactly two A’s and one B. Three outcomes fit: AAB, ABA and BAA.

    Watch out: counting only AAB misses “in any order” and gives 18\frac{1}{8}, choice A. AAA has three A’s, not two. Counting it too gives 48=12\frac{4}{8} = \frac{1}{2}, choice C. Counting every mixed outcome gives 68=34\frac{6}{8} = \frac{3}{4}, choice D, but three of those have two B’s.

  4. Find the probability

    Use the probability formula. 3 outcomes fit, out of 8:

    P=38P = \frac{3}{8}

    So the answer is B, 38\frac{3}{8}.

Check your answer

Count every outcome by type. Two A’s and one B: 3 outcomes. Two B’s and one A: 3 outcomes (ABB, BAB, BBA). All A’s: 1. All B’s: 1. 3+3+1+1=83 + 3 + 1 + 1 = 8, so each outcome was counted once.

The original DOE question
Question 34 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 107 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test C Math, page 107, question 34.

Question 97 of 120

2026 Practice Test C Math, question 36

Question

A deck of 52 playing cards contains 13 hearts. Sara has 12 cards from this deck in her hand, 3 of which are hearts. The other cards remain in the deck. What is the probability that a card drawn at random from the remainder of the deck will be a heart?

  • A110\frac{1}{10}
  • B14\frac{1}{4}
  • C313\frac{3}{13}
  • D13\frac{1}{3}
Show the answer

Correct answer: B

First, determine the number of cards in the remaining deck:

52−12=4052 - 12 = 40

Next, determine the number of hearts left in the remaining deck:

13−3=1013 - 3 = 10

Last, determine the probability of drawing a heart from the remaining deck:

10 hearts remaining40 total cards remaining=1040=14\frac{10\text{ hearts remaining}}{40\text{ total cards remaining}} = \frac{10}{40} = \frac{1}{4}

Question analysis

A standard deck of 52 playing cards has 13 hearts, and Sara holds 12 cards, 3 of them hearts. Students find the probability that a card drawn at random from the rest of the deck is a heart. Her hand changes both the number of hearts and the number of cards left, so both counts must be updated.

NYS standards
Grade level
Grade 6 content, by NYS standard
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Finding a simple probability is grade 6 content. This one adds a step many grade 7 problems skip: the cards in Sara's hand must be taken out of both the hearts and the whole deck first.
Estimated difficulty
Straightforward: two steps or one careful reading.
What makes it hard
Solution
3 steps
Reading level
Question and choices: about grade 3, 51 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

The careful route takes two subtractions and a fraction: 10 hearts among 40 cards. The numbers are kind, because Sara’s hand is a quarter hearts, just like the full deck, so a student who ignores her hand and divides 13 by 52 also reaches 1/4. The wrong choices come from describing her hand instead of the deck, or from comparing hearts with the cards that are not hearts.

  1. Much to keep track of minor Working it out

    Four counts are in play, 52 cards, 13 hearts, Sara’s 12 cards and her 3 hearts, and both the hearts and the total must be reduced before the fraction is formed. (Sweller, 1988; Carpenter, Just & Shell, 1990)

  2. Turning words into math minor Understanding the question

    “The other cards remain in the deck” and “the remainder of the deck” point to the 40 cards Sara is not holding, not to the full 52 or to her hand. (Hegarty, Mayer & Monk, 1995; Koedinger & Nathan, 2004)

Strategy: Work out how many cards are left in the deck and how many of them are hearts, then write the hearts left over the cards left and simplify.

Traps

  • Answers a different question: A choice is right for another quantity: the other unknown, the rest instead of the part, the part instead of the whole.
  • Misunderstands the concept: A wrong belief about a concept: that percents can be added, that area grows like length, that averages can be averaged, that a bigger denominator means a bigger fraction.
  • Numbers taken from the question: Combines the numbers in the question without a model of the situation, or is simply a number that appears in the question.

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Worked solution, step by step

Formulas used

Probability
P=outcomes you wantall possible outcomesP = \frac{\text{outcomes you want}}{\text{all possible outcomes}}
P is the probability, the chance something happens. The top counts the cards that are hearts. The bottom counts every card you could draw. Each card is equally likely to be drawn, so the fraction gives the chance.
  1. Sort out the question

    A full deck has 52 cards, and 13 of them are hearts. Sara holds 12 cards, and 3 of those are hearts. The rest of the cards stay in the deck.

    You need the chance that a card drawn from the rest of the deck is a heart. Her hand changes both counts.

  2. Count the cards left

    Take Sara’s 12 cards out of the deck:

    52−12=4052 - 12 = 40

    So 40 cards are left in the deck.

  3. Count the hearts left

    Sara holds 3 of the 13 hearts. Take those out:

    13−3=1013 - 3 = 10

    So 10 hearts are left in the deck.

  4. Find the probability

    Use the probability formula. Put the hearts left over all the cards left, then simplify:

    P=1040=14P = \frac{10}{40} = \frac{1}{4}

    Watch out: comparing the 10 hearts with the 30 cards that are not hearts gives 13\frac{1}{3}, choice D. The bottom must be all 40 cards. Choice C, 313\frac{3}{13}, describes Sara’s hand, not the deck. Choice A, 110\frac{1}{10}, uses the 10 hearts but forgets the 40 cards.

  5. Give the answer

    The chance of drawing a heart from the rest of the deck is 1 in 4.

    So the answer is B, 14\frac{1}{4}.

Check your answer

10 is one quarter of 40, because 4×10=404 \times 10 = 40. Here is another check. Sara’s hand is 3 hearts out of 12, which is also one quarter. Taking a hand that is one quarter hearts out of a deck that is one quarter hearts leaves one quarter hearts.

The original DOE question
Question 36 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 109 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test C Math, page 109, question 36.

Question 98 of 120

2026 Practice Test C Math, question 39

Question

A shipment contains 170 small boxes of medical supplies. In a random sample of 20 of these boxes, 8 have damage and the others are undamaged. Based on this sample, what is the best prediction of the number of undamaged boxes in the shipment, not including the boxes in the random sample?

  • A60
  • B68
  • C90
  • D102
Show the answer

Correct answer: C

Determine the fraction of undamaged boxes in the sample, given 8 of the 20 boxes are damaged.

20−820=1220=35 or 0.6\frac{20-8}{20} = \frac{12}{20} = \frac{3}{5}\text{ or }0.6

Subtract the number of boxes in the sample from 170.

170−20=150170 - 20 = 150

Basing the prediction of undamaged boxes on the sample, multiply the number of boxes not in the sample by the fraction of undamaged boxes in the sample.

150×0.6=90150 \times 0.6 = 90

Question analysis

A shipment holds 170 boxes of medical supplies, and in a random sample of 20, 8 are damaged. Students predict how many undamaged boxes are in the shipment, leaving out the boxes in the sample. It tests using a sample to make a prediction, and the question's two conditions each lead to a different tempting wrong choice.

NYS standards
  • 7.RP.3 multistep ratio and percent problems
  • 6.SP.1b samples and populations
Grade level
Grade 7 content, by NYS standard
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Predicting from a random sample is grade 7 proportional reasoning. This version adds two conditions, undamaged rather than damaged and the shipment without the sample, so it takes three steps and a close reading.
Estimated difficulty
Moderate: several steps, or a close reading with one strong distractor.
What makes it hard
Solution
3 steps
Reading level
Question and choices: about grade 8, 49 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

The proportion itself is routine; the question is built around two conditions that each change the numbers. The stem reports the damaged boxes, but the question asks about undamaged ones, and its bold not removes the 20 sampled boxes from the shipment. Each wrong choice matches one way of mishandling the two conditions, so checking the result against both words, undamaged and not, is what the question rewards.

  1. Much to keep track of moderate Working it out

    Two conditions point away from the obvious numbers: the question wants undamaged boxes while the stem counts the 8 damaged, and it leaves out the 20 sampled, so 150 boxes, not 170. (Sweller, 1988; Carpenter, Just & Shell, 1990)

  2. Many steps minor Working it out

    Three steps follow in order, the undamaged share 12/20, the 150 boxes outside the sample, and their product, and each wrong turn lands on a listed choice. (Daniel & Embretson, 2010; Enright, Morley & Sheehan, 2002)

Strategy: Find the fraction of the sample that is undamaged, count the boxes that were not sampled, and multiply; then check that the answer describes the group of boxes asked about.

Traps

  • Misreads the question: Misses or misreads a condition or a word in the question: "at least", "each", "remaining", "not".
  • Answers a different question: A choice is right for another quantity: the other unknown, the rest instead of the part, the part instead of the whole.

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Worked solution, step by step

Formulas used

Predicting from a sample
prediction=part of the samplesample size×group size\text{prediction} = \frac{\text{part of the sample}}{\text{sample size}} \times \text{group size}
A sample is a small group chosen at random from a bigger group. The fraction is the share of the sample with some feature. A random sample is likely to look like the bigger group. So use the same share of the group you are predicting for.
  1. Sort out the question

    The shipment has 170 boxes. A random sample of 20 boxes was checked, and 8 of them were damaged.

    You need to predict the undamaged boxes in the shipment, not counting the 20 in the sample. Two words matter: undamaged and not.

  2. Find the undamaged share

    The sample has 20−8=1220 - 8 = 12 undamaged boxes. Write that as a share of the sample, and simplify:

    1220=35=0.6\frac{12}{20} = \frac{3}{5} = 0.6

    So 0.6, or 60%, of the sample is undamaged.

    Watch out: 820=0.4\frac{8}{20} = 0.4 is the damaged share. Using it leads to choice A or B.

  3. Count the boxes outside the sample

    The question leaves out the 20 boxes in the sample. Take them away from the shipment:

    170−20=150170 - 20 = 150

    So the prediction is about 150 boxes.

  4. Make the prediction

    Use the same undamaged share for the 150 boxes:

    0.6×150=900.6 \times 150 = 90

    About 90 of those boxes should be undamaged.

    Watch out: 0.6×170=1020.6 \times 170 = 102, choice D, forgets the bold not. It counts the sample boxes again.

  5. Give the answer

    The best prediction is 90 undamaged boxes outside the sample.

    So the answer is C, 90.

Check your answer

Predict the damaged boxes outside the sample too: 0.4×150=600.4 \times 150 = 60. Then 90+60=15090 + 60 = 150, every box outside the sample. Also, 12 out of 20 is a bit more than half. And 90 is a bit more than half of 150.

The original DOE question
Question 39 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 112 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test C Math, page 112, question 39.

Question 99 of 120

2026 Practice Test C Math, question 40

Question

In basketball, a player can earn 1 point for making a free throw and 2 points for making another basket. Marcus makes a mean of 8 free throws per game, and he scores a total of at least 25 points per game. The inequality below shows this relationship, where b represents the number of 2-point baskets Marcus makes.

2b+8≥252b + 8 \geq 25

What is the number of 2-point baskets Marcus needs to make if he wants to score at least his minimum total points for a game and make his mean number of free throws?

  • Ab≤8b \leq 8
  • Bb≥9b \geq 9
  • Cb≥16b \geq 16
  • Db≤25b \leq 25
Show the answer

Correct answer: B

Solve the inequality 2b+8≥252b + 8 \geq 25.

2b+8−8≥25−82b + 8 - 8 \geq 25 - 8

2b≥172b \geq 17

2b2≥172\frac{2b}{2} \geq \frac{17}{2}

b≥8.5b \geq 8.5

Since the number of baskets made must be a whole number, the fewest 2-point baskets, b, he must make is 9.

Question analysis

In basketball, Marcus makes a mean of 8 one-point free throws a game and wants at least 25 points, shown by the inequality 2b + 8 ≥ 25. Students find how many 2-point baskets he needs. It tests solving a two-step inequality and interpreting the solution in context, since a player cannot make part of a basket.

NYS standards
Grade level
Grade 7 content, by NYS standard
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Solving a two-step inequality from a word problem is a grade 7 standard. Here the inequality is already written, so the extra demand is interpreting its solution as a count of baskets, typical of grade 7 tasks.
Estimated difficulty
Straightforward: two steps or one careful reading.
Solution
3 steps
Reading level
Question and choices: about grade 5, 92 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

The inequality is handed over, so the solving is two routine moves; the judgment comes after. Dividing 17 by 2 leaves a half, and since a basket cannot be split, the boundary has to move up to 9: eight baskets give 2(8) + 8 = 24 points, one short of 25. Students who flip the symbol while dividing, or who move the 8 without changing its sign, still find a choice to match.

  1. An answer in an unexpected form minor Choosing the answer

    Solving gives b ≥ 8.5, which no choice shows; it has to be recognized as b ≥ 9, because Marcus cannot make half a basket. (Enright, Morley & Sheehan, 2002)

  2. Complex sentences minor Understanding the question

    The 33-word question restates the given inequality as “at least his minimum total points” and “make his mean number of free throws”, wording harder than the math it describes. (Abedi & Lord, 2001; Freedle & Kostin, 1993; Messick, 1989)

Strategy: Undo the added 8 and then the 2 to solve for b, then ask which whole numbers of baskets actually reach 25 points, testing the boundary value in the original inequality.

Traps

  • Negatives and direction: Arithmetic with negative numbers, the order of a subtraction, or direction on a number line. (Moving a term across the equals sign without changing its sign is a faulty procedure.)
  • A faulty procedure: A systematic but wrong procedure: adding fractions straight across, applying an exponent to each term of a sum, dropping a sign when moving a term.
  • Numbers taken from the question: Combines the numbers in the question without a model of the situation, or is simply a number that appears in the question.

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Worked solution, step by step

Formulas used

Solving an inequality
if A≥B, then A−C≥B−C and A2≥B2\text{if } A \geq B, \text{ then } A - C \geq B - C \text{ and } \frac{A}{2} \geq \frac{B}{2}
A and B are the two sides. The sign ≥ means greater than or equal to. Taking the same amount C from both sides keeps the sign the same. Dividing both sides by a positive number, like 2, also keeps it the same. Only a negative number flips it.
  1. Sort out the question

    A free throw is worth 1 point, and each other basket is worth 2 points. Marcus makes 8 free throws, which give 8 points. The letter b is the number of 2-point baskets, so they give 2b points.

    He wants at least 25 points in all. That is the inequality 2b+8≥252b + 8 \geq 25. An inequality compares two amounts. The sign ≥ means greater than or equal to. You need the values of b that work.

  2. Subtract 8 from both sides

    Undo the added 8 first:

    2b+8−8≥25−82b + 8 - 8 \geq 25 - 8

    2b≥172b \geq 17

    Watch out: adding 8 instead gives 2b≥332b \geq 33. That leads to choice C, which is wrong.

  3. Divide both sides by 2

    2b means 2 times b. Divide both sides by 2. Since 2 is positive, the sign stays the same:

    2b2≥172\frac{2b}{2} \geq \frac{17}{2}

    b≥8.5b \geq 8.5

    Watch out: do not flip the sign here. Flipping it gives b≤8.5b \leq 8.5, which leads to choice A.

  4. Think about whole baskets

    Marcus cannot make half a basket. So test the whole numbers near 8.5:

    2×8+8=242 \times 8 + 8 = 24

    2×9+8=262 \times 9 + 8 = 26

    Eight baskets give 24 points, one short of 25. Nine baskets give 26 points, which is enough. So he needs 9 or more baskets.

  5. Give the answer

    The number of baskets is 9 or more, written b≥9b \geq 9. Choice D, b≤25b \leq 25, just copies the 25 from the points.

    So the answer is B, b≥9b \geq 9.

Check your answer

Try a bigger number, such as b = 12. Then 2×12+8=322 \times 12 + 8 = 32 points, which is at least 25. Any number of baskets above 9 also works, and that is what ≥ says. Below 9, the total stays at 24 points or fewer.

The original DOE question
Question 40 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 113 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test C Math, page 113, question 40.

Question 100 of 120

2026 Practice Test C Math, question 41

Question

Elijah is at the school bookstore. He wants to buy a water bottle for $12.50 and some notebooks that cost $4.75 each. He has at most $35.00 to spend. Write an inequality that represents the number of notebooks, n, Elijah can purchase.

Enter your answer in the space provided. Enter only your answer.

On the test you build the answer on an on-screen keypad; here, type it. Use ^ for a power, sqrt( ) or √ for a root, pi for π, and <= or >= for ≤ and ≥.

Show the answer

Correct answer: 12.50 + 4.75n ≤ 35.00

The question uses the phrase “at most,” which means “less than or equal to” (≤).

Since notebooks cost $4.75 each and Elijah will buy n notebooks, the total cost just for the notebooks is found by multiplying $4.75 by n, or 4.75n4.75n.

Combining the cost of a water bottle ($12.50) with the cost of n notebooks, the inequality is 12.50+4.75n≤35.0012.50 + 4.75n \leq 35.00.

This may also be written as 4.75n+12.50≤35.004.75n + 12.50 \leq 35.00.

Question analysis

Elijah has at most $35.00 to buy one water bottle and some notebooks at the school bookstore, with a price given for each. Students type an inequality for the number of notebooks, n, he can buy. It tests writing an inequality from a word problem. The two prices play different roles, and the phrase "at most" decides the inequality symbol.

NYS standards
Grade level
Grade 7 content, by NYS standard
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Writing an inequality for a budget with a one-time cost and a cost per item is typical grade 7 work. The answer is typed, so both the symbol for "at most" and the role of each price must be right.
Estimated difficulty
Straightforward: two steps or one careful reading.
Solution
2 steps
Reading level
Question and choices: about grade 5, 50 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

The prices are given in the order they are used, so the expression for the total is the easier half. The points are lost on the symbol: “at most” has to be heard as no more than, with equality allowed, and the keypad offers all four inequality signs side by side. Pricing one and two notebooks with the bottle, $17.25 and $22.00, shows which amount repeats and confirms the total.

  1. Turning words into math moderate Understanding the question

    The $12.50 bottle is bought once and the $4.75 is paid for each of n notebooks, and “at most $35.00” has to become ≤, which allows a total of exactly $35.00. (Hegarty, Mayer & Monk, 1995; Koedinger & Nathan, 2004)

  2. An answer in an unexpected form minor Choosing the answer

    The whole inequality, with n, its symbol and both prices, is built on a keypad offering ≤, <, ≥ and >, so a wrong symbol looks as complete as the right one. (Enright, Morley & Sheehan, 2002)

Strategy: Price a few cases by hand, such as 1 and 2 notebooks with the water bottle, to see which amount repeats, then decide whether a total of exactly $35.00 is allowed.

Traps

  • Misreads the question: Misses or misreads a condition or a word in the question: "at least", "each", "remaining", "not".
  • Counting the ends: Inclusive or exclusive ends, fence posts, consecutive numbers: an answer that is one too many or too few, or an endpoint drawn open where it belongs closed (or the reverse).
  • Numbers taken from the question: Combines the numbers in the question without a model of the situation, or is simply a number that appears in the question.

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Worked solution, step by step

Formulas used

Total cost with a one-time cost
total=one-time cost+(price each)×n\text{total} = \text{one-time cost} + (\text{price each}) \times n
The one-time cost is paid once, no matter what. The price each is paid once for every item. n is the number of items. You multiply the price each by n because you pay it n times.
At most
total≤limit\text{total} \leq \text{limit}
The sign ≤ means less than or equal to. The total can be under the limit or exactly equal to it, but never over it. Use it for words like at most and no more than.
  1. Sort out the question

    Elijah buys one water bottle for $12.50. He also buys n notebooks at $4.75 each. He can spend at most $35.00.

    You need an inequality for n. An inequality compares two amounts with a sign such as ≤ instead of =.

  2. Price a few cases

    Work out the cost for a few numbers of notebooks:

    NotebooksTotal ($)
    112.50+4.75=17.2512.50 + 4.75 = 17.25
    212.50+9.50=22.0012.50 + 9.50 = 22.00
    312.50+14.25=26.7512.50 + 14.25 = 26.75

    The $12.50 shows up once. The $4.75 shows up once for each notebook.

  3. Write the total cost

    Use the total cost formula. The bottle is the one-time cost, and each notebook costs $4.75:

    12.50+4.75n12.50 + 4.75n

    Here 4.75n means 4.75 times n.

    Watch out: do not add the two prices first. 17.25n17.25n charges for a new bottle with every notebook.

  4. Choose the sign

    At most $35.00 means the total can be less than $35.00 or exactly $35.00. It cannot be more. So use ≤:

    12.50+4.75n≤35.0012.50 + 4.75n \leq 35.00

    Watch out: ≥ means at least, the opposite. And < leaves out a total of exactly $35.00, which Elijah is allowed to spend.

  5. Enter it on the keypad

    Type the whole inequality. Nothing is printed before the box. On the test, press 1, 2, ., 5, 0, +, 4, ., 7, 5, the n key, the ≤ key, then 3, 5, ., 0, 0. The ≤ key is in the fourth row. Skip the dollar signs. On this site, type <= for ≤.

    So you would enter 12.50 + 4.75n ≤ 35.00. An equal form, such as 4.75n + 12.50 ≤ 35.00, counts too.

Check your answer

Test some numbers. For 4 notebooks, 12.50+4.75×4=31.5012.50 + 4.75 \times 4 = 31.50, which is not over 35.00. For 5 notebooks, 12.50+4.75×5=36.2512.50 + 4.75 \times 5 = 36.25, which is too much. So Elijah can buy up to 4 notebooks. That makes sense for a budget of $35.00.

The original DOE question
Question 41 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 114 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test C Math, page 114, question 41.

Question 101 of 120

2026 Practice Test C Math, question 42

Question

Tariq is making a clay block in the shape of a cube with a side length of 20 cm20\text{ cm}. He hollows out the center by removing clay to form a rectangular prism-shaped hole with a base of 5 cm⋅5 cm5\text{ cm} \cdot 5\text{ cm} and a height of 20 cm20\text{ cm}.

A cube labeled 20 cm along its front right edge. A tall rectangular prism-shaped hole runs from the top face of the cube down to the bottom face, the full height of the cube; its square opening on the top face is shaded gray and labeled 5 cm across. Hidden edges of the cube and the hole are dashed.

What is the volume, in cubic centimeters, of the block after the clay is removed from the center?

Enter your answer in the space.

Fill-in question: work out the answer and type it as a number.

Show the answer

Correct answer: 7,500

First, find the volume of the cube using the formula V=lwhV = lwh.

The length, width, and height of the cube are each equal to 20 cm.

Vc=20 cm×20 cm×20 cm=8,000 cm3V_c = 20\text{ cm} \times 20\text{ cm} \times 20\text{ cm} = 8{,}000\text{ cm}^3

Next, find the volume of the cut-out square prism, with equal length and width of 5 cm and height of 20 cm.

Vp=5 cm×5 cm×20 cm=500 cm3V_p = 5\text{ cm} \times 5\text{ cm} \times 20\text{ cm} = 500\text{ cm}^3

Finally, subtract the volume of the prism from the volume of the cube.

8,000 cm3−500 cm3=7,500 cm38{,}000\text{ cm}^3 - 500\text{ cm}^3 = 7{,}500\text{ cm}^3

Question analysis

Tariq makes a clay cube 20 centimeters on each side and removes a rectangular prism from its center, with a 5 cm by 5 cm base and a height of 20 cm. Students type the volume of the block that is left, in cubic centimeters. It tests the volume of rectangular prisms, and the hole's size must be read carefully from the words and figure.

NYS standards
  • 7.G.6 area, surface area, and volume
  • 6.G.2 volume with fractional edge lengths
Grade level
Grade 7 content, by NYS standard
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Finding the volume of a solid made from rectangular prisms, here by taking one away, is named in the grade 7 standards. This is a direct case with whole numbers, two volumes and one subtraction.
Estimated difficulty
Straightforward: two steps or one careful reading.
Solution
3 steps
Reading level
Question and choices: about grade 8, 66 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

This is a direct composite-volume problem with whole numbers: one cube, one hole, one subtraction. What it checks is that both volumes are real volumes, the hole as tall as the cube, and that the subtraction is done at the end. Students who stop at the hole’s volume, or who subtract only the square face, give amounts that are easy to type and hard to doubt without choices.

  1. Something you must already know minor Working it out

    The volume of a rectangular prism, length times width times height, is not given, and it is needed twice, once for the 20 cm cube and once for the hole. (Anderson & Krathwohl, 2001)

  2. Reading a figure, table or graph minor Understanding the question

    The figure labels only the 5 cm opening and the cube’s 20 cm edge; the hole’s 20 cm height comes from the words, while the drawing shows it reaching from top to bottom. (Lesh, Post & Behr, 1987; Kirsch & Mosenthal, 1990)

  3. An answer in an unexpected form minor Choosing the answer

    The volume is typed with no choices to compare, so the hole’s 500 cubic centimeters or the cube’s 8,000 can be entered without any warning. (Enright, Morley & Sheehan, 2002)

Strategy: Find the volume of the full cube, then the volume of the square hole that runs from the top face to the bottom, and subtract the hole from the cube.

Traps

  • Answers a different question: A choice is right for another quantity: the other unknown, the rest instead of the part, the part instead of the whole.
  • Misreads the figure: Reads a value, label or tick spacing in a figure, table or graph wrongly.
  • Wrong formula: Uses a related but wrong formula: perimeter for area, diameter for radius, area for volume, or a misremembered one.

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Worked solution, step by step

Formulas used

Volume of a rectangular prism
V=l×w×hV = l \times w \times h
V is the volume, the space inside a solid. l is the length, w is the width and h is the height. A cube is a prism with all three the same. Volume is measured in cubic centimeters, tiny cubes 1 cm on each side.
  1. Sort out the question

    Tariq’s block starts as a cube 20 cm on each side. He removes a hole shaped like a rectangular prism, a box shape with flat rectangle sides. Its base is 5 cm by 5 cm, and its height is 20 cm. The figure shows it running from the top face to the bottom face.

    You need the volume of the clay that is left, in cubic centimeters.

  2. Find the volume of the cube

    Use the volume formula. The length, width and height are all 20 cm:

    V=20×20×20=8,000V = 20 \times 20 \times 20 = 8{,}000

    The full cube holds 8,000 cubic cm of clay.

  3. Find the volume of the hole

    The hole is a prism too. Its length and width are 5 cm, and its height is 20 cm:

    V=5×5×20=500V = 5 \times 5 \times 20 = 500

    So 500 cubic cm of clay are removed.

    Watch out: the hole is 20 cm tall, not 5 cm. Treating it as a small 5 cm cube gives 125 and the wrong answer 7,875. And 5 × 5 = 25 is only the area of the opening, not a volume. Subtracting it gives 7,975, also wrong.

  4. Subtract the hole from the cube

    The clay left is the cube minus the hole:

    8,000−500=7,5008{,}000 - 500 = 7{,}500

    The block has 7,500 cubic cm of clay left.

    Watch out: 500 is the clay taken out, not the clay that is left.

  5. Enter the number

    Type only the number, with no units. You can type 7500 or 7,500.

    So you would enter 7,500.

Check your answer

Think of the cube as 20 flat layers, each 1 cm thick. Each layer is a 20 by 20 square, 400 square cm, with a 5 by 5 hole, 25 square cm. So each layer holds 400−25=375400 - 25 = 375 cubic cm of clay. Then 20×375=7,50020 \times 375 = 7{,}500. It matches.

The original DOE question
Question 42 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 115 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test C Math, page 115, question 42.

Question 102 of 120

2026 Practice Test C Math, question 44

Question

A smartphone screen is designed to be 72 millimeters wide. The quality control team allows for a variation of ±4%\pm 4\% in the width. Select the minimum and maximum screen widths that fall within the acceptable range of screen widths, in millimeters.

Select the correct answer from each drop-down to complete the sentence.

The acceptable screen width is from to millimeters.

Choose an answer from each menu, then check. The DOE has not published how answers with several parts are scored; this site counts one right only when every part is right.

Show the answer

Correct answer: blank 1: 69.12; blank 2: 74.88

A variation of ±4%\pm 4\% in the width means that the width of the smartphone can be from 4% less than the standard of 72 mm to 4% greater than 72 mm.

The least allowed measure is

72−0.04(72)=72−2.88=69.12 mm72 - 0.04(72) = 72 - 2.88 = 69.12\text{ mm}

The greatest allowed measure is

72+0.04(72)=72+2.88=74.88 mm72 + 0.04(72) = 72 + 2.88 = 74.88\text{ mm}

Therefore, the allowable range is from 69.12 mm to 74.88 mm in width.

Question analysis

A smartphone screen is designed to be 72 millimeters wide, and quality control allows a variation of plus or minus 4%. Students choose the minimum and maximum acceptable widths from two drop-down menus. It tests finding a percent of a quantity, and the 4% has to be turned into millimeters before it is added or subtracted.

NYS standards
  • 7.RP.3 multistep ratio and percent problems
  • 6.RP.3c percent as a rate per 100
Grade level
Grade 7 content, by NYS standard
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Finding a percent of a number and adding or subtracting it is grade 7 percent work. The ± sign, the decimal result and two linked menus, which must both be right, add a little to the usual demand.
Estimated difficulty
Moderate: several steps, or a close reading with one strong distractor.
Solution
3 steps
Reading level
Question and choices: about grade 8, 59 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

The question rewards turning the percent into millimeters before doing anything else. Students who treat ±4% as ±4 millimeters find the two whole-number options at either end of the menus, 68.00 and 76.00, which look like a natural pair. Those who compute 2.88 correctly can still lose the item on the maximum by rounding to 3 and picking 75.00. Multiplying 72 by 0.96 and by 1.04 is a quick double-check.

  1. Error-prone arithmetic moderate Working it out

    Four percent of 72 is 0.04 × 72 = 2.88, a decimal product, and taking it from 72 means borrowing across the decimal point to reach 69.12. (Brown & Burton, 1978; Junker & Sijtsma, 2001)

  2. Turning words into math minor Understanding the question

    The phrase “a variation of ±4% in the width” has to become 4% of 72 millimeters, a length of 2.88 mm, before anything is added or subtracted. (Hegarty, Mayer & Monk, 1995; Koedinger & Nathan, 2004)

  3. A very close wrong answer minor Choosing the answer

    The second menu lists 75.00 just 0.12 above 74.88, so a rounded estimate of 72 + 3 lands on the wrong option, and estimating cannot separate the two. (Embretson & Wetzel, 1987; Gorin & Embretson, 2006; Ascalon et al., 2007)

  4. Many steps minor Working it out

    Both menus must be right to score, so the minimum and the maximum each need their own subtraction or addition after the shared percent is found. (Daniel & Embretson, 2010; Enright, Morley & Sheehan, 2002)

Strategy: Find 4% of the 72-millimeter design width first, then subtract that amount for the minimum and add it for the maximum, before looking at the menus.

Traps

  • Misunderstands the concept: A wrong belief about a concept: that percents can be added, that area grows like length, that averages can be averaged, that a bigger denominator means a bigger fraction.
  • Rounds too early: Rounds a value partway through, or rounds the wrong way, so the final answer drifts from the exact one.

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Worked solution, step by step

Formulas used

Percent of a number
part=percent100×whole\text{part} = \frac{\text{percent}}{100} \times \text{whole}
The percent is how many out of 100. Dividing it by 100 turns it into a decimal, so 4% becomes 0.04. The whole is the amount you take the percent of. The part is the amount that the percent stands for.
  1. Sort out the question

    The screen is designed to be 72 millimeters (mm) wide. The sign ±4% means plus or minus 4%. So a screen may be up to 4% narrower or up to 4% wider than 72 mm.

    You need the minimum, the smallest allowed width, and the maximum, the largest. You pick each one from a drop-down menu.

  2. Find 4% of 72 mm

    Use the percent formula. 4% is 4100=0.04\frac{4}{100} = 0.04:

    0.04×72=2.880.04 \times 72 = 2.88

    So the width may change by up to 2.88 mm either way.

    Watch out: 4% is not 4 mm. Taking 4 away and adding 4 gives 68.00 and 76.00. Both are in the menus, and both are wrong.

  3. Find the minimum width

    Take the change away from the design width:

    72−2.88=69.1272 - 2.88 = 69.12

    The narrowest allowed screen is 69.12 mm wide.

  4. Find the maximum width

    Add the change to the design width:

    72+2.88=74.8872 + 2.88 = 74.88

    The widest allowed screen is 74.88 mm wide.

    Watch out: rounding 2.88 up to 3 gives 75.00. That is in the second menu too, but it is too wide.

  5. Choose from each menu

    Open the first drop-down menu and choose 69.12. Open the second one and choose 74.88.

    So the sentence reads: the acceptable screen width is from 69.12 to 74.88 millimeters.

Check your answer

Use multipliers. A screen 4% narrower keeps 96% of the width: 0.96×72=69.120.96 \times 72 = 69.12. A screen 4% wider is 104% of it: 1.04×72=74.881.04 \times 72 = 74.88. Both match. Also, both ends are the same 2.88 mm away from 72.

The original DOE question
Question 44 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 117 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test C Math, page 117, question 44.

Question 103 of 120

2026 Practice Test C Math, question 45

Question

Malik earns $10 per hour at his job. He wants to change to a job that will pay $12 per hour. What will be the percent increase in Malik’s hourly pay if he makes this job change?

  • A2%
  • B20%
  • C83%
  • D120%
Show the answer

Correct answer: B

Subtract to determine the amount of increase in Malik’s hourly pay if he changes jobs.

12−10=212 - 10 = 2

Divide the increase amount by the original hourly pay rate.

2÷10=0.22 \div 10 = 0.2

Multiply the quotient by 100 to express the decimal amount as a percentage.

0.2×100=200.2 \times 100 = 20

Question analysis

Malik earns $10 an hour and wants to switch to a job that pays $12 an hour. Students find the percent increase in his hourly pay. It tests finding a percent change. The numbers are easy, so the challenge is knowing which amounts to compare and how to turn that comparison into a percent.

NYS standards
  • 7.RP.3 multistep ratio and percent problems
Grade level
Grade 7 content, by NYS standard
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Percent increase is grade 7 content, and this case uses whole-dollar wages that make the arithmetic easy. The demand is comparing the change with the right amount rather than reporting the change itself or a ratio of the wages.
Estimated difficulty
Straightforward: two steps or one careful reading.
Solution
2 steps
Reading level
Question and choices: about grade 2, 35 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

The numbers could hardly be friendlier, a $2 raise on $10, so the question checks what to divide by what. Dividing $12 by $10 gives 1.2, the new pay as a percent of the old, and stopping there is tempting because the division feels like the whole job. Reading the $2 itself as 2% is the other quick error, since dollars of change are not percent of change.

  1. Something you must already know minor Working it out

    The rule for percent change, the change divided by the starting amount, is not given, and each wrong choice comes from a different comparison of the $10 and the $12. (Anderson & Krathwohl, 2001)

  2. Turning words into math minor Understanding the question

    “Percent increase in Malik’s hourly pay” has to be read as the $2 rise measured against the $10 he earns now, not as the new wage compared with the old. (Hegarty, Mayer & Monk, 1995; Koedinger & Nathan, 2004)

Strategy: Find how many dollars the hourly pay goes up, then divide that change by the pay Malik earns now and write the result as a percent.

Traps

  • Answers a different question: A choice is right for another quantity: the other unknown, the rest instead of the part, the part instead of the whole.
  • Misunderstands the concept: A wrong belief about a concept: that percents can be added, that area grows like length, that averages can be averaged, that a bigger denominator means a bigger fraction.
  • Wrong operation: Adds instead of multiplying, divides the wrong way round, turns a ratio or rate upside down, or undoes a step in the wrong direction (subtracts what should be added back).

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Worked solution, step by step

Formulas used

Percent increase
percent increase=new−originaloriginal×100\text{percent increase} = \frac{\text{new} - \text{original}}{\text{original}} \times 100
The original is the amount before the change. The new amount is the amount after it. The top is how much it went up. Dividing by the original compares the change with where you started. Multiplying by 100 makes it a percent.
  1. Sort out the question

    Malik earns $10 an hour now. The new job pays $12 an hour. You need the percent increase.

    That means: how much does his pay go up, compared with what he earns now? So $10 is the original amount, and $12 is the new amount.

  2. Find the increase in dollars

    Subtract the old pay from the new pay:

    12−10=212 - 10 = 2

    His pay goes up by $2 an hour.

    Watch out: $2 is an amount of money, not a percent. Calling it 2% gives choice A.

  3. Compare the increase with the original

    Use the percent increase formula. Divide the $2 by the original $10, then multiply by 100:

    210×100=0.2×100=20\frac{2}{10} \times 100 = 0.2 \times 100 = 20

    So the pay goes up by 20%.

    Watch out: 12÷10=1.212 \div 10 = 1.2 is 120%, choice D. That is the new pay as a percent of the old, not the increase. And 10÷1210 \div 12 is about 83%, choice C, which is upside down.

  4. Give the answer

    The $2 raise is 20% of Malik’s current pay.

    So the answer is B, 20%.

Check your answer

Work forward. 20% of $10 is 0.20×10=20.20 \times 10 = 2 dollars. Add that to $10, and you get $12, the new pay. It works. Note that 120% is the new pay compared with the old pay, which is the same as a 20% increase.

The original DOE question
Question 45 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 118 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test C Math, page 118, question 45.

Question 104 of 120

2026 Practice Test C Math, question 48

Question

Which table shows a proportional relationship?

  • A
    xy
    00
    432\frac{3}{2}
    83
  • B
    xy
    01
    472\frac{7}{2}
    86
  • C
    xy
    0−1
    4−12-\frac{1}{2}
    80
  • D
    xy
    00
    412
    816
Show the answer

Correct answer: A

The first table is the only one with a constant of proportionality, 38\frac{3}{8}.

In each ordered pair, 38x=y\frac{3}{8}x = y.

38(0)=0\frac{3}{8}(0) = 0

38(4)=128=32\frac{3}{8}(4) = \frac{12}{8} = \frac{3}{2}

38(8)=248=3\frac{3}{8}(8) = \frac{24}{8} = 3

Question analysis

Four tables each give y for x = 0, 4 and 8, with some values written as fractions or negatives. Students choose the table that shows a proportional relationship. It tests recognizing proportional relationships from a table, which means checking every row against one rule rather than judging by the pattern.

NYS standards
  • 7.RP.2a testing for proportionality
  • 7.RP.2b constant of proportionality
Grade level
Grade 7 content, by NYS standard
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Deciding from a table whether a relationship is proportional is a core grade 7 skill. The fractions and negative values in the tables make each ratio a careful check rather than a glance.
Estimated difficulty
Straightforward: two steps or one careful reading.
Solution
2 steps
Reading level
Question and choices: about grade 9, 13 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

Two quick tests decide proportionality, and the tables are built so that each test alone lets a wrong table through. The last table starts at (0, 0) like the right one, while the middle two grow by equal steps like the right one. Only checking that y ÷ x is the same in every row with x not 0 separates the one table whose ratio stays at 3/8.

  1. Every choice must be checked moderate Choosing the answer

    Each table has to be tested row by row, and two of them start at (0, 0), so the opening row settles nothing; only y ÷ x in the other rows separates them. (Embretson & Wetzel, 1987)

  2. Error-prone arithmetic minor Working it out

    The y-values include 3/2, 7/2 and −1/2, so the ratios mean dividing fractions by 4, such as (3/2) ÷ 4 = 3/8, and comparing them with 3 ÷ 8. (Brown & Burton, 1978; Junker & Sijtsma, 2001)

Strategy: For each table, divide y by x in every row where x is not zero, and check that the quotient never changes and that y is 0 when x is 0.

Traps

  • Misunderstands the concept: A wrong belief about a concept: that percents can be added, that area grows like length, that averages can be averaged, that a bigger denominator means a bigger fraction.
  • Checks only one number: Tries one value in each choice and takes the first that works, when that value happens to work for a wrong choice too; a second value would rule it out.

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Worked solution, step by step

Formulas used

Proportional relationship
y=kxy = kx
y and x are the two amounts in each row. k is the constant of proportionality, the same number in every row. Two tests follow from it. When x is 0, y must be 0. And y ÷ x must equal k in every row where x is not 0.
  1. Sort out the question

    Each table gives y for x = 0, 4 and 8. You need the one that shows a proportional relationship. That means y is always the same number times x.

    Use two tests. First, y must be 0 when x is 0. Second, y ÷ x must be the same in the other rows.

  2. Test the row where x is 0

    Look at the top row of each table:

    • Table A: y = 0. It passes.
    • Table B: y = 1. It fails.
    • Table C: y = −1. It fails.
    • Table D: y = 0. It passes.

    Watch out: tables B and C go up by equal steps. Steady steps are not enough, because they do not start at 0. Table C does have a 0, but it is next to x = 8.

  3. Test the ratio in table A

    Divide y by x. Dividing by 4 is the same as multiplying by 14\frac{1}{4}:

    32÷4=32×14=38\frac{3}{2} \div 4 = \frac{3}{2} \times \frac{1}{4} = \frac{3}{8}

    3÷8=383 \div 8 = \frac{3}{8}

    Both rows give 38\frac{3}{8}. Table A passes both tests.

  4. Test the ratio in table D

    Divide y by x in the same way:

    12÷4=316÷8=212 \div 4 = 3 \qquad 16 \div 8 = 2

    The ratios are different, so table D is not proportional.

    Watch out: table D starts at (0, 0) like a proportional table. If you check only that row, or only the row with 4, you will pick choice D.

  5. Give the answer

    Only table A starts at (0, 0) and keeps y ÷ x the same.

    So the answer is A, the table with y = 0, 32\frac{3}{2} and 3.

Check your answer

Use the rule for table A, y=38xy = \frac{3}{8}x. When x = 4, y=38×4=128=32y = \frac{3}{8} \times 4 = \frac{12}{8} = \frac{3}{2}. When x = 8, y=38×8=3y = \frac{3}{8} \times 8 = 3. Both match. Doubling x from 4 to 8 also doubles y.

The original DOE question
Question 48 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 121 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test C Math, page 121, question 48.

Question 105 of 120

2026 Practice Test C Math, question 49

Question

The box plot illustrates the number of hours eighth-grade students spend on screens during a typical week. What is the difference between the range and the interquartile range (IQR) of the screen time data?

A box plot titled NUMBER OF SCREEN HOURS FOR 8th GRADE STUDENTS above a number line labeled Hours, from 5 to 20 with a labeled tick at every 1. The left whisker starts at 5, the box runs from 8 to 15 with the median line at 12, and the right whisker ends at 20.

Move the correct answer to each box. Not all answers will be used.

The range of screen time hours is hours.

The IQR is hours.

The difference between the range and the IQR is hours.

On the test you drag tiles into the boxes; here, choose each box’s tile from its menu. Each tile can be used once. The DOE has not published how answers with several parts are scored; this site counts one right only when every part is right.

Show the answer

Correct answer: blank 1: 15; blank 2: 7; blank 3: 8

Determine the range by subtracting the minimum value on the box plot from the maximum value on the box plot:

Maximum value =20 hr= 20\text{ hr}, Minimum value =5 hr= 5\text{ hr}

20 hr−5 hr=15 hr20\text{ hr} - 5\text{ hr} = 15\text{ hr}

Determine the interquartile range by subtracting the lower quartile value on the box plot from the upper quartile value on the box plot:

Upper Quartile Value =15 hr= 15\text{ hr}, Lower Quartile Value =8 hr= 8\text{ hr}

15 hr−8 hr=7 hr15\text{ hr} - 8\text{ hr} = 7\text{ hr}

Determine the difference between the range (15 hr) and the interquartile range (7 hr):

15 hr−7 hr=8 hr15\text{ hr} - 7\text{ hr} = 8\text{ hr}

Question analysis

A box plot shows how many hours a week eighth-grade students spend on screens, on a number line marked every hour. Students move number tiles to complete three sentences: the range, the interquartile range, and the difference between them. Each tile can be used only once, and keeping the range and the interquartile range apart is the tricky part.

NYS standards
  • 7.SP.1 box plots and interquartile range
  • 6.SP.5c range, center, and overall pattern
Grade level
Grade 7 content, by NYS standard
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Reading a box plot and finding its range and interquartile range are grade 7 statistics skills. The values sit on labeled whole-number ticks and the three sentences lead through the steps, a typical grade 7 task.
Estimated difficulty
Straightforward: two steps or one careful reading.
What makes it hard
Solution
3 steps
Reading level
Question and choices: about grade 4, 69 words.
Corrected from the DOE handbook
  • A missing comma in the explanation was restored.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

The plot is drawn on whole-hour ticks, and the three sentences lay out the steps, so this is a direct check of two definitions. The main risk is taking a value off the plot, such as the lower quartile of 8, for a spread between two values. Because the four tiles allow only one use each, a student who confuses the measures can still fill every box, which hides the error.

  1. Something you must already know minor Working it out

    The sentences name the range and the IQR but never define them; students must know the range spans the whiskers and the IQR spans only the box. (Anderson & Krathwohl, 2001)

  2. Many steps minor Working it out

    Three boxes must all be right, the third depends on the first two, and each tile can be used once, so one mix-up spreads to a second box. (Daniel & Embretson, 2010; Enright, Morley & Sheehan, 2002)

Strategy: Read the five key values off the plot, subtract the least from the greatest for the range, subtract the lower quartile from the upper for the IQR, then subtract those results.

Traps

  • Misunderstands the concept: A wrong belief about a concept: that percents can be added, that area grows like length, that averages can be averaged, that a bigger denominator means a bigger fraction.
  • Wrong formula: Uses a related but wrong formula: perimeter for area, diameter for radius, area for volume, or a misremembered one.

The wrong answers, classified

What was corrected from the DOE handbook, and why

  • Explanation: The DOE’s explanation runs two values together: “Maximum value = 20 hr Minimum value = 5 hr”. Its next line is “Upper Quartile Value = 15 hr, Lower Quartile Value = 8 hr”, and Question 32’s explanation has “Maximum value = 84° F, Minimum value = 39° F”. The site adds the comma.

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Worked solution, step by step

Formulas used

Range
range=maximum−minimum\text{range} = \text{maximum} - \text{minimum}
The maximum is the greatest value, at the right end of the right whisker. The minimum is the least value, at the left end of the left whisker. The range tells how far the whole set of data spreads.
Interquartile range (IQR)
IQR=Q3−Q1\text{IQR} = Q_3 - Q_1
Q3 is the upper quartile, the right edge of the box. Q1 is the lower quartile, the left edge of the box. The IQR is the width of the box. It tells how far the middle half of the data spreads.
  1. Sort out the question

    The box plot shows the hours of screen time for eighth graders in a week. You need three numbers: the range, the IQR, and the difference between them.

    There are four tiles: 5, 7, 8 and 15. Each tile is used at most once, and one tile is left over.

  2. Read the five values

    The number line has a tick at every hour, and every value sits on a tick:

    • The left whisker starts at 5. This is the minimum.
    • The box starts at 8. This is the lower quartile, the middle of the lower half of the data.
    • The line inside the box is at 12. This is the median, the middle value.
    • The box ends at 15. This is the upper quartile, the middle of the upper half.
    • The right whisker ends at 20. This is the maximum.
  3. Find the range

    Use the range formula with the two ends of the whiskers:

    range=20−5=15\text{range} = 20 - 5 = 15

    The screen times spread over 15 hours, from the least to the most.

  4. Find the IQR

    Use the IQR formula with the two edges of the box:

    IQR=15−8=7\text{IQR} = 15 - 8 = 7

    The middle half of the students spend between 8 and 15 hours, a spread of 7 hours.

    Watch out: the IQR is a width, not a point on the plot. The tile 8 is the lower quartile. Putting it in the IQR box also makes the last box 7, which is wrong.

  5. Find the difference

    Subtract the IQR from the range:

    15−7=815 - 7 = 8

    Watch out: do not swap the two measures. The range uses the whiskers’ ends, and the IQR uses only the box.

  6. Fill in the three boxes

    On the test, you drag a tile into each box. On this site, you choose each tile from its box’s menu. The range box gets 15, the IQR box gets 7, and the difference box gets 8. The tile 5 is not used.

    So the boxes get 15, 7 and 8.

Check your answer

The difference is just the two whiskers added together. The left whisker is 8−5=38 - 5 = 3 hours long. The right whisker is 20−15=520 - 15 = 5 hours long. 3+5=83 + 5 = 8, which matches the third box.

The original DOE question
Question 49 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 122 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test C Math, page 122, question 49. This is the DOE’s version, before the corrections listed in the analysis.

Question 106 of 120

2026 Practice Test C Math, question 50

Question

Terry wants to pour cement around the edge of the circular patio in her backyard. The patio has a radius of 5 feet. What is the distance, in feet, around the edge of the patio? Use 3.14 for π\pi.

  • A15.7
  • B31.4
  • C49.3
  • D78.5
Show the answer

Correct answer: B

To find the distance around a circle if the radius is known, use the formula for circumference, C=2πrC = 2\pi r.

C=2(3.14)(5)=31.4C = 2(3.14)(5) = 31.4

Question analysis

Terry wants to pour cement around the edge of a circular patio with a radius of 5 feet. Students find the distance around the edge, using 3.14 for π. It tests the circumference of a circle, and because the formulas for a circle's area and circumference both use the radius, they are easy to mix up.

NYS standards
  • 7.G.4 circle area and circumference
Grade level
Grade 7 content, by NYS standard
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Applying a circle formula is a grade 7 standard, and this is a one-formula problem with a given value for π. The only demand beyond routine is recalling the right formula, which the test does not print.
Estimated difficulty
Straightforward: two steps or one careful reading.
Solution
2 steps
Reading level
Question and choices: about grade 4, 37 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

One formula and one multiplication finish the problem once the right formula is chosen. The cement in the story pulls toward area, and the area, 78.5, is listed, as is half the circumference, from multiplying 3.14 by the radius alone. Remembering that the circumference is π times the diameter, here 10 feet, and that the answer is in feet, not square feet, settles it.

  1. Something you must already know moderate Working it out

    The circumference formula is not printed, and the area formula uses the same radius and π, so recalling the wrong one gives a number that looks just as finished. (Anderson & Krathwohl, 2001)

  2. Turning words into math minor Understanding the question

    Pouring cement suggests covering a surface, but the question asks for “the distance, in feet, around the edge”, which is the circumference, not the area. (Hegarty, Mayer & Monk, 1995; Koedinger & Nathan, 2004)

Strategy: Decide which circle measurement the distance around the edge is, recall its formula, and substitute the radius and 3.14, doubling the radius wherever the formula calls for the diameter.

Traps

  • Wrong formula: Uses a related but wrong formula: perimeter for area, diameter for radius, area for volume, or a misremembered one.
  • A formula you must know: Needs a formula the test does not give: area, circumference, volume, probability rules.
  • A faulty procedure: A systematic but wrong procedure: adding fractions straight across, applying an exponent to each term of a sum, dropping a sign when moving a term.

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Worked solution, step by step

Formulas used

Circumference of a circle
C=2πrC = 2 \pi r
C is the circumference, the distance around the circle. r is the radius, the distance from the center to the edge. π (pi) is a fixed number, about 3.14. 2r is the diameter, the distance all the way across. The distance around is always about 3.14 times that.
Area of a circle
A=πr2A = \pi r^2
A is the area, the space inside the circle, in square units. r² means r times r. It is here so you can tell the two formulas apart. This question does not use it.
  1. Sort out the question

    The patio is a circle with a radius of 5 feet. The radius is the distance from the center to the edge. Terry wants cement around the edge.

    You need the distance around the edge, in feet. The distance around a circle is called its circumference. Use 3.14 for π.

  2. Choose the right formula

    The distance around is a length, so use the circumference formula, C=2πrC = 2\pi r.

    Watch out: pouring cement may make you think of area. The area, 3.14×5×5=78.53.14 \times 5 \times 5 = 78.5 square feet, is choice D. That is the space inside the patio, not the distance around it.

  3. Put in the numbers

    Put 3.14 in for π and 5 in for r. Multiply 2 by 5 first, because that is easy:

    C=2×3.14×5=10×3.14=31.4C = 2 \times 3.14 \times 5 = 10 \times 3.14 = 31.4

    The distance around the patio is 31.4 feet.

    Watch out: 3.14×5=15.73.14 \times 5 = 15.7, choice A, forgets the 2. It goes only halfway around.

  4. Give the answer

    The distance around the edge of the patio is 31.4 feet.

    So the answer is B, 31.4.

Check your answer

Estimate. The diameter is 10 feet. The distance around a circle is a little more than 3 times its diameter. 3×10=303 \times 10 = 30, so about 31 feet makes sense. Choice D, 78.5, is far too big, and it is in square feet.

The original DOE question
Question 50 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 123 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test C Math, page 123, question 50.

Question 107 of 120

2026 Practice Test D English, question 1
Passage A Memory Revolution

A Memory Revolution

A high school senior logs on to a computer at the library to double-check the application due date listed on a college admissions website. Nearby, a librarian helps a group of biology students use a database to search for recent studies about mammals. In the past few decades, the Internet has become an integral component of daily life for many people. The seemingly limitless power of search engines made the Internet search extremely common, and today people increasingly rely on the Internet’s vast accumulation of sources to access all types of information. Scientists are beginning to examine how this reliance is modifying the strategies people use to store and prioritize information in their mind.

A Dependable and Valuable Asset

Psychologist Benjamin Storm from the University of California, Santa Cruz, and researchers Sean Stone and Aaron Benjamin devised an experiment to study students’ tendency to depend on the Internet for facts. To begin, the scientists divided sixty participants into multiple groups, including an “Internet” group and a “memory” group, and placed them in front of computers. The Internet group was required to use the search engine Google to answer eight challenging trivia questions. In contrast, participants in the memory group were permitted to use only their personal knowledge to answer the questions. In the second round, the researchers administered notably easier questions. This time, they allowed each group the option of using Google as they answered. Their results showed that 83 percent of the Internet group continued to consult Google in the second round, while only 63 percent of the memory group chose to do so.

People’s growing inclination to rely on the Internet in order to retrieve information, particularly facts and figures, is called cognitive offloading. Canadian researcher Evan F. Risko and British researcher Sam Gilbert, who have written extensively about the topic, say a similar process has been taking place for centuries. In the past, people used resources like encyclopedias to assist their memories; however, today the Internet, serving as a vast extended memory, allows people to digitally access and retrieve much larger volumes of information. Consequently, people’s minds are free for other cognitive feats, such as connecting data, learning new information, or solving problems.

Filing Information Away

The use of the Internet also appears to be modifying the strategies people use to store information in their mind. Researchers Betsy Sparrow from Columbia University, Jenny Liu from the University of Wisconsin-Madison, and Daniel Wegner from Harvard University conducted several studies to discover how people efficiently manage their information intake.

To begin, the researchers examined how people evaluate which information deserves their effort to remember. For this experiment, participants read forty trivia facts, such as “An ostrich’s eye is bigger than its brain,” and typed the statements into a computer file. Half the participants had been previously told the file would be saved, while half believed it would be erased. Next, the participants wrote down every fact they could recall. Those who believed the information would be erased and no longer available could recall 40 percent more facts than those who thought the information would be saved.

In another experiment, the same researchers tested the ability of study participants to remember where to access information. For this trial, participants read and typed trivia statements, which they saved in folders with generic names such as “Facts” and “Items.” After spending ten minutes writing down all the facts they could recall from memory, participants were asked which folder contained a particular fact based on a keyword. For example, “Which folder has the fact about ostriches?” Overall, participants recalled the information’s location more often than the content itself, correctly identifying 49 percent of the folders for specific facts while remembering only 23 percent of the actual trivia. The researchers concluded that our memory is adapting to the Internet age by prioritizing where to locate information even when the specific details are forgotten. According to Sparrow, the Internet has become an important form of transactive memory, an external source of the recollections and associative networks that constitute memory.

As the Internet’s resources continue to expand our “external” memory, some question whether the process may cause people to depend too heavily on technology. However, Steven Pinker, a professor of psychology at Harvard University, says, “Knowledge is increasing exponentially; human brainpower and waking hours are not. Fortunately, the Internet and information technologies are helping us manage, search and retrieve our collective intellectual output at different scales, from Twitter and previews to e-books and online encyclopedias. Far from making us stupid, these technologies are the only things that will keep us smart.”

Flow diagram titled “HOW MEMORY WORKS”: an arrow labeled “New Information” points down into a box labeled “Sensory Memory,” and an arrow labeled “Attention” leads down from that box to a box labeled “Short-Term Memory.” From Short-Term Memory, an arrow points right to the note “Unrehearsed information is forgotten,” and on its left a curved arrow labeled “Rehearsal” loops from the bottom of the box back into its top, beside the note “Information is maintained through repetition.” An arrow labeled “Storage” leads down from Short-Term Memory to a box labeled “Long-Term Memory,” a curved arrow labeled “Retrieval” leads from Long-Term Memory back up into Short-Term Memory, and an arrow points right from Long-Term Memory to the note “Some information may be forgotten over time.”

Question

The details in paragraph 3 about cognitive offloading convey a central idea of the passage by

  • Asuggesting that reliance on the Internet for information is inevitable.
  • Bdemonstrating how the methods used to store and find information have changed over time.
  • Cexplaining how encyclopedias and the Internet are similar sources of information.
  • Dimplying that more information can be understood now than ever before.
Show the answer

Correct answer: B

The question asks how the details in paragraph 3 about cognitive offloading convey a central idea of the passage.

A. Incorrect. Although paragraph 3 describes the Internet as “a vast extended memory,” it does not present reliance on the Internet for information as inevitable. The paragraph states that the Internet “allows people to digitally access and retrieve much larger volumes of information” and indicates that this benefit leaves people free to focus on “connecting data, learning new information, or solving problems.” However, these details about the benefits of the Internet do not express an opinion about the inevitability of Internet reliance.

B. CORRECT. A central idea of the passage is that the Internet is changing how people retain information. Paragraph 3 supports this idea by stating that “a similar process has been taking place for centuries” and that “in the past,” resources such as encyclopedias were used to store and find information. The details provided in paragraph 3 about encyclopedias and the Internet show that people have always used resources to remember information and that these resources change over time as people develop new ways to “assist their memories.”

C. Incorrect. While paragraph 3 does compare the use of encyclopedias to obtain information in the past with the use of today’s Internet, this comparison fails to convey the central idea of the passage that the Internet is changing how people remember information.

D. Incorrect. Although paragraph 3 states that “much larger volumes of information” are available on the Internet than what has been available in previous methods of information storage, such as encyclopedias, this fact does not relate to an increase in the ability to understand that information and is not a central idea of the passage.

Question analysis

This central-idea question on “A Memory Revolution,” an article about how relying on the Internet affects the way people remember, asks how the details about cognitive offloading in paragraph 3 convey a central idea of the passage. The paragraph mentions encyclopedias, the Internet and freed-up minds, and the choices each build on a different detail, so students must see what the paragraph adds to the article as a whole.

NYS standards
  • 7R2 theme or central idea
  • 7R5 structure and genre features
Grade level
Grade 8 reading and task
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Tying one paragraph’s details to a central idea is regular grade 7 work. Paragraph 3 is short, but terms such as “cognitive offloading” and “extended memory” are abstract, and students must settle on the article’s central idea before judging the paragraph.
Estimated difficulty
Moderate: several steps, or a close reading with one strong distractor.
Evidence
Answered from one paragraph or stanza
Reading level
Passage: about grade 14, 763 words; question and choices: about grade 11, 61 words.
Corrected from the DOE handbook
  • An inaccurate statement about paragraph 3 in the explanation was corrected.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

Paragraph 3 is built on a then-and-now contrast: encyclopedias once helped people remember, and today the Internet does the same job on a far larger scale. Students who notice only the pairing take it for a likeness, while those who stop at the opening “growing inclination to rely on the Internet” are tempted to call the reliance unstoppable. The point goes to students who first name the article’s central idea, that the Internet is changing how people remember, and then read the paragraph as one stage in a long history.

  1. The right answer is reworded moderate Choosing the answer

    The key’s “methods used to store and find information have changed over time” appears nowhere in paragraph 3, while the wrong choices stay near its own wording: reliance on the Internet, encyclopedias beside the Internet, and more information. (Freedle & Kostin, 1993; Kirsch & Mosenthal, 1990)

  2. A very close wrong answer minor Choosing the answer

    The choice calling encyclopedias and the Internet similar sources sets up the same old-and-new pairing as the key; it parts only on likeness versus change, which the paragraph’s “however, today” decides. (Embretson & Wetzel, 1987; Gorin & Embretson, 2006; Ascalon et al., 2007)

  3. Hard words minor Understanding the question

    The paragraph explains its idea in abstract terms, “cognitive offloading,” “a vast extended memory” and “other cognitive feats,” which must be decoded before its then-and-now structure shows. (Perfetti, 2007; Freedle & Kostin, 1993)

Strategy: Put the article’s central idea about the Internet and memory into your own words first, then test each choice against what paragraph 3’s sentences actually say, not against a word it shares with them.

Traps

The wrong answers, classified

What was corrected from the DOE handbook, and why

  • Explanation: The DOE’s explanation of Option A says that paragraph 3 “does not discuss reliance on the Internet for information.” It does: the paragraph opens “People’s growing inclination to rely on the Internet in order to retrieve information, particularly facts and figures, is called cognitive offloading.” What the paragraph does not do is present that reliance as inevitable, which is why Option A is wrong, as the explanation’s last sentence says. The site now reads “it does not present reliance on the Internet for information as inevitable.”

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Working it out, step by step

  1. Figure out what the question asks

    This is a central idea question. A central idea is a main point the whole article makes. Here the main point is that the Internet is changing how people remember. The question asks how paragraph 3 adds to that point. Paragraph 3 is about “cognitive offloading,” so first work out what that term means.

  2. Read paragraph 3 closely

    Paragraph 3 begins: “People’s growing inclination to rely on the Internet in order to retrieve information, particularly facts and figures, is called cognitive offloading.” Then it says “a similar process has been taking place for centuries.” Next comes the key sentence: “In the past, people used resources like encyclopedias to assist their memories; however, today the Internet, serving as a vast extended memory, allows people to digitally access and retrieve much larger volumes of information.”

  3. Put the paragraph in plain words

    An inclination is a habit of leaning toward something. Cognitive means having to do with thinking. To offload is to hand a load to someone else. So cognitive offloading means letting an outside tool do some of your remembering. People have done this for a long time. Long ago they used encyclopedias, books full of facts. Today they use the Internet. The word “however” marks the change from then to now. So the paragraph shows the tools for storing and finding facts changing over time.

  4. Check each choice

    • A does not fit. The paragraph does talk about people relying on the Internet. But it never says that reliance is inevitable, which means it cannot be avoided.
    • B fits. The paragraph moves from encyclopedias “in the past” to the Internet “today.” That is a change in how people store and find information.
    • C does not fit. The paragraph does set the two side by side. But it uses them to show a change, not to say they are alike.
    • D does not fit. People can “access and retrieve” more information. That means find it and pull it up, not understand it.

    Watch out: C is tempting because encyclopedias and the Internet both help memory. Read past the likeness to the word “however.”

  5. Choose the answer

    Paragraph 3 shows people moving from encyclopedias to the Internet to help them remember. That supports the article’s point that the Internet is changing memory. So the answer is B, “demonstrating how the methods used to store and find information have changed over time.”

Why this answer and not the closest wrong one

C is the closest wrong choice. Paragraph 3 does compare encyclopedias and the Internet. But the comparison makes a point about change: the Internet now holds “much larger volumes of information.” B names that change. C stops at the likeness, so it misses what the paragraph adds to the article.

The original DOE question
Question 1 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 5 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test D English, page 5, question 1. This is the DOE’s version, before the corrections listed in the analysis.
The passage “A Memory Revolution” as printed (pages 3–4)The passage “A Memory Revolution” as printed on page 3 of the DOE handbook.The passage “A Memory Revolution” as printed on page 4 of the DOE handbook.

Question 108 of 120

2026 Practice Test D English, question 2

Uses the passage above: “A Memory Revolution”.

Question

How do the details about the experiment described in paragraph 5 convey a central idea of the passage?

  • AThey suggest that the act of repeating information by typing it on a keyboard may improve a person’s memory.
  • BThey explain that a person will forget information faster if the information is considered unimportant.
  • CThey indicate that a person may start to forget details when the amount of information becomes overwhelming.
  • DThey suggest that memory is affected by whether a person expects to have access to the information in the future.
Show the answer

Correct answer: D

The question asks how the details of the experiment described in paragraph 5 convey a central idea of the passage.

A. Incorrect. Although paragraph 5 states that participants read the trivia facts and then “typed the statements into a computer file,” it does not explain the impact of repetition on memory, nor does this convey a central idea of the passage.

B. Incorrect. Paragraph 5 acknowledges that people evaluate which information is important enough to remember, but it does not describe the rate at which people forget unimportant information. According to the paragraph, information is considered less important to remember if a person believes that he or she will be able to retrieve that information easily in the future. This does not mean the information is unimportant but rather that it is readily available for future access.

C. Incorrect. Paragraph 5 specifies the number of trivia facts that study participants were given to read (forty), but it does not describe the amount of information as a factor in the participants’ memory performance. According to the paragraph, it was not the amount of information but rather the expectation of future availability that affected how much information participants were able to recall.

D. CORRECT. A central idea of the passage is that the way the human memory stores information is changing because of the Internet. The details of the experiment support this idea by indicating that study participants remembered different amounts of information based on whether they “thought the information would be saved” (paragraph 5). Those who “believed the information would be erased and no longer available” (paragraph 5) remembered 40 percent more than those who expected to be able to access the information again in a saved computer file. Therefore, paragraph 5 conveys the central idea that the expectation of future access to information is a key element in “how people evaluate which information deserves their effort to remember.”

Question analysis

Paragraph 5 of “A Memory Revolution” describes an experiment in which people typed forty trivia facts, such as one about an ostrich’s eye, into a computer file and then wrote down all they could recall. This central-idea question asks how the experiment’s details convey a central idea of the passage. Each choice offers a different lesson about memory, so the experiment’s actual result must decide.

NYS standards
  • 7R2 theme or central idea
  • 7R1 textual evidence and inferences
Grade level
Grade 7 reading and task
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Explaining what an experiment’s results show is common grade 7 reading. The experiment in paragraph 5 is told in plain words and its result is a single comparison, so the main demand is restating that result as an idea.
Estimated difficulty
Straightforward: two steps or one careful reading.
Evidence
Answered from one paragraph or stanza
Reading level
Passage: about grade 14, 763 words; question and choices: about grade 12, 88 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

The experiment is short and its result fits in one sentence, so most students find the idea once they ask what differed between the two groups. The trap is the paragraph’s framing, “which information deserves their effort to remember,” which invites talk of important and unimportant facts and leads to the choice about forgetting. Others reach for what they know about studying, such as writing things down, instead of the one condition the researchers changed.

  1. Reading between the lines minor Working it out

    Paragraph 5 never names the cause; students must see that both groups read and typed the same forty facts, so only what they were told about the file can explain the 40 percent gap. (Graesser, Singer & Trabasso, 1994; Kintsch, 1998)

  2. A very close wrong answer minor Choosing the answer

    The choice about forgetting unimportant information shares the key’s idea that how people regard information affects memory; it differs in the reason, importance rather than expected access, and adds a speed nobody measured. (Embretson & Wetzel, 1987; Gorin & Embretson, 2006; Ascalon et al., 2007)

Strategy: Restate the experiment in paragraph 5 and its result in one sentence of your own, then reject any choice that rests on something the experiment did not set up or measure.

Traps

  • Twists what the text says: Uses the text's topic and ideas but changes what it says: who did it, how much, when, or why.
  • Outside knowledge: A choice is plausible in the real world but not supported by this text.
  • Reads too much in: A reasonable-sounding conclusion that goes further than the text allows.

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Working it out, step by step

  1. Figure out what the question asks

    This is a central idea question. It asks what the experiment in paragraph 5 shows. It also asks how that result supports a main point of the article. The article’s main point is that the Internet is changing how people remember.

  2. Find the experiment in paragraph 5

    In paragraph 5, participants, the people in the study, “read forty trivia facts” and “typed the statements into a computer file.” Then: “Half the participants had been previously told the file would be saved, while half believed it would be erased.” The result: “Those who believed the information would be erased and no longer available could recall 40 percent more facts than those who thought the information would be saved.”

  3. Work out what the result means

    Both groups read the same forty facts. Both typed them the same way. Only one thing was different: what each group expected to happen to the file. People who thought the facts would be gone remembered more. People who thought the facts would be saved remembered less. So your memory depends on whether you expect to look the facts up later. This fits the article’s point. When people know they can find facts again, they work less to remember them.

  4. Check each choice

    • A does not fit. Both groups typed the facts, so typing cannot explain why one group remembered more.
    • B does not fit. Nobody called the saved facts unimportant. They were just expected to stay available. The study also never measured how fast people forget.
    • C does not fit. Both groups read forty facts, so the amount was the same for everyone.
    • D fits. What people expected about later access changed how much they remembered.

    Watch out: B is tempting because the paragraph talks about “which information deserves their effort to remember.” But the saved facts were not judged unimportant. They were judged easy to find later.

  5. Choose the answer

    The only difference between the groups was whether they expected the file to be saved. So the answer is D, “They suggest that memory is affected by whether a person expects to have access to the information in the future.”

Why this answer and not the closest wrong one

B is the closest wrong choice. Like D, it says that how people see information affects memory. But B gives the wrong reason and adds a speed of forgetting. The study never tested importance or speed. The one thing it changed was whether people expected to see the facts again. That is exactly what D says.

The original DOE question
Question 2 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 6 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test D English, page 6, question 2.

Question 109 of 120

2026 Practice Test D English, question 4

Uses the passage above: “A Memory Revolution”.

Question

The study described in paragraph 6 influenced researchers’ ideas about memory in the digital age by

  • Ahighlighting instances when organizing detailed information made it easier to remember.
  • Bconfirming that keywords can be remembered more easily than large amounts of information.
  • Cidentifying a shift in focus from remembering specific information to knowing where to find it.
  • Demphasizing that remembering a basic idea is more important than storing detailed information.
Show the answer

Correct answer: C

The question asks how the study described in paragraph 6 influenced researchers’ ideas about memory in the digital age.

A. Incorrect. The study required participants to organize information into folders, but the results suggest that organizing the information did not make the information easier to remember; instead, participants remembered the folder in which to find the information but forgot the information itself.

B. Incorrect. Although the participants in the study were given a keyword, such as “ostrich,” when asked to remember “which folder contained a particular fact,” the study was significant for researchers because it demonstrated that “our memory is adapting to the Internet age by prioritizing where to locate information even when the specific details are forgotten” (paragraph 6). The study confirmed that participants were remembering where the information was stored, because they were able to provide the name of the folder where the information was stored.

C. CORRECT. The study in paragraph 6 demonstrated that participants were better able to recall where to find certain information than to recall the information itself. This influenced researchers’ ideas about memory in the digital age: “Overall, participants recalled the information’s location more often than the content itself, correctly identifying 49 percent of the folders for specific facts while remembering only 23 percent of the actual trivia” (paragraph 6).

D. Incorrect. The study did not examine the relative importance of remembering basic information or storing detailed information. It examined the effect of the Internet on the information that people remember and concluded that human memory “is adapting to the Internet age by prioritizing where to locate information” (paragraph 6).

Question analysis

This development-of-ideas question on “A Memory Revolution” asks how the folder experiment in paragraph 6, where participants saved trivia statements in folders named “Facts” and “Items” and were later quizzed, influenced researchers’ ideas about memory in the digital age. Students must understand what the experiment measured and what the researchers made of it, while the choices echo its keywords, folders and details.

NYS standards
  • 7R3 plot elements and ideas
  • 7R1 textual evidence and inferences
Grade level
Grade 7 reading and task
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Explaining how a study shaped researchers’ thinking is typical grade 7 work with informational texts. The researchers state their conclusion in paragraph 6, which shortens the search, though the paragraph’s percentages and terms such as “transactive memory” need care.
Estimated difficulty
Straightforward: two steps or one careful reading.
Evidence
Answered from one paragraph or stanza
Reading level
Passage: about grade 14, 763 words; question and choices: about grade 13, 67 words.
Corrected from the DOE handbook
  • A mislabeled term in the explanation was corrected.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

The researchers state their conclusion in paragraph 6, that memory is “prioritizing where to locate information even when the specific details are forgotten,” so the question mostly rewards recognizing it in new words. The risk lies in the experiment’s moving parts: a student who mixes up the folder, the fact and the keyword can believe that filing helped recall or that keywords were the finding. The closest wrong choice keeps the downgrading of detail and swaps a basic idea in for location.

  1. A very close wrong answer minor Choosing the answer

    The choice about a basic idea mirrors the key’s first half, detailed information losing out; it differs only in what wins, a basic idea instead of knowing where the information is kept. (Embretson & Wetzel, 1987; Gorin & Embretson, 2006; Ascalon et al., 2007)

  2. Much to keep track of minor Working it out

    Paragraph 6 juggles three things a participant might recall, the fact, its folder and the keyword cue, plus two percentages, so students must keep straight that 49 percent is folders and 23 percent is trivia. (Sweller, 1988; Carpenter, Just & Shell, 1990)

Strategy: Locate the researchers’ own conclusion in paragraph 6, restate it in plain words, and choose the option that matches it, not one that borrows a word from the description of the experiment.

Traps

  • Reads too much in: A reasonable-sounding conclusion that goes further than the text allows.
  • Word match: Repeats striking words or phrases from the text, so it looks supported, but its meaning does not fit the question.
  • Twists what the text says: Uses the text's topic and ideas but changes what it says: who did it, how much, when, or why.

The wrong answers, classified

What was corrected from the DOE handbook, and why

  • Explanation: The DOE’s explanation of Option B ends by saying that participants “were able to provide the name of the folder (keyword) where the information was stored.” In paragraph 6 the keyword is the cue the participants were given (the same explanation begins “the participants in the study were given a keyword, such as ‘ostrich’”); the folders had generic names such as “Facts” and “Items.” Calling the folder name a keyword makes the sentence seem to support Option B (“keywords can be remembered more easily”), the option it is rejecting. The site drops “(keyword).”

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Working it out, step by step

  1. Figure out what the question asks

    This asks what the study in paragraph 6 taught the researchers about memory today. The researchers state their own conclusion in the paragraph. Find it, put it in plain words, and match it to a choice.

  2. Follow the steps of the study

    Participants typed trivia facts and saved them in folders. The folders had plain names, such as “Facts” and “Items.” Later each person got a keyword, a hint word, in a question like “Which folder has the fact about ostriches?” The result: “participants recalled the information’s location more often than the content itself, correctly identifying 49 percent of the folders for specific facts while remembering only 23 percent of the actual trivia.”

  3. Read the researchers’ conclusion

    Paragraph 6 says “our memory is adapting to the Internet age by prioritizing where to locate information even when the specific details are forgotten.” To prioritize is to put first. So people now put first knowing where a fact is kept. They may forget the fact itself. That is a shift in focus, a change in what memory pays attention to.

  4. Check each choice

    • A does not fit. Filing the facts in folders did not help people remember them. They recalled only 23 percent of the facts.
    • B does not fit. The keyword, like “ostriches,” was only the hint in the question. What people remembered was the folder, such as “Facts.”
    • C fits. Memory shifted from the facts themselves to where to find them.
    • D does not fit. People remembered locations, not a basic idea of each fact.

    Watch out: D is tempting because “prioritizing” sounds like deciding what matters most. But the study ranked nothing. It found that people recalled where facts were, not what they said.

  5. Choose the answer

    The study showed people remembering where facts were kept better than the facts. So the answer is C, “identifying a shift in focus from remembering specific information to knowing where to find it.”

Why this answer and not the closest wrong one

D is the closest wrong choice. Like C, it says detailed facts lose out. But it says a basic idea wins instead. In the study, what won was location: 49 percent of the folders against 23 percent of the facts. C names location, so C matches the researchers’ own conclusion.

The original DOE question
Question 4 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 8 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test D English, page 8, question 4. This is the DOE’s version, before the corrections listed in the analysis.

Question 110 of 120

2026 Practice Test D English, question 6

Uses the passage above: “A Memory Revolution”.

Question

Which evidence from the passage is most relevant to the claim in paragraph 7 that “ ‘far from making us stupid, these technologies are the only things that will keep us smart’ ”?

  • Athe revelation that most people opted to use the Internet to answer relatively easy trivia questions rather than relying on their own brainpower (paragraph 2)
  • Bthe assertion that the storage of information on the Internet frees people to focus on higher-order tasks such as problem solving (paragraph 3)
  • Cthe connection between how people organize information in their mind and their ability to recall that information (paragraph 5)
  • Dthe description of transactive memory as an expansive external source that people can use to store information (paragraph 6)
Show the answer

Correct answer: B

The question asks for the evidence from the passage that is most relevant to the claim in paragraph 7 that “ ‘far from making us stupid, these technologies are the only things that will keep us smart.’ ”

A. Incorrect. Whether the participants decided to use the Internet to answer easy trivia questions varied based on the options that the participants were given during the first part of the experiment and, therefore, cannot be relevant to the claim in paragraph 7. Even when given the option of using the Internet, some participants chose to recall information from memory instead.

B. CORRECT. The assertion made in paragraph 3 that states that cognitive offloading allows for “people’s minds [to be] free for other cognitive feats, such as connecting data, learning new information, or solving problems” is relevant to the claim in paragraph 7 because it indicates that the ability to store large amounts of information within the brain does not necessarily make someone smart. It also suggests that if people did not have to use so much effort simply organizing and storing information, their brain would be free to conduct higher-order tasks: “the Internet, serving as a vast extended memory, allows people to digitally access and retrieve much larger volumes of information. Consequently, people’s minds are free for other cognitive feats, such as connecting data, learning new information, or solving problems” (paragraph 3).

C. Incorrect. The discussion in the passage connecting how people organize information in their mind and their ability to recall that information focuses on the process of organizing information within human memory rather than on how technology helps keep people’s minds available for complex thoughts.

D. Incorrect. Although the passage provides an accurate description of transactive memory, it provides no indication of how using such memory would advance a person’s ability to maintain or improve intelligent thought.

Question analysis

This evidence question on “A Memory Revolution” quotes the claim, made by Harvard psychologist Steven Pinker at the end of the article, that technologies such as the Internet are the only things that will keep us smart. Students choose the finding from earlier in the passage that is most relevant to it. Each choice summarizes a point about technology or memory, so relevance, not accuracy, decides.

NYS standards
  • 7R8 evaluating arguments and claims
  • 7R1 textual evidence and inferences
Grade level
Grade 7 reading and task
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Judging which evidence is most relevant to a claim is standard grade 7 argument work. The claim is short and quoted in the question, and each choice names its paragraph, but students must recall what each paragraph actually showed.
Estimated difficulty
Moderate: several steps, or a close reading with one strong distractor.
Evidence
Answered from several paragraphs or stanzas
Reading level
Passage: about grade 14, 763 words; question and choices: about grade 14, 112 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

Every choice reports something the article really says, so the question turns on relevance: which finding would persuade a reader that technology keeps us smart. The transactive-memory finding is the trap, because Pinker himself speaks of retrieving “our collective intellectual output,” and an outside store of facts sounds like his point. That finding shows only that technology holds information; paragraph 3 adds what people do with the freed space, and that step is the claim.

  1. A very close wrong answer moderate Choosing the answer

    The transactive-memory choice and the key both describe the Internet storing information for people; only the key adds the result, minds free for “connecting data, learning new information, or solving problems,” which is what keeps us smart. (Embretson & Wetzel, 1987; Gorin & Embretson, 2006; Ascalon et al., 2007)

  2. Reading between the lines minor Working it out

    The key never says smart; students must see that freeing minds for “other cognitive feats” is exactly what Pinker means by technology that keeps us smart rather than stupid. (Graesser, Singer & Trabasso, 1994; Kintsch, 1998)

  3. Evidence in several places minor Working it out

    The four findings come from paragraphs 2, 3, 5 and 6, and each choice’s summary has to be matched back to what its paragraph actually showed before its relevance can be judged. (Kirsch & Mosenthal, 1990; Gorin & Embretson, 2006)

Strategy: Restate Pinker’s claim in your own words, then ask of each finding whether it would persuade a doubter of that claim itself or only of something related to it.

Traps

  • Supports only part of the claim: In a question about evidence: a line that backs one half of the claim but not the other, or a related point rather than the claim itself.
  • True but not the answer: A choice says something accurate about the text that does not answer this question.

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Working it out, step by step

  1. Figure out what the question asks

    This asks for evidence: the detail that best supports a claim. The claim comes from Steven Pinker in paragraph 7: “Far from making us stupid, these technologies are the only things that will keep us smart.” Put it in your own words first. Pinker says the Internet does not make us dumb. It helps us think better.

  2. Ask what would prove the claim

    To support this claim, a detail must show technology helping people think. A detail that only shows people using the Internet is not enough. Neither is one that only shows the Internet storing facts. Look for a result: something people can do better because of the Internet.

  3. Find that result in paragraph 3

    Paragraph 3 says the Internet, “serving as a vast extended memory, allows people to digitally access and retrieve much larger volumes of information.” The next sentence gives the result: “Consequently, people’s minds are free for other cognitive feats, such as connecting data, learning new information, or solving problems.” Consequently means “as a result.” Cognitive feats are hard thinking tasks. Since the Internet holds the facts, your mind has room for harder work.

  4. Check each choice

    • A does not fit. People choosing Google for easy questions sounds more like the worry Pinker answers. It does not show anyone getting smarter.
    • B fits. Higher-order tasks are harder kinds of thinking. Freeing minds for them is how technology could keep us smart.
    • C does not fit. It is about how well people recall facts. In paragraph 5, people even recalled fewer facts when a computer would save them.
    • D does not fit. It shows only that the Internet can store information. It does not say what people gain from that.

    Watch out: D is tempting because transactive memory sounds like the “external” memory in paragraph 7. But storing facts outside your head is only half the idea. B adds the payoff: room for harder thinking.

  5. Choose the answer

    Only paragraph 3 shows the Internet freeing people for harder thinking. So the answer is B, “the assertion that the storage of information on the Internet frees people to focus on higher-order tasks such as problem solving” (paragraph 3).

Why this answer and not the closest wrong one

D is the closest wrong choice. It is true that the Internet works as an outside store of facts. But that alone does not show anyone getting smarter. B goes one step further. Because the Internet holds the facts, minds are free for “connecting data, learning new information, or solving problems.” That step is what Pinker’s claim needs.

The original DOE question
Question 6 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 10 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test D English, page 10, question 6.

Question 111 of 120

2026 Practice Test D English, question 7

Uses the passage above: “A Memory Revolution”.

Question

The effect of the Internet on a person’s memory is illustrated in the passage through the presentation of studies that

  • Aexamine how the use of search engines changes the way people evaluate and store information for future access.
  • Bhighlight the difference between the capacity of the Internet and the ability of the human brain to locate information.
  • Ccompare the type of information that can be obtained from the Internet with the type of information that is stored in the human brain.
  • Demphasize the ease of obtaining information through search engines rather than remembering it without assistance.
Show the answer

Correct answer: A

The question asks how the studies presented in the passage are used to illustrate the effect of the Internet on a person’s memory.

A. CORRECT. The study described in paragraph 5 examined the effect of computer use on the way people evaluate information, specifically “which information deserves their effort to remember,” and determined that “those who believed the information would be erased and no longer available could recall 40 percent more facts than those who thought the information would be saved.” The study described in paragraph 2 established that the use of Internet search engines increases the “inclination to rely on the Internet in order to retrieve information” (paragraph 3), and the study in paragraph 6 examined how this reliance on technology affects the way people store information: “Overall, participants recalled the information’s location more often than the content itself.”

B. Incorrect. Although a difference in the ability of the human brain and the capacity of the Internet to locate information might seem evident, the studies cited in the passage did not examine the ability or the capacity of either. The studies did not measure what the human brain is capable of but rather how memory is affected by the use of the Internet.

C. Incorrect. While the studies explored the Internet’s effect on the way information is stored in human memory, the type of information was not described or compared. Instead, the studies indicated that location is the main difference between the information stored in the Internet and the information stored in human memory, noting that the Internet has become “an external source of the recollections and associative networks that constitute memory” (paragraph 6).

D. Incorrect. Although it is increasingly common to use the Internet to obtain information (paragraph 2) rather than try to memorize information (paragraph 5), the studies did not examine the difficulty or ease of obtaining/recalling information using either method.

Question analysis

This evidence question asks how the studies described in “A Memory Revolution” illustrate the Internet’s effect on a person’s memory. Students must recall three experiments, one with trivia questions and Google, one with trivia typed into a computer file, and one with named folders, and decide what they examine together. Each choice sounds like a fair claim about the Internet and the brain.

NYS standards
  • 7R1 textual evidence and inferences
  • 7R3 plot elements and ideas
Grade level
Grade 8 reading and task
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Summing up what a text’s evidence shows is everyday grade 7 work. Here the evidence is three studies spread over paragraphs 2, 5 and 6, which adds recall, but each one is described in plain terms.
Estimated difficulty
Moderate: several steps, or a close reading with one strong distractor.
Evidence
Answered from several paragraphs or stanzas
Reading level
Passage: about grade 14, 763 words; question and choices: about grade 12, 96 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

The question asks what the article’s studies show together, so a student needs a one-line summary of three experiments before reading the choices. The key is slightly loose, since only the first study uses a search engine, which can make a careful reader hesitate. The strongest pull comes from paragraph 2, where most people turned to Google even for easy questions; it sounds like proof that searching is easier, but no study weighed the effort of looking up against remembering.

  1. Evidence in several places moderate Working it out

    The three studies sit in paragraphs 2, 5 and 6, and the key gathers them: turning to Google even for easy questions, recalling less from a saved file, and remembering folders better than facts. (Kirsch & Mosenthal, 1990; Gorin & Embretson, 2006)

  2. Reading between the lines minor Working it out

    No sentence says what the studies share; students must abstract it, that expecting later access changes what people bother to store, from experiments built on Google, a computer file and named folders. (Graesser, Singer & Trabasso, 1994; Kintsch, 1998)

  3. Every choice must be checked minor Choosing the answer

    Each wrong choice names something the studies might plausibly have measured, the Internet’s capacity, kinds of information or ease of searching, and only a check of the three experiments shows that none did. (Embretson & Wetzel, 1987)

Strategy: Sum up in a phrase what the studies in paragraphs 2, 5 and 6 each tested, then pick the option that describes what they examined rather than a point made elsewhere in the article.

Traps

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Working it out, step by step

  1. Figure out what the question asks

    This asks what the studies in the article have in common. How do they show the Internet’s effect on memory? There are three studies, in paragraphs 2, 5 and 6. Sum up each one in a few words. Then find the choice that fits all three.

  2. Sum up the three studies

    • Paragraph 2: People who had used Google kept using it, even for easy questions. In fact, “83 percent of the Internet group continued to consult Google in the second round.”
    • Paragraph 5: People who thought a file of facts would be erased remembered more. They decided which facts deserved “their effort to remember.”
    • Paragraph 6: People remembered where facts were kept better than the facts themselves.
  3. Find what the studies share

    Each study looks at how people treat information when a computer or search engine can hold it for them. People decide what is worth the effort to remember. Judging the value of something like this is called evaluating. People also change what they store in their minds, such as where a fact is instead of the fact. That is the effect on memory.

  4. Check each choice

    • A fits. The studies show people judging what to remember and storing where to find it.
    • B does not fit. No study measured how much the Internet can hold or what the brain can do.
    • C does not fit. No study sorted information into types.
    • D does not fit. No study compared how easy it is to search and to remember.

    Watch out: D is tempting because most people in paragraph 2 kept using Google. That might seem to show searching is easier. But the study never measured ease. It only counted who used Google.

  5. Choose the answer

    Only one choice describes what the studies actually tested. So the answer is A, “examine how the use of search engines changes the way people evaluate and store information for future access.”

Why this answer and not the closest wrong one

D is the closest wrong choice. It sounds like a fair reason people use Google. But none of the studies timed or rated the effort of searching or remembering. They tested what people chose to remember and what they stored. A describes that. Only the first study used a search engine, but the other two show the same pattern with a computer file and folders.

The original DOE question
Question 7 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 11 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test D English, page 11, question 7.

Question 112 of 120

2026 Practice Test D English, question 9
Passage Excerpt from “How We Made the First Flight”

Excerpt from “How We Made the First Flight”

by Orville Wright

In 1903 brothers Wilbur and Orville Wright conducted experiments related to flying machines. These experiments would eventually lead to air travel becoming a reliable form of transportation.

During the night of December 16, 1903, a strong cold wind blew from the north. When we arose on the morning of the 17th, the puddles of water, which had been standing about camp since the recent rains, were covered with ice. The wind had a velocity of 10 to 12 meters per second (22 to 27 miles an hour). We thought it would die down before long, and so remained indoors the early part of the morning. But when ten o’clock arrived, and the wind was as brisk as ever, we decided that we had better get the machine out and attempt a flight. We hung out the signal for the men of the Life Saving Station.1 We thought that by facing the flyer into a strong wind, there ought to be no trouble in launching it from the level ground about camp. We realized the difficulties of flying in so high a wind, but estimated that the added dangers in flight would be partly compensated for by the slower speed in landing.

Final Preparations

We laid the track on a smooth stretch of ground about one hundred feet north of the new building. The biting cold wind made work difficult, and we had to warm up frequently in our living room, where we had a good fire in an improvised stove made of a large carbide2 can. By the time all was ready, J. T. Daniels, W. S. Dough and A. D. Etheridge, members of the Kill Devil3 Life Saving Station; W. C. Brinkley of Manteo, and Johnny Moore, a boy from Nags Head,4 had arrived.

We had a “Richard” hand anemometer with which we measured the velocity of the wind. Measurements made just before starting the first flight showed velocities of 11 to 12 meters per second, or 24 to 27 miles per hour. . . .

Audacity—and Calculation

Wilbur having used his turn in the unsuccessful attempt on the 14th, the right to the first trial now belonged to me. After running the motor a few minutes to heat it up, I released the wire that held the machine to the track, and the machine started forward in the wind. Wilbur ran at the side of the machine, holding the wing to balance it on the track. Unlike the start on the 14th, made in a calm, the machine, facing a 27-mile wind, started very slowly. Wilbur was able to stay with it till it lifted from the track after a forty-foot run. One of the Life Saving men snapped the camera for us, taking a picture just as the machine had reached the end of the track and had risen to a height of about two feet. The slow forward speed of the machine over the ground is clearly shown in the picture by Wilbur’s attitude. He stayed along beside the machine without any effort.

Flight

The course of the flight up and down was exceedingly erratic, partly due to the irregularity of the air, and partly to lack of experience in handling this machine. The control of the front rudder was difficult on account of its being balanced too near the center. This gave it a tendency to turn itself when started; so that it turned too far on one side and then too far on the other. As a result the machine would rise suddenly to about ten feet, and then as suddenly dart for the ground. A sudden dart when a little over a hundred feet from the end of the track, or a little over 120 feet from the point at which it rose into the air, ended the flight. As the velocity of the wind was over 35 feet per second and the speed of the machine over the ground against this wind ten feet per second, the speed of the machine relative to the air was over 45 feet per second, and the length of the flight was equivalent to a flight of 540 feet made in calm air. This flight lasted only 12 seconds, but it was nevertheless the first in the history of the world in which a machine carrying a man had raised itself by its own power into the air in full flight, had sailed forward without reduction of speed and had finally landed at a point as high as that from which it started.

From “How We Made the First Flight” by Orville Wright—Public Domain/Federal Aviation Administration

1Life Saving Station: one of the rescue stations along the Atlantic coastline that provided assistance to mariners in distress

2carbide: a very hard material composed of carbon and other heavy metals

3Kill Devil: the town of Kill Devil Hills in eastern North Carolina

4Nags Head: a town in eastern North Carolina

Question

Read this sentence from paragraph 4.

Wilbur having used his turn in the unsuccessful attempt on the 14th, the right to the first trial now belonged to me.

The sentence contributes to the development of ideas in the excerpt by

  • Ademonstrating the challenge of the extreme winter conditions during the flight.
  • Brevealing how many tries it took for Wilbur Wright to finally get the machine to take flight.
  • Cdemonstrating that both Orville and Wilbur Wright were eager to pilot what could potentially be the first flight.
  • Dsuggesting a sense that both brothers felt confident they would soon succeed in completing the first flight.
Show the answer

Correct answer: C

The question asks how the sentence from paragraph 4 contributes to the development of ideas in the excerpt.

A. Incorrect. The sentence from paragraph 4 does not refer to the challenge of the winter conditions during the flight attempt.

B. Incorrect. While the sentence from paragraph 4 specifically references a previous flight several days earlier, it does not state how many attempts came before Wilbur’s attempt on December 14.

C. CORRECT. The sentence from paragraph 4 indicates that the Wright brothers had agreed to take turns attempting to achieve the first flight, which suggests their eagerness to each be the first to successfully fly the machine.

D. Incorrect. Orville’s trial came about simply because the brothers took turns, which would suggest that there was no greater likelihood of success or reason to be more confident at that moment than there had been for previous attempts.

Question analysis

This question quotes the sentence that opens the “Audacity—and Calculation” section of Orville Wright’s account, in which he explains that the first trial on December 17 was his because Wilbur had used his turn on the 14th. Students decide how the sentence contributes to the development of ideas in the excerpt. Several choices bring in other parts of the story, so students must stay with what this one sentence shows.

NYS standards
  • 7R5 structure and genre features
  • 7R3 plot elements and ideas
Grade level
Grade 8 reading and task
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Explaining what one quoted sentence adds is routine grade 7 work. This sentence is short but opens with an old-fashioned “Wilbur having used his turn” construction, and its point about the brothers is implied rather than stated.
Estimated difficulty
Moderate: several steps, or a close reading with one strong distractor.
Evidence
Answered from one sentence or line
Reading level
Passage: about grade 7, 816 words; question and choices: about grade 8, 102 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

The sentence is about whose turn it is, and the question asks what that arrangement says about the brothers. A quick reader may lose the subject in the opening phrase and think Wilbur is still trying, or may carry the cold of earlier paragraphs into a sentence that never mentions it. The harder call is between eagerness and confidence: the heading “Audacity—and Calculation” makes confidence sound right, but a failed attempt three days earlier gives no reason for it.

  1. A very close wrong answer moderate Choosing the answer

    The choice about confidence matches the key’s frame, both brothers feeling something about the first flight; it differs in one word, confident instead of eager, and only eagerness follows from taking turns. (Embretson & Wetzel, 1987; Gorin & Embretson, 2006; Ascalon et al., 2007)

  2. Reading between the lines moderate Working it out

    The sentence names no feeling; eagerness has to be read from the turn-taking itself, the brothers alternating for “the right to the first trial,” a chance each wanted to be his. (Graesser, Singer & Trabasso, 1994; Kintsch, 1998)

  3. Complex sentences minor Understanding the question

    The sentence opens with an absolute phrase, “Wilbur having used his turn in the unsuccessful attempt on the 14th,” whose subject is not the subject of the main clause, so a reader can lose track of who flies. (Abedi & Lord, 2001; Freedle & Kostin, 1993; Messick, 1989)

Strategy: Untangle the sentence first: say who used a turn, when, and who goes next. Then ask what the arrangement it describes suggests about the two brothers, and test each choice against that.

Traps

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Working it out, step by step

  1. Figure out what the question asks

    This asks what one sentence adds to the excerpt. The sentence is short, but it starts in an old-fashioned way. First untangle who did what. Then ask what the sentence tells you about the two brothers.

  2. Untangle the sentence

    The sentence is “Wilbur having used his turn in the unsuccessful attempt on the 14th, the right to the first trial now belonged to me.” The first part gives a reason. In plain words: Wilbur already had his turn on the 14th. Unsuccessful means it failed. The second part says: so now it is my turn. The “me” is Orville, who wrote the excerpt. A trial here is a try.

  3. Ask what taking turns shows

    The brothers took turns trying to fly. Each one had a “right” to a turn. You take turns when both people want the same chance. Each brother wanted to be the pilot. This could be the first flight in history, so both were eager. Eager means they really wanted it.

  4. Check each choice

    • A does not fit. The sentence says nothing about the cold or the wind.
    • B does not fit. It mentions only one failed try by Wilbur. And this trial was Orville’s, not Wilbur’s.
    • C fits. Taking turns shows that each brother wanted to fly the machine.
    • D does not fit. Nothing in the sentence shows confidence. The last try had failed, and it was simply Orville’s turn.

    Watch out: D is tempting because the section heading is “Audacity—and Calculation.” Audacity means boldness. But taking turns shows eagerness, not a belief that they would succeed.

  5. Choose the answer

    The turn-taking shows that both brothers wanted to fly. So the answer is C, “demonstrating that both Orville and Wilbur Wright were eager to pilot what could potentially be the first flight.”

Why this answer and not the closest wrong one

D is the closest wrong choice. Both C and D describe how the brothers felt about the first flight. But the sentence gives no reason to feel sure of success. It even mentions “the unsuccessful attempt on the 14th.” What it does show is that each brother wanted his own turn. That is eagerness, so C fits better.

The original DOE question
Question 9 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 16 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test D English, page 16, question 9.
The passage “Excerpt from “How We Made the First Flight”” as printed (pages 13–14)The passage “Excerpt from “How We Made the First Flight”” as printed on page 13 of the DOE handbook.The passage “Excerpt from “How We Made the First Flight”” as printed on page 14 of the DOE handbook.

Question 113 of 120

2026 Practice Test D English, question 11

Uses the passage above: “Excerpt from “How We Made the First Flight””.

Question

How do the details in paragraph 5 about the uneven nature of the flight convey a central idea of the excerpt?

  • Aby explaining how the flawed design of the machine caused it to turn unpredictably in the air and brought the first flight by a person to an abrupt end
  • Bby indicating that the difficulty in controlling the flight was caused by the rudimentary instruments of the machine and the inexperience of the pilot
  • Cby explaining how the pilot and the plane overcame adverse conditions in order to complete the first piloted flight
  • Dby indicating that the gradual change in wind velocity created an extreme environment in which to maneuver the plane and maintain its flight
Show the answer

Correct answer: C

The question asks how the details in paragraph 5 about the uneven nature of the flight convey a central idea of the excerpt.

A. Incorrect. Paragraph 5 explains that the rudder was unbalanced and the effect that this issue had on the flight, but the rudder was only part of the reason for the short flight. The length of the flight is not a central idea of the excerpt.

B. Incorrect. Although paragraph 5 does explain that the equipment contributed to the difficulty of controlling the plane’s flight, the lack of control over the flight is not a central idea of the excerpt, which focuses instead on the Wright brothers’ achievement of a successful flight despite the challenges involved.

C. CORRECT. The details in paragraph 5 describe the difficulties that the weather conditions and mechanical issues presented and how Orville’s flight was successful despite those problems. The Wright brothers’ ability to overcome difficult circumstances and complete the first flight is a central idea of the excerpt.

D. Incorrect. While paragraph 5 does emphasize the difficulty caused by the wind, it does not describe a “gradual change” in the wind, only that it was irregular.

Question analysis

This central-idea question asks how the details in paragraph 5 of Orville Wright’s “How We Made the First Flight,” which describe the machine darting up and down because of uneven air, a hard-to-control front rudder and the pilot’s inexperience, convey a central idea of the excerpt. The paragraph also includes speeds and distances, and students must decide what its details mean for the account as a whole.

NYS standards
  • 7R2 theme or central idea
  • 7R5 structure and genre features
Grade level
Grade 8 reading and task
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Linking a paragraph’s details to a central idea is regular grade 7 work. This paragraph is long and technical, with a rudder problem and a calculation of speeds, and most choices restate its problems accurately, so students must decide what the details add up to.
Estimated difficulty
Moderate: several steps, or a close reading with one strong distractor.
Evidence
Answered from one paragraph or stanza
Reading level
Passage: about grade 7, 816 words; question and choices: about grade 12, 115 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

Most of paragraph 5 is about trouble, the uneven air, a rudder balanced too near the center, an inexperienced pilot and a dart that ended the flight, and two wrong choices describe that trouble accurately. What turns the details into a central idea is the paragraph’s last sentence, which calls the 12-second flight the first of its kind in history. Students who stop before it, or who take the problems as the point, miss that the excerpt is a story of success.

  1. The right answer is reworded moderate Choosing the answer

    The key’s “overcame adverse conditions” sums up the paragraph in new words, while the wrong choices repeat its own: the rudder’s “tendency to turn itself,” the dart that “ended the flight,” the “lack of experience” and “the velocity of the wind.” (Freedle & Kostin, 1993; Kirsch & Mosenthal, 1990)

  2. A lot to read minor Understanding the question

    Paragraph 5 runs about 250 words, and its problems and a 61-word speed calculation all come before the closing sentence, the only one that presents the flight as a success. (Kintsch, 1998; Gorin & Embretson, 2006; Freedle & Kostin, 1993)

  3. Reading between the lines minor Working it out

    The paragraph never says anyone overcame anything; students must set its problems beside its last sentence, a machine that “sailed forward” and landed “as high as that from which it started,” to see success despite them. (Graesser, Singer & Trabasso, 1994; Kintsch, 1998)

Strategy: Note what each part of paragraph 5 describes, from its first sentence to its last, then decide what the excerpt as a whole is about and choose the option that ties the two together.

Traps

  • Too narrow: A single detail offered as the central idea or a summary, or a summary that keeps minor details and leaves out an essential part.
  • True but not the answer: A choice says something accurate about the text that does not answer this question.
  • Twists what the text says: Uses the text's topic and ideas but changes what it says: who did it, how much, when, or why.

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Working it out, step by step

  1. Figure out what the question asks

    This is a central idea question. A central idea is a main point of the whole excerpt. Paragraph 5 describes an uneven, bumpy flight. The question asks how those details support a main point. So read the whole paragraph, including its last sentence.

  2. Find the problems in paragraph 5

    Paragraph 5 begins “The course of the flight up and down was exceedingly erratic, partly due to the irregularity of the air, and partly to lack of experience in handling this machine.” Erratic means jumpy and hard to predict. The front rudder, a part that steers, was hard to control. The machine “would rise suddenly to about ten feet, and then as suddenly dart for the ground.”

  3. Read the last sentence

    Then the paragraph turns. It says “This flight lasted only 12 seconds, but it was nevertheless the first in the history of the world in which a machine carrying a man had raised itself by its own power into the air in full flight.” Nevertheless means “even so.” The wind, the hard steering and the pilot’s inexperience all worked against him. Even so, the flight worked. Conditions that work against you are called adverse.

  4. Check each choice

    • A does not fit. The rudder problem and the sudden end are real. But A stops there and misses that the flight was a first.
    • B does not fit. Paragraph 5 does blame the rudder and the pilot’s inexperience. But the excerpt is about success, not about the lack of control.
    • C fits. The problems show what Orville overcame to make the first flight.
    • D does not fit. The paragraph never says the wind changed gradually, or slowly. It speaks of “the irregularity of the air.”

    Watch out: B is tempting because it repeats the paragraph’s own reasons for the bumpy flight. But true details are not the same as the main point.

  5. Choose the answer

    The problems in paragraph 5 make the success at the end more impressive. So the answer is C, “by explaining how the pilot and the plane overcame adverse conditions in order to complete the first piloted flight.”

Why this answer and not the closest wrong one

B is the closest wrong choice. It is true that the rudder and the pilot’s “lack of experience” made the flight hard to control. But that is only the first part of paragraph 5. The last sentence calls the flight the first of its kind. The problems show what had to be overcome. C ties the details to that success.

The original DOE question
Question 11 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 18 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test D English, page 18, question 11.

Question 114 of 120

2026 Practice Test D English, question 13

Uses the passage above: “Excerpt from “How We Made the First Flight””.

Question

Which sentence from the excerpt best supports the idea that the Wright brothers had to adapt their plans for the flight in order to accommodate the weather conditions?

  • A“When we arose on the morning of the 17th, the puddles of water, which had been standing about camp since the recent rains, were covered with ice.” (paragraph 1)
  • B“We realized the difficulties of flying in so high a wind, but estimated that the added dangers in flight would be partly compensated for by the slower speed in landing.” (paragraph 1)
  • C“After running the motor a few minutes to heat it up, I released the wire that held the machine to the track, and the machine started forward in the wind.” (paragraph 4)
  • D“The course of the flight up and down was exceedingly erratic, partly due to the irregularity of the air, and partly to lack of experience in handling this machine.” (paragraph 5)
Show the answer

Correct answer: B

The question asks which sentence from the excerpt best supports the idea that the Wright brothers had to adapt their plans for the flight in order to accommodate weather conditions.

A. Incorrect. Although the sentence from paragraph 1 mentions the rainy weather and frozen puddles, it does not specifically explain how these weather conditions forced the brothers to adapt their plans for the flight.

B. CORRECT. The sentence from paragraph 1 reveals that the Wright brothers adapted by making a risk calculation, based on the wind speed, before the flight. The high speed of the wind could cause difficulties in flight while simultaneously allowing for a slower, more controlled landing.

C. Incorrect. The sentence from paragraph 4 does mention wind, but it describes what Orville was doing during the attempted flight, not the factors he considered before the flight in order to adapt the plan.

D. Incorrect. Although the sentence from paragraph 5 mentions the “irregularity of the air” during the flight, the sentence does not describe how the brothers adapted their plans for the flight based on the weather.

Question analysis

This evidence question on Orville Wright’s account of the first flight asks which sentence best supports the idea that the Wright brothers had to adapt their plans for the flight to the weather conditions. The four quotations come from paragraphs 1, 4 and 5 and all mention ice, wind or air, so students must look past the weather words to what each sentence shows the brothers doing.

NYS standards
  • 7R1 textual evidence and inferences
Grade level
Grade 7 reading and task
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Choosing the sentence that best supports an idea is core grade 7 evidence work. The four quotations are printed in full with their paragraph numbers, and the idea has two parts, weather and a change of plans, so the check is careful but typical.
Estimated difficulty
Straightforward: two steps or one careful reading.
Evidence
Answered from several paragraphs or stanzas
Reading level
Passage: about grade 7, 816 words; question and choices: about grade 13, 148 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

The idea has two parts, the weather and a change in the brothers’ plans, and every quotation carries the first. Students who look only for weather words can be drawn to the erratic flight or the launch into the wind. Only one sentence shows the brothers thinking about the wind before they flew and deciding how to proceed, and once the second half of the idea is in view the choice is quick.

  1. Every choice must be checked minor Choosing the answer

    All four quotations mention ice, wind or air, so the weather half of the idea rules nothing out; each must be checked for the other half, a decision the brothers made because of it. (Embretson & Wetzel, 1987)

  2. Reading between the lines minor Working it out

    The key never says plan or adapt; students must see that weighing “the added dangers in flight” against “the slower speed in landing” is the brothers fitting their decision to the wind. (Graesser, Singer & Trabasso, 1994; Kintsch, 1998)

Strategy: Split the idea into its two parts, the weather and a change in the brothers’ plans, and keep only a quotation that shows both, not one that shows the weather alone.

Traps

  • Supports only part of the claim: In a question about evidence: a line that backs one half of the claim but not the other, or a related point rather than the claim itself.
  • True but not the answer: A choice says something accurate about the text that does not answer this question.

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Working it out, step by step

  1. Figure out what the question asks

    This asks for the sentence that best supports an idea. The idea has two parts. First, there was bad weather. Second, the brothers had to adapt, or change, their plans because of it. All four choices mention ice, wind or air. So look for the one that also shows a decision.

  2. Check each sentence for both parts

    • A shows the weather: icy puddles. But no one decides anything.
    • B shows the wind and the brothers’ thinking about it before the flight.
    • C describes the launch. It tells what Orville did, not a change of plans.
    • D explains why the flight was bumpy once it was in the air. It shows no plan.
  3. Read the sentence that fits

    Paragraph 1 says “We realized the difficulties of flying in so high a wind, but estimated that the added dangers in flight would be partly compensated for by the slower speed in landing.” To estimate is to make a careful guess. Compensated for means “made up for.” The brothers knew the strong wind made flying harder. They weighed that against a good effect: a slower landing. Then they decided to fly anyway.

  4. Explain how this shows adapting

    The brothers did not just notice the wind. They thought about how it would change the flight, the bad and the good. They also planned on “facing the flyer into a strong wind.” Making plans that fit the weather is what adapting means.

    Watch out: D is tempting because it links “the irregularity of the air” to the flight. But it tells what happened during the flight, not how the brothers planned for it.

  5. Choose the answer

    Only one sentence shows the brothers fitting their decision to the wind before they flew. So the answer is B, “We realized the difficulties of flying in so high a wind, but estimated that the added dangers in flight would be partly compensated for by the slower speed in landing.”

Why this answer and not the closest wrong one

D is the closest wrong choice. It does connect the weather to the flight. But it describes what happened in the air, after the plans were made. The idea needs the brothers changing plans because of the weather. Only B shows them thinking through the wind’s dangers and benefits before they decided to fly.

The original DOE question
Question 13 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 20 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test D English, page 20, question 13.

Question 115 of 120

2026 Practice Test D English, question 15
Passage Wolves of the Sea

Wolves of the Sea

The cool and misty landscape of the Great Bear Rainforest can be found along the coast of British Columbia, Canada, and its nearby islands, from Vancouver Island to the Alaskan border. Within this protected area, wolves roam the forests, islands, and beaches. When biologist Chris Darimont began to study these wolves, he wanted to confer with local First Nations groups, as aboriginal Canadians are known, in order to learn what they knew about these wolves. He spoke with Chester Starr, an elder of the Heiltsuk Nation that has occupied the Great Bear Rainforest for thousands of years. What Starr had to say about the wolves changed Darimont’s perception of the animals.

Starr asked Darimont which wolves he and his team were going to study—the timber wolves (mainland wolves) or the coastal wolves on the islands. The question took Darimont by surprise. Biologists had always believed that the wolves that are sometimes spotted swimming between islands and eating salmon are the same wolves that live on the mainland. Darimont was intrigued by Starr’s classification of the wolves as two different groups. At first, he was hesitant to accept the idea. The distances between the mainland and the islands are small, less than a mile. Why would the wolves on the islands be any different from the wolves on the mainland? To find out, Darimont and his research team studied the wolves on the islands and in the densely forested territory of the Great Bear Rainforest for ten years.

Throughout the study, Darimont recorded several significant, observable differences between the “sea wolves,” as they are nicknamed, and the mainland wolves. Compared with the mainland wolves, the sea wolves are smaller in size and are strong swimmers. In 1996 sea wolves were spotted on an island nearly eight miles from any other land formation. While mainland wolves almost exclusively eat meat, such as deer and elk, and teach their young to hunt for land animals, sea wolves get as much as 90 percent of their nutrition from the sea and teach their young to dig for clams and to catch fish. Sea wolves regularly swim between islands and have been known to sneak up on a seal sunning itself on a rock and make a leaping attack from the water. Some salmon-eating mainland wolves come and go from the islands with the fish-spawning season, but the sea wolves are full-time island residents. Darimont suspects that some sea wolves live their entire life on the islands.

The sea wolves displayed not only physical and behavioral differences but also genetic variations from the mainland wolves. After collecting and analyzing the DNA in 800 samples of gray fur and wolf waste, researchers could produce hard biological evidence that sea wolves had genetic markers that made them distinct from the mainland wolves. A genetic marker is a variation in a DNA sequence that can be used to identify individuals or a species because it is passed down to offspring. Darimont hypothesizes that a change in habitat led to the eventual genetic differences between sea wolves and mainland wolves. Many years ago, loss of habitat and food sources forced some mainland wolves out to the islands. They learned to eat everything from kelp and fish eggs to the remains of sea creatures that washed up on the beach. Wolves living on the islands and mainland wolves became more isolated and rarely mated with each other. Over time the two types of wolves became more distinct.

It turned out that Chester Starr was right all along. “It sounded totally bizarre at first,” admits Darimont, “that there could be two versions of the species.” But he now realizes that this skepticism “definitely reflected my ignorance of indigenous knowledge at the time.” Learning to trust the wisdom of the Heiltsuk people opened Darimont up to knowledge accumulated over millennia and positioned him so that he could gather new scientific evidence about one of British Columbia’s most elusive species, the sea wolf.

Question

The details in paragraph 1 contribute to a central idea of the passage by showing that Darimont

  • Abelieved the Great Bear Rainforest was an ideal location to study wolves in their natural habitat because it is a protected area.
  • Bvalues different perspectives, because the information that Starr provided influenced the focus of Darimont’s research.
  • Cthought the Great Bear Rainforest would provide opportunities to study different groups of wolves because the area includes forests and islands.
  • Dunderstands the importance of respecting local community members, because Darimont sought permission from an elder of the Heiltsuk Nation before starting his research.
Show the answer

Correct answer: B

The question asks how the details about Darimont in paragraph 1 contribute to a central idea of the passage.

A. Incorrect. Although paragraph 1 includes the detail that the Great Bear Rainforest is a protected area, finding an ideal location to study wolves is not a central idea of the passage. Additionally, the paragraph does not describe Darimont’s beliefs about the Great Bear Rainforest.

B. CORRECT. Paragraph 1 explains why Darimont wanted to consult with Chester Starr, an elder of the Heiltsuk Nation: “When biologist Chris Darimont began to study these wolves, he wanted to confer with local First Nations groups, as aboriginal Canadians are known, in order to learn what they knew about these wolves.” The details in paragraph 1 show that Darimont valued Starr’s perspective (“What Starr had to say about the wolves changed Darimont’s perception of the animals”), even though it was different from Darimont’s own perspective at that time.

C. Incorrect. Paragraphs 1 and 2 show that Darimont did not initially believe that the mainland wolves and the coastal wolves were different groups. Therefore, the details in paragraph 1 do not provide evidence that Darimont chose the Great Bear Rainforest because of an expectation that there were separate groups of island wolves and timber wolves. Instead, he chose the Great Bear Rainforest for the opportunity to study what he had presumed to be one group of wolves.

D. Incorrect. Although Darimont sought out Chester Starr, an elder of the Heiltsuk Nation, before beginning his research, Darimont’s purpose in doing so was not to request Starr’s permission to study the wolves but to learn from Starr’s expert knowledge of the area and its wolves (“When biologist Chris Darimont began to study these wolves, he wanted to confer with local First Nations groups, as aboriginal Canadians are known, in order to learn what they knew about these wolves” [paragraph 1]).

Question analysis

This central idea question on “Wolves of the Sea,” an article about the coastal wolves of British Columbia’s Great Bear Rainforest, asks what the details in paragraph 1 show about the biologist Chris Darimont. Students must connect an introductory paragraph to the idea the whole passage develops, and each choice pairs a claim about Darimont with a reason that has to be checked.

NYS standards
  • 7R2 theme or central idea
  • 7R5 structure and genre features
Grade level
Grade 7 reading and task
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Linking an opening paragraph’s details to a central idea is standard grade 7 work. Paragraph 1 is plainly written, but each choice is a two-part claim about Darimont with a reason attached, so both halves must be checked against the text.
Estimated difficulty
Moderate: several steps, or a close reading with one strong distractor.
Evidence
Answered from several paragraphs or stanzas
Reading level
Passage: about grade 10, 662 words; question and choices: about grade 13, 97 words.
Corrected from the DOE handbook
  • A missing word in the explanation was restored.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

Every choice pairs a claim about Darimont with a reason, so students who check only the first half can talk themselves into the respect choice, whose motive, asking permission, is a real-world custom the paragraph never mentions. The paragraph’s setting details, a protected area of forests and islands, invite readers to build beliefs about the study site that Darimont never states. The question rewards reading paragraph 1 as the opening of the passage’s larger story: a scientist learning from local knowledge.

  1. Reading between the lines moderate Working it out

    Paragraph 1 never says Darimont values other views; that has to be drawn from his wish “to learn what they knew” and from Starr changing “Darimont’s perception of the animals.” (Graesser, Singer & Trabasso, 1994; Kintsch, 1998)

  2. A very close wrong answer moderate Choosing the answer

    The respect choice shares the key’s picture of Darimont turning to the Heiltsuk and differs only in its reason: asking an elder’s permission instead of learning what the Heiltsuk knew about the wolves. (Embretson & Wetzel, 1987; Gorin & Embretson, 2006; Ascalon et al., 2007)

  3. Evidence in several places minor Working it out

    The central idea the paragraph serves is stated only in paragraph 5, where trusting “the wisdom of the Heiltsuk people” opens Darimont to knowledge “accumulated over millennia.” (Kirsch & Mosenthal, 1990; Gorin & Embretson, 2006)

Strategy: Sum up what paragraph 1 says Darimont did and why, recall what the passage as a whole is about, and test both parts of each choice, the claim and its reason, against the paragraph’s own words.

Traps

  • Outside knowledge: A choice is plausible in the real world but not supported by this text.
  • Twists what the text says: Uses the text's topic and ideas but changes what it says: who did it, how much, when, or why.
  • Word match: Repeats striking words or phrases from the text, so it looks supported, but its meaning does not fit the question.

The wrong answers, classified

What was corrected from the DOE handbook, and why

  • Explanation: The DOE’s explanation of Option C says Darimont “chose Great Bear Rainforest.” The passage, and the next sentence of the same explanation, say “the Great Bear Rainforest,” so the site adds “the.”

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Working it out, step by step

  1. Figure out what the question asks

    This is a central idea question. A central idea is a main point the whole passage builds. You need to see how paragraph 1 helps build that point. Each choice has two parts: something about Darimont, and a reason. Both parts must match the paragraph.

  2. Find the passage’s central idea

    The last paragraph spells it out. Starr “was right all along.” Then it says, “Learning to trust the wisdom of the Heiltsuk people opened Darimont up to knowledge accumulated over millennia.” Millennia means thousands of years. So a central idea is that a scientist learned from the long knowledge of the local people.

  3. Read what paragraph 1 shows

    Paragraph 1 says Darimont “wanted to confer with local First Nations groups, as aboriginal Canadians are known, in order to learn what they knew about these wolves.” To confer is to talk and share ideas. The paragraph ends, “What Starr had to say about the wolves changed Darimont’s perception of the animals.” His perception is the way he saw and understood them. So Darimont listened to a different point of view, and it changed how he saw the wolves.

  4. Check each choice

    • A is wrong. The paragraph calls the area protected. But it never says what Darimont thought of it as a place to study.
    • B is right. A perspective is a point of view. Darimont wanted to hear what the First Nations knew. Starr’s words changed how he saw the wolves and what he set out to study.
    • C is wrong. Darimont did not expect two groups of wolves. In paragraph 2, Starr’s question “took Darimont by surprise.”
    • D is wrong. Darimont never asks for permission. He went “to learn what they knew about these wolves.”

    Watch out: D sounds kind and respectful, so it pulls hard. But asking an elder’s permission is a custom you may know from real life. The paragraph never mentions it.

  5. Choose the answer

    Paragraph 1 shows Darimont seeking out what Starr knew and letting it change his view. That fits the passage’s central idea about trusting local knowledge. So the answer is B, “values different perspectives, because the information that Starr provided influenced the focus of Darimont’s research.”

Why this answer and not the closest wrong one

D is the closest wrong answer. Like B, it shows Darimont turning to a Heiltsuk elder. But its reason is wrong. Paragraph 1 says he wanted “to learn what they knew about these wolves,” not to get permission. B gives the reason the passage gives: what Starr knew changed Darimont’s view.

The original DOE question
Question 15 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 25 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test D English, page 25, question 15. This is the DOE’s version, before the corrections listed in the analysis.
The passage “Wolves of the Sea” as printed (pages 23–24)The passage “Wolves of the Sea” as printed on page 23 of the DOE handbook.The passage “Wolves of the Sea” as printed on page 24 of the DOE handbook.

Question 116 of 120

2026 Practice Test D English, question 16

Uses the passage above: “Wolves of the Sea”.

Question

Why does the author include details about the conversation between Starr and Darimont in paragraph 2?

  • Ato explain why Starr had closely observed the relationship between the two groups of wolves Darimont wanted to study
  • Bto show that Darimont was hoping to work with Starr and to study both groups of wolves in the area
  • Cto highlight that Darimont was unfamiliar with the area and expected Starr to help him find wolves to study
  • Dto emphasize that the question asked by Starr caused Darimont to review his initial assumption about the wolves
Show the answer

Correct answer: D

The question asks why the author includes details about the conversation between Starr and Darimont in paragraph 2.

A. Incorrect. The details in paragraph 2 do not explain why Starr had closely observed the two groups of wolves. Instead, they convey that Starr believed the wolves to be separate groups (“Starr asked Darimont which wolves he and his team were going to study—the timber wolves (mainland wolves) or the coastal wolves on the islands”), a supposition that intrigued Darimont and ultimately changed the course of his research study.

B. Incorrect. Although paragraph 1 indicates that Darimont did hope to work with Starr (“he wanted to confer with local First Nations groups, as aboriginal Canadians are known, in order to learn what they knew about these wolves”), Darimont did not initially plan to study both groups of wolves in the area because, as the conversation in paragraph 2 indicates, he did not initially know they were two distinct groups of wolves.

C. Incorrect. The details about the conversation in paragraph 2 highlight that Darimont was eager to learn from Starr’s knowledge of the wolves (“Darimont was intrigued by Starr’s classification of the wolves as two different groups”), but they do not indicate that Darimont expected Starr’s help to find the wolves.

D. CORRECT. According to paragraph 2, Starr wanted to know which group of wolves Darimont planned to study—“the timber wolves (mainland wolves) or the coastal wolves on the islands.” The author states that the question “took Darimont by surprise,” adding that “Darimont was intrigued by Starr’s classification of the wolves as two different groups.” The author adds that Darimont was initially “hesitant to accept the idea” that the wolves were separate groups but ultimately spent years studying the two groups of wolves. These details indicate that the question Starr posed to Darimont forced Darimont to reevaluate his initial assumption “that the wolves that are sometimes spotted swimming between islands and eating salmon are the same wolves that live on the mainland” and investigate Starr’s observation that the wolves had separated into two distinct groups.

Question analysis

In paragraph 2 of “Wolves of the Sea,” the Heiltsuk elder Chester Starr asks Darimont whether his team will study the timber wolves or the coastal wolves on the islands. This question asks why the author includes the details of that conversation, so students must explain what a short exchange does for the passage, not just what was said.

NYS standards
  • 7R5 structure and genre features
  • 7R3 plot elements and ideas
Grade level
Grade 7 reading and task
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Explaining why an author includes a detail is everyday grade 7 structure work. The paragraph in question is short and plainly written, and each choice can be checked against it directly, so the demand is typical of grade 7.
Estimated difficulty
Straightforward: two steps or one careful reading.
What makes it hard
Evidence
Answered from one paragraph or stanza
Reading level
Passage: about grade 10, 662 words; question and choices: about grade 10, 91 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

The paragraph is short and the turn in it is clear: a question surprises Darimont, he doubts it, and he sets out to test it. The main risk is the choice that mixes a true fact from paragraph 1, that Darimont wanted to learn from Starr, with a plan to study two groups he did not yet know existed. Students who keep the order of events straight, what Darimont believed before and after Starr spoke, rule it out.

  1. How, not what moderate Working it out

    The stem asks why the conversation is there, so students must say what Starr’s question about “the timber wolves … or the coastal wolves” does to Darimont’s research, not just repeat it. (Anderson & Krathwohl, 2001)

  2. Reading between the lines minor Working it out

    Paragraph 2 never says Darimont rethought anything; the review of his assumption is pieced together from “took Darimont by surprise,” “hesitant to accept” and the ten-year study that followed. (Graesser, Singer & Trabasso, 1994; Kintsch, 1998)

Strategy: Read all of paragraph 2, not just Starr’s question, and say in your own words why the conversation matters to the research; then reject choices that add facts the paragraph never gives.

Traps

  • Half right: One half of a two-part choice is right and the other is not.
  • Twists what the text says: Uses the text's topic and ideas but changes what it says: who did it, how much, when, or why.
  • Wrong purpose or structure: Names a purpose, structure or effect that the part does not serve, or describes what a part says when the question asks what it does.

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Working it out, step by step

  1. Figure out what the question asks

    This asks about the author’s purpose. Why did the author put the talk between Starr and Darimont into paragraph 2? Don’t just retell the talk. Ask what it does to Darimont and his research.

  2. Find the conversation

    Paragraph 2 opens with Starr’s question. He asked which wolves the team would study, “the timber wolves (mainland wolves) or the coastal wolves on the islands.” Next, “The question took Darimont by surprise.” Why? “Biologists had always believed” that the island wolves were “the same wolves that live on the mainland.”

  3. Follow what happens next

    Darimont “was intrigued,” which means curious. Still, “At first, he was hesitant to accept the idea.” Hesitant means unsure and slow to agree. Then, “To find out,” his team studied the wolves for ten years. So Starr’s question made Darimont rethink his first belief. He had assumed, or believed without checking, that all the wolves were one group.

  4. Check each choice

    • A is wrong. The paragraph gives Starr’s question. It never says how or why Starr watched the wolves.
    • B is wrong. Darimont did hope to learn from Starr. But he could not plan to study both groups before he knew there were two.
    • C is wrong. Nothing says Darimont needed Starr to help him find wolves.
    • D is right. The question surprised Darimont and sent him to test his first idea. His initial assumption means that first idea.

    Watch out: B mixes a true fact from paragraph 1 with a plan Darimont did not have yet. Keep the order of events straight.

  5. Choose the answer

    The talk shows Starr’s question changing how Darimont thought about the wolves. So the answer is D, “to emphasize that the question asked by Starr caused Darimont to review his initial assumption about the wolves.”

Why this answer and not the closest wrong one

B is the closest wrong answer. It is true that Darimont wanted to work with Starr. But before Starr spoke, Darimont thought all the wolves were one group. So he had no plan to study two groups. D fits the order of events: Starr asks, Darimont is surprised, and then he tests his old idea.

The original DOE question
Question 16 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 26 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test D English, page 26, question 16.

Question 117 of 120

2026 Practice Test D English, question 18

Uses the passage above: “Wolves of the Sea”.

Question

The author uses the word “admits” in paragraph 5 most likely to

  • Anote that Darimont’s genetic research verified a theory based solely on field observations.
  • Bimply that Darimont’s study was disappointing because the conclusion that he reached was not original.
  • Cemphasize that Darimont’s study ultimately confirmed an idea that he had initially doubted.
  • Dhighlight that Darimont’s results led him to draw a conclusion from his research that his team did not agree with.
Show the answer

Correct answer: C

The question asks for the most likely reason why the author uses the word “admits” in paragraph 5.

A. Incorrect. The word “admits” highlights the surprising difference between Darimont’s initial idea and the conclusion he ultimately drew from the results of the study. Though Darimont’s genetic research did, in fact, verify the field observations of the wolves, this does not explain the author’s use of the word “admits” in paragraph 5.

B. Incorrect. The conclusion that Darimont reached was actually quite original, since biologists widely believed the two separate groups of wolves to be one (“Biologists had always believed that the wolves that are sometimes spotted swimming between islands and eating salmon are the same wolves that live on the mainland” [paragraph 2]). The author uses the word “admits” in paragraph 5 to emphasize how unexpected Darimont found the conclusion to be (“The distances between the mainland and the islands are small, less than a mile. Why would the wolves on the islands be any different from the wolves on the mainland?” [paragraph 2]), not to indicate that the study was a disappointment.

C. CORRECT. The use of “admits” emphasizes that Darimont found the idea of two species of wolves “ ‘totally bizarre at first’ ” (paragraph 5) but ultimately proved it to be correct. Paragraph 2 suggests that Darimont, like other scientists, “had always believed that the wolves that are sometimes spotted swimming between islands and eating salmon are the same wolves that live on the mainland.” Therefore, the results of the study were likely to strike biologists as bizarre, and the use of the word “admits” in paragraph 5 highlights Darimont’s shift from doubt to confirmation.

D. Incorrect. Darimont’s team conducted the research that helped him confirm Starr’s idea and draw the conclusion that the wolves were separate species (“After collecting and analyzing the DNA in 800 samples of gray fur and wolf waste, researchers could produce hard biological evidence that sea wolves had genetic markers that made them distinct from the mainland wolves” [paragraph 4]). However, the opinions of Darimont’s research team are not described in the passage, and the word “admits” does not indicate that they disagreed with his conclusion.

Question analysis

This word-choice question asks why the author of “Wolves of the Sea” uses the verb “admits” to introduce Darimont’s own comment in paragraph 5, the passage’s last paragraph. Students must weigh what this one verb adds to the quotation, beyond simply reporting speech, and test four explanations that each make a claim about Darimont’s study.

NYS standards
  • 7R4 word meaning and choice
  • 7R5 structure and genre features
Grade level
Grade 7 reading and task
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Explaining why an author picked one word is typical grade 7 work. “Admits” is a familiar verb and the quotation it introduces is short, though students must look beyond that one sentence to judge what the verb conveys.
Estimated difficulty
Moderate: several steps, or a close reading with one strong distractor.
What makes it hard
Evidence
Answered from several paragraphs or stanzas
Reading level
Passage: about grade 10, 662 words; question and choices: about grade 11, 72 words.
Corrected from the DOE handbook
  • A stray comma in the explanation was removed.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

Two choices describe what the study did, and both are accurate, so truth alone does not settle the question; the stem asks what one verb adds. Students who remember that the DNA backed up what had been observed can stop there without asking why Darimont would need to admit anything. The other two choices read the concession in “admits” as disappointment or as a dispute with the team, neither of which the passage describes.

  1. How, not what moderate Working it out

    The stem asks why the author chose “admits” over a neutral verb like “says,” so students must hear the verb’s sense of conceding an earlier mistake and link it to Darimont’s “totally bizarre” first reaction. (Anderson & Krathwohl, 2001)

  2. A very close wrong answer moderate Choosing the answer

    The verification choice and the key both say the study confirmed an earlier idea; only the key adds that Darimont had doubted it, which is the part “admits” actually conveys. (Embretson & Wetzel, 1987; Gorin & Embretson, 2006; Ascalon et al., 2007)

Strategy: Compare “admits” with a neutral verb such as “says,” decide what extra meaning it carries, and then check which choice that meaning explains, rather than which choice is simply true of the study.

Traps

  • True but not the answer: A choice says something accurate about the text that does not answer this question.
  • Wrong tone or attitude: Misjudges the tone, attitude or point of view, such as reading admiration as criticism, or taking a character's or subject's feelings for the author's.
  • Reads too much in: A reasonable-sounding conclusion that goes further than the text allows.

The wrong answers, classified

What was corrected from the DOE handbook, and why

  • Explanation: In its explanation of Option B, the DOE ends the quotation from paragraph 2 with a comma before the citation: “…the same wolves that live on the mainland,” [paragraph 2]. Nothing follows in the sentence, and the passage has a period there, so the site drops the comma.

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Working it out, step by step

  1. Figure out what the question asks

    This asks why the author chose one word, “admits.” The author could have written says. So ask what extra meaning “admits” adds.

  2. Find the word in paragraph 5

    Paragraph 5 opens, “It turned out that Chester Starr was right all along.” Next comes “It sounded totally bizarre at first,” admits Darimont, “that there could be two versions of the species.” Bizarre means very strange. He now sees that this “skepticism” showed his “ignorance of indigenous knowledge at the time.” Skepticism means doubt. Indigenous means belonging to the people who first lived in a place.

  3. Work out what “admits” means

    To admit something is to say it is true, even if you would rather not. People often admit a mistake. So “admits” tells you Darimont first doubted Starr’s idea and now owns up to it. Back in paragraph 2, he “was hesitant to accept the idea.” Then his study proved that same idea right.

  4. Check each choice

    • A is wrong. The DNA work did back up what people had seen. But that fact does not explain why Darimont has to admit anything.
    • B is wrong. Nothing says Darimont was let down. He sounds thankful for what he learned.
    • C is right. “Admits” shows a change from doubt to agreement. His study confirmed, or proved true, an idea he once found strange.
    • D is wrong. The passage never says what his team thought. No one argues with him.

    Watch out: A is true about the study, so it is tempting. But the question asks what the word “admits” does, not what the study found.

  5. Choose the answer

    “Admits” stresses that Darimont once doubted Starr’s idea but came to see it was right. So the answer is C, “emphasize that Darimont’s study ultimately confirmed an idea that he had initially doubted.”

Why this answer and not the closest wrong one

A is the closest wrong answer. Like C, it says the study confirmed an earlier idea. But A leaves out the doubt. You only admit something you once got wrong or pushed away. C includes that change, from finding the idea “totally bizarre” to accepting it. That change is what “admits” adds.

The original DOE question
Question 18 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 28 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test D English, page 28, question 18. This is the DOE’s version, before the corrections listed in the analysis.

Question 118 of 120

2026 Practice Test D English, question 20

Uses the passage above: “Wolves of the Sea”.

Question

How did a change in habitat most affect the wolf population of the Great Bear Rainforest over time?

  • AIt caused some of the wolves to learn new hunting techniques in order to catch increasingly scarce prey.
  • BIt caused the wolves to form smaller packs and eventually separate, establishing distinct territories.
  • CIt caused some of the wolves to gradually become a new, genetically distinct species as they adapted behaviorally.
  • DIt caused the wolves to adapt their diet as different food sources became available in the area.
Show the answer

Correct answer: C

The question asks how a change in habitat most affected the wolf population of the Great Bear Rainforest over time.

A. Incorrect. Although the island wolves learned new hunting techniques (“dig for clams and to catch fish,” “sneak up on a seal sunning itself on a rock and make a leaping attack from the water” [paragraph 3]), there is no evidence in the passage that these hunting techniques were developed in response to scarcity of prey. The most significant effect of the change in habitat was not an influence on hunting techniques but the behavior differences that evolved because of the isolation of the groups of wolves from each other.

B. Incorrect. The change in habitat did not cause the wolves to form smaller packs but rather served to create distinctive behaviors because of the isolation of one pack from another, eventually causing the groups of wolves to become distinct species.

C. CORRECT. The change in habitat caused the wolves to gradually become two distinct species. Though the “sea wolves regularly swim between islands” and “some salmon-eating mainland wolves come and go from the islands,” the “sea wolves are full-time island residents” (paragraph 3). This behavioral adaptation to their environment caused the sea wolves to become “more isolated” from the mainland wolves; as a result, the two groups “rarely mated with each other,” and “over time the two types of wolves became more distinct” (paragraph 4).

D. Incorrect. Only the sea wolves adapted their diet. They did this not because different food sources became available in the area but because they were in an entirely different area from the mainland wolves.

Question analysis

This cause-and-effect question asks how a change in habitat most affected the wolf population of the Great Bear Rainforest over time, in the article “Wolves of the Sea.” Students must follow the account in paragraphs 3 and 4 of how some wolves came to live on the islands and pick the result the passage treats as the main one, among several that sound possible.

NYS standards
  • 7R3 plot elements and ideas
  • 7R1 textual evidence and inferences
Grade level
Grade 7 reading and task
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Tracing how one event leads to another is core grade 7 informational reading. The effects here are spread over two paragraphs of science writing, and several choices mix real details with causes the passage never gives, which keeps the demand typical.
Estimated difficulty
Moderate: several steps, or a close reading with one strong distractor.
Evidence
Answered from several paragraphs or stanzas
Reading level
Passage: about grade 10, 662 words; question and choices: about grade 10, 85 words.
Corrected from the DOE handbook
  • Two grammar slips in the explanation were corrected.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

Several effects of the move are real, and the strongest wrong answer names one of them, a change of diet, but gives it the wrong cause by having food appear nearby instead of wolves being forced out to the islands. Students who stop at the first effect they recognize miss that the question asks what happened over time. The key’s “new, genetically distinct species” overstates the passage, which calls the wolves “two versions of the species,” though it is still the only choice that follows the chain to its end.

  1. Evidence in several places moderate Working it out

    The chain of effects runs across two paragraphs: the island habits of paragraph 3, then paragraph 4’s loss of habitat, isolation, rare mating and the two types becoming “more distinct” over time. (Kirsch & Mosenthal, 1990; Gorin & Embretson, 2006)

  2. Reading between the lines minor Working it out

    The word “most” and the phrase “over time” point past the first changes, a new diet and new skills, to the end of the chain, genetic difference, which students must rank as the main effect. (Graesser, Singer & Trabasso, 1994; Kintsch, 1998)

Strategy: Trace the chain of events in paragraphs 3 and 4 from the wolves’ move to the islands onward, then test each choice for who changed, why, and with what result.

Traps

  • Twists what the text says: Uses the text's topic and ideas but changes what it says: who did it, how much, when, or why.
  • Half right: One half of a two-part choice is right and the other is not.
  • Outside knowledge: A choice is plausible in the real world but not supported by this text.

The wrong answers, classified

What was corrected from the DOE handbook, and why

  • Explanation: The DOE’s explanation of Option B says “eventually causing the groups of wolves to became distinct species”; the site says “to become.” Its explanation of Option C says the change “caused the sea wolves to ‘became more isolated’ from the mainland wolves,” putting paragraph 4’s past-tense “became” after “to”; the site now reads “caused the sea wolves to become ‘more isolated’ from the mainland wolves.”

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Working it out, step by step

  1. Figure out what the question asks

    This is a cause-and-effect question. The cause is a change in habitat. A habitat is the place where an animal lives and finds food. You need the biggest effect it had “over time.” So follow the whole chain of events to its end.

  2. Find the cause in paragraph 4

    Paragraph 4 says, “Many years ago, loss of habitat and food sources forced some mainland wolves out to the islands.” There, “They learned to eat everything from kelp and fish eggs to the remains of sea creatures that washed up on the beach.” Kelp is a kind of seaweed.

  3. Follow the chain to its end

    Next, the two groups “became more isolated and rarely mated with each other.” Isolated means cut off. Then, “Over time the two types of wolves became more distinct.” Distinct means clearly different. Darimont thinks the change in habitat “led to the eventual genetic differences.” Genetic means in the DNA, passed from parents to young. So the chain ends with the two groups becoming different in their DNA.

  4. Check each choice

    • A is wrong. Lost food sent wolves to the islands. The passage never says they learned tricks to catch scarce, or hard-to-find, prey.
    • B is wrong. The passage never mentions packs or territories.
    • C is right. Some wolves changed how they live, then grew apart in their DNA. One caution: C says “species.” The passage is more careful. It speaks of “two versions of the species.”
    • D is wrong. Only the island wolves changed their diet. They did not find new food nearby. Lost food forced them to move.

    Watch out: D names a real effect, a new diet. But that is only an early step, and D gives the wrong reason for it.

  5. Choose the answer

    The biggest effect over time was that the island wolves grew different in their DNA from the mainland wolves. So the answer is C, “It caused some of the wolves to gradually become a new, genetically distinct species as they adapted behaviorally.”

Why this answer and not the closest wrong one

D is the closest wrong answer, because the diet really did change. But D says new food “became available in the area.” The passage says the opposite: lost food forced some wolves out to the islands. A new diet is also only an early step. C follows the chain all the way to the change in their DNA.

The original DOE question
Question 20 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 30 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test D English, page 30, question 20. This is the DOE’s version, before the corrections listed in the analysis.

Question 119 of 120

2026 Practice Test D English, question 22
Passage Ode to Fireworks

Ode to Fireworks

In autumn my mother drove us to the edge of the field
where the fair was set up year after year:
the carousel, the bumper cars, the long, low sheds
filled with prizewinning animals.
We—my sister, my cousin, and I—were ready for bed,
already in our pajamas. This was a treat we waited
all year for. We waited in the darkness
for the first low, dull thwumps, like someone
beating an old, filthy rug hung on a wash line.
Then we counted the seconds between the lightning
and thunder, as we also used to do, until the sky
lit up: red, blue, green, gold. In my mind’s eye
I can still see the straggly, ancient oak whose branches
reached up past the exhibition halls, silhouetted
against the spectrum of stars that cascaded behind it.

It was one thing to look up into the sky
and imagine yourself in it or to make out pictures
among the clouds, which my sister liked to do.
No, I would tell her, that cloud
does not look like an elephant, a hat, an umbrella.
But it was another thing to see
the sky at night written upon
with those jewels. (We lived in the country:
night was night.) All around us, crickets
stridulated in the stubble of what had been
somebody’s cornfield, their song rising and falling.
You could smell winter on the air’s edge.

Now, in the city, when the sky dips into shadow
at New Year’s or on the Fourth of July, I find myself
craning my neck upward at odd moments.
The city sky is always lit up. This is where we live now,
and it is how we live now, awash in light
of every hue. Everything is a constant celebration:
picking up washing at the cleaner’s or stopping by
the corner market for a loaf of heavy bread.
And the music around me is the music of people,
their voices rising and falling in a hundred languages.
But beneath the yellowish glow deep in the sky
of all our city lights pelting out into the universe,
I remember the feel of the pickup truck bumping
across the ridged field, as I kept waiting for those
childhood bursts, watching as they escorted us home.

Question

Read lines 22–23 from the poem.

the sky at night written upon
with those jewels.

What does the word choice in these lines convey about the speaker?

  • AThe speaker values material possessions.
  • BThe speaker imagines that the fireworks are magical.
  • CThe speaker believes that the country setting is distinctive.
  • DThe speaker cherishes the memory of seeing fireworks as a child.
Show the answer

Correct answer: D

The question asks what the word choice in lines 22–23 of the poem conveys about the speaker.

A. Incorrect. The word “jewels” is used figuratively to indicate the sentimental value that the experience of watching the fireworks holds for the speaker. There is no indication in the poem that the speaker values material possessions.

B. Incorrect. The use of the word “jewels” highlights the importance of the memory in the speaker’s mind. The imagery in the words “written upon” expresses the way the bright streaks of light curve and fly across the night sky, not that the speaker views the fireworks display as magical.

C. Incorrect. The speaker describes the elements of the fireworks display that stand out most clearly. The view of the bright, colorful fireworks streaking across the sky is distinct, but it is not unique to the country setting.

D. CORRECT. The word “jewels” creates a picture of watching shining and sparkling explosions in the night sky and suggests that this experience holds sentimental and emotional value for the speaker. The speaker cherishes the memory of the experience.

Question analysis

This question quotes lines 22–23 of “Ode to Fireworks,” in which the night sky is “written upon / with those jewels,” and asks what this word choice conveys about the speaker. Students must move from a striking metaphor for fireworks to what it reveals about the person describing them, and every choice names a different value or belief.

NYS standards
  • 7R4 word meaning and choice
  • 7L5c connotation and denotation
Grade level
Grade 7 reading and task
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Reading a speaker’s feelings through connotation is standard grade 7 work. The two lines are short and quoted, but the metaphor is compressed and the choices name abstract attitudes, so one careful inference is needed, as in typical grade 7 poetry.
Estimated difficulty
Moderate: several steps, or a close reading with one strong distractor.
Evidence
Answered from several paragraphs or stanzas
Reading level
Passage: 379 words (a poem; reading level not measured); question and choices: about grade 6, 59 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

The quoted lines are short, but the answer depends on what “jewels” suggests about the speaker, so students must move from an image to an attitude. The strongest pull comes from the words right after, where the speaker stresses that night in the country was truly dark, a real point but one about the setting, not about the jewel image. Students who take the gems literally or as magic stop at the surface of the metaphor instead of asking why someone would call a memory precious.

  1. Figurative or literary language moderate Understanding the question

    Lines 22–23 turn fireworks into “jewels” and the sky into a page “written upon,” a metaphor whose meaning lies in what jewels are worth to a person, not in what they are. (Graesser, Singer & Trabasso, 1994; Kintsch, 1998)

  2. Reading between the lines moderate Working it out

    The lines name no feeling; that the speaker cherishes the memory must be inferred from calling the fireworks “jewels” and from the speaker still craning upward for them years later in the city. (Graesser, Singer & Trabasso, 1994; Kintsch, 1998)

Strategy: Ask what “jewels” suggests beyond its literal meaning, picture the sky “written upon,” and then pick the attitude that fits both these lines and the poem as a whole.

Traps

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Working it out, step by step

  1. Figure out what the question asks

    This asks what a word choice shows about the speaker. The speaker is the “I” who tells the poem. Look past what the words say. Ask what feeling they show.

  2. Find the lines

    In stanza 2, the speaker says “it was another thing to see / the sky at night written upon / with those jewels.” A stanza is a group of lines in a poem, like a paragraph. The jewels are the fireworks. The sky is like a page they write on.

  3. Think about what jewels mean

    Calling fireworks jewels is a metaphor: a comparison without “like” or “as.” Jewels are rare, bright and precious. People keep them safe and treasure them. So the word shows how much the sight meant to the speaker. Even now, in the city, the speaker says “I find myself / craning my neck upward at odd moments.” Craning means stretching your neck to look.

  4. Check each choice

    • A is wrong. The jewels are fireworks, not things the speaker owns.
    • B is wrong. The speaker watched real fireworks from a field with family. Nothing calls them magic.
    • C is wrong. The next words, “We lived in the country,” do stress the setting. But the jewel image itself is about how precious the sight was.
    • D is right. To cherish is to treasure and hold dear. Jewels are treasures.

    Watch out: C is tempting because the country comes up right after the jewels. Keep your eyes on lines 22–23 themselves.

  5. Choose the answer

    Calling the fireworks jewels shows a treasured childhood memory. So the answer is D, “The speaker cherishes the memory of seeing fireworks as a child.”

Why this answer and not the closest wrong one

C is the closest wrong answer. The poem does say they lived in the country, where night was truly dark. But that is the next thought, not the jewel image. Jewels are treasures. They show how much the speaker valued the sight. D says just that: the speaker treasures the memory.

The original DOE question
Question 22 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 34 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test D English, page 34, question 22.
The passage “Ode to Fireworks” as printed (page 32)The passage “Ode to Fireworks” as printed on page 32 of the DOE handbook.

Question 120 of 120

2026 Practice Test D English, question 23

Uses the passage above: “Ode to Fireworks”.

Question

The use of italics on the word “night” in line 24 is most likely intended to emphasize the

  • Asense of mystery in the darkness.
  • Bsense of absolute darkness.
  • Cspeaker’s fear of night.
  • Dspeaker’s certainty about that night.
Show the answer

Correct answer: B

The question asks what the use of italics on the word “night” in line 24 is most likely intended to emphasize.

A. Incorrect. The purpose of italicizing the word “night” is not to convey mystery. While the speaker refers to not knowing the exact location where the firework viewing took place (“in the stubble of what had been / somebody’s cornfield” [lines 25–26]), the emphasis on “night” is meant to highlight the darkness and contrast the bright light from the fireworks soaring across the sky.

B. CORRECT. The italics are intended to place emphasis on one key aspect of nighttime—total darkness. The speaker is making a point that night in the country was truly dark, unlike the night the speaker currently experiences in a city, where light emitted from buildings and vehicles prevents complete darkness.

C. Incorrect. The tone in the second stanza is positive, showing admiration for the beauty visible in true darkness rather than fear: “But it was another thing to see / the sky at night written upon / with those jewels” (lines 21–23).

D. Incorrect. The speaker is talking about the general experience of watching fireworks on several occasions, not focusing on the events of a specific night. The use of italics on the word “night” emphasizes the speaker’s memory of the persistent darkness.

Question analysis

In “Ode to Fireworks,” the word “night” is printed in italics in line 24, inside the speaker’s aside about living in the country. This craft question asks what the italics are most likely meant to emphasize, so students must think about what stressing one ordinary word does and choose among moods and meanings the word could carry.

NYS standards
  • 7R5 structure and genre features
  • 7R4 word meaning and choice
Grade level
Grade 7 reading and task
Compared with grade 7
At grade 7 Grade 7 students explain how word choice shapes meaning; here the device is italics on one everyday word, which is studied less often. The surrounding lines are plain, so a single careful inference settles it, a typical grade 7 demand.
Estimated difficulty
Moderate: several steps, or a close reading with one strong distractor.
Evidence
Answered from one paragraph or stanza
Reading level
Passage: 379 words (a poem; reading level not measured); question and choices: about grade 5, 36 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

One plain word in a parenthesis carries the question, and its meaning comes from the stress, not the dictionary. Darkness is easy to see; the harder step is choosing what the italics add to it, and mystery is a familiar partner for darkness that the stanza never develops. Students who read on to the brightly lit city of the third stanza see that the speaker is insisting on how complete the country dark was.

  1. How, not what moderate Working it out

    The stem asks what italics do, not what a word means, so students must hear the stress in “night was night” as insisting that the country night was fully dark, as night should be. (Anderson & Krathwohl, 2001)

  2. A very close wrong answer moderate Choosing the answer

    The mystery choice and the key both tie the italics to darkness; they differ only in what the darkness carries, a sense of mystery or its sheer completeness. (Embretson & Wetzel, 1987; Gorin & Embretson, 2006; Ascalon et al., 2007)

  3. Evidence in several places minor Working it out

    The point of the stress becomes clear from the third stanza, where “The city sky is always lit up” and the speaker now lives “awash in light / of every hue.” (Kirsch & Mosenthal, 1990; Gorin & Embretson, 2006)

Strategy: Read line 24 aloud, stressing “night” as the italics do, and ask what the speaker insists on about nights in the country; then check whether the rest of the poem backs that reading.

Traps

  • Reads too much in: A reasonable-sounding conclusion that goes further than the text allows.
  • Wrong tone or attitude: Misjudges the tone, attitude or point of view, such as reading admiration as criticism, or taking a character's or subject's feelings for the author's.
  • Wrong purpose or structure: Names a purpose, structure or effect that the part does not serve, or describes what a part says when the question asks what it does.

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Working it out, step by step

  1. Figure out what the question asks

    This asks why one word is in italics. Italics are slanted letters. Writers use them to stress a word, the way you would say it louder. So ask what the speaker insists on.

  2. Read the line aloud

    Lines 23–24 say “(We lived in the country: / night was night.)” Read it aloud and lean on the second “night.” It means night was really night. It was as dark as night should be, with no city lights.

  3. Use the rest of the poem

    Stanza 3 shows the opposite. “The city sky is always lit up.” The speaker now lives “awash in light / of every hue.” Awash means flooded. A hue is a color. So the italics stress how completely dark the country night was. That darkness made the fireworks stand out.

  4. Check each choice

    • A is wrong. Darkness can feel mysterious. But nothing in the stanza is hidden or puzzling.
    • B is right. Absolute means total. The italics stress that the dark was total.
    • C is wrong. The speaker shows wonder, not fear. The sky is full of “jewels.”
    • D is wrong. “That night” would mean one evening. The speaker means country nights in general, at a fair held “year after year.”

    Watch out: A pairs darkness with mystery, which feels natural. But the speaker stresses how dark it was, not that it felt strange.

  5. Choose the answer

    The italics insist that country nights were fully dark. So the answer is B, “sense of absolute darkness.”

Why this answer and not the closest wrong one

A is the closest wrong answer, since both A and B link the italics to darkness. But the stanza never treats the night as strange or secret. The bright city sky in stanza 3 shows what the stress is for: country nights were completely dark. That is B.

The original DOE question
Question 23 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 35 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test D English, page 35, question 23.