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Six SHSAT Questions

3 English and 3 math

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Question 1 of 6

2026 Practice Test B English, question 32
Passage Using Fire to Keep a Prairie Healthy

Using Fire to Keep a Prairie Healthy

Inside the 40,000-acre Joseph H. Williams Tallgrass Prairie Preserve in northern Oklahoma, herds of bison roam on the scenic land that is home to hundreds of different species of plants and animals. While one of the greatest threats to the prairie is wildfire, the use of controlled fires is actually an effective way to protect this idyllic landscape.

Fires that are started by lightning or other natural circumstances are inevitable, and the results can be disastrous. However, hundreds of years ago the American Indian people who inhabited the Great Plains area between Minnesota and Texas realized that these fires could also be helpful. The bison in the area seemed to prefer grazing on tender new grass on the recently burned land rather than on grass in the unburned areas. The American Indian people began to deliberately burn areas of land for bison to graze on, which enticed the herds away from the people’s crops.

Today conservationists at the Tallgrass Prairie Preserve and farmers in the Great Plains continue to use controlled burns for land management. Intentionally burning a portion of land can dramatically improve the quality of the vegetation that regrows there. The fires burn away weedy undergrowth and help limit the overcrowding of shrubs and trees in the burn area, creating less competition for water and nutrients. Additionally, the process of burning excess plant matter adds nitrogen, an essential element for plant growth, to the soil.

One common target of controlled burns at the preserve and the surrounding area is the invasive red cedar tree. A single red cedar tree can consume up to 40 gallons of water per day, taking this vital resource away from other plant life. These tall trees also cast shade that prevents sunlight from reaching the plants beneath them. The fast-growing red cedar trees tend to crowd out prairie grasses, the primary food source for wild and domestic animals that make the prairie their home. An imbalance in one component of the prairie’s ecosystem affects the entire web of life. Controlled burns help maintain this ecosystem’s delicate balance.

Of course, these controlled fires are intended to burn only a portion of an area. A total burn, which is a risk with an uncontrolled wildfire, would destroy all wildlife as well as the crops farmers plant for income. The key to using controlled fires is knowing which areas of land to burn and when. Conservation experts at the preserve employ the “patch-burn” approach, meaning they rotate which portion of land is burned each year. They study the land to find out which areas would most benefit from being burned, and then they arrange about a dozen burns over one-third of the land. This patch burning contains the fire within a specific area and allows animals in the burn area to safely relocate. The following year, conservationists will burn a different section of the preserve, while the land burned the previous year regrows healthier than before.

Researchers have tracked and studied the variety of plant species and animals that live on the preserve, and their studies show that the patch-burn approach has restored biodiversity to the area by promoting the growth of species that were at risk of being crowded out. The patch-burn system is so successful that the conservationists at the preserve provide training to prairie farmers about conducting controlled burns on their own land. Burning land to make it healthy may seem counterintuitive, but strategic controlled fires have helped the prairie sustain life for hundreds of years and, with careful management, will continue to do so.

Boxed diagram titled “OVERVIEW OF THE PATCH-BURN METHOD,” introduced by the text “By using a patch-burn method, conservationists and farmers can reduce the risk of unintentional fires and control where grazing animals, such as bison, roam.” Below it, a map of one stretch of land is divided by a branching stream, labeled Stream, into three shaded areas: a dark Unburned Area across the top, a medium gray Previously Burned Area on the left, and a light gray Recently Burned Area on the lower right, where eight bison stand. Three captions under the map read “The unburned area is overrun with weeds and has the greatest risk of catching fire,” “The previously burned area is cleared of weeds, and young trees and crops grow freely and thrive,” and “The recently burned area has been cleared of all plants. Bison prefer to eat the fresh grass that will begin to grow in the recently burned area, and they will generally remain in that area until newer, fresher grass is available elsewhere.”

Question

Which sentence supports the idea that farmers and people who manage land may be concerned about using fire as a way to benefit the land?

  • A“While one of the greatest threats to the prairie is wildfire, the use of controlled fires is actually an effective way to protect this idyllic landscape.” (paragraph 1)
  • B“The American Indian people began to deliberately burn areas of land for bison to graze on, which enticed the herds away from the people’s crops.” (paragraph 2)
  • C“This patch burning contains the fire within a specific area and allows animals in the burn area to safely relocate.” (paragraph 5)
  • D“The following year, conservationists will burn a different section of the preserve, while the land burned the previous year regrows healthier than before.” (paragraph 5)
Show the answer

Correct answer: A

The question asks which sentence supports the idea that farmers and people who manage land may be concerned about using fire as a way to benefit the land.

A. CORRECT. The sentence from paragraph 1 supports the idea that farmers and people who manage land may be concerned about using fire as a way to benefit the land because it acknowledges that “one of the greatest threats to the prairie is wildfire.”

B. Incorrect. Although the sentence from paragraph 2 relates how American Indians “began to deliberately burn areas of land for bison to graze on” and to protect people’s crops, the sentence does not support the idea that farmers and people who manage land may be concerned about using fire as a way to benefit the land. Instead, it focuses on the cause-and-effect relationship between bison and newly burned areas.

C. Incorrect. The sentence from paragraph 5 provides details about how “patch burning contains the fire” and “allows animals in the burn area to safely relocate,” but it does not adequately support the idea that farmers and people who manage land may be concerned about using fire as a way to benefit the land, because it does not mention that wildfires can be a threat to the prairie.

D. Incorrect. While the sentence from paragraph 5 does explain how “conservationists will burn a different section of the preserve” in order to rotate the process year after year so that the burned land has time to regrow, the sentence does not support the idea that farmers and people who manage land may be concerned about using fire as a way to benefit the land because it does not mention the potential for total burns.

Question analysis

This evidence question asks which sentence from the article on controlled prairie burns supports the idea that farmers and others who manage land may be concerned about using fire to benefit it. The passage never states that concern directly, so students must infer it, and all four quoted sentences, taken from across the article, talk about burning land in some way.

NYS standards
  • 7R1 textual evidence and inferences
  • 7R6 point of view and author position
Grade level
Grade 8 reading and task
Compared with grade 7
Above grade 7 Grade 7 evidence questions usually ask for support of an idea the text states. This idea, that people who manage land may worry about using fire, is never stated outright, so students must infer which sentence implies it, more than typical.
Estimated difficulty
Hard: combines ideas, needs a plan, and has more than one tempting wrong answer.
Evidence
Answered from one sentence or line
Reading level
Passage: about grade 11, 598 words; question and choices: about grade 13, 123 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

The idea to support is about people’s feelings, yet none of the four sentences mentions farmers worrying, so students have to decide what would justify such worry. The opening sentence does it by naming wildfire as a great threat before praising controlled fire, a concession many students read past as background. The strongest pull is the sentence on containing the fire, which implies caution but presents patch burning as the answer, not the concern.

  1. Reading between the lines major Working it out

    No sentence mentions worry; students must see that calling wildfire “one of the greatest threats to the prairie” gives landowners a reason to fear fire, and that “actually” answers that fear. (Graesser, Singer & Trabasso, 1994; Kintsch, 1998)

  2. A very close wrong answer moderate Choosing the answer

    The patch-burn sentence about containing the fire “within a specific area” also hints at fire’s danger; it differs from the right one by describing the safeguard without ever naming a threat. (Embretson & Wetzel, 1987; Gorin & Embretson, 2006; Ascalon et al., 2007)

  3. Every choice must be checked minor Choosing the answer

    The four sentences come from paragraphs 1, 2 and 5, and each is about burning land, so each must be tested for a hint of risk rather than for its topic. (Embretson & Wetzel, 1987)

Strategy: Before rereading the choices, decide what a sentence would need to say to show that landowners have reason to be wary of fire, then test each quoted sentence for exactly that.

Traps

  • Supports only part of the claim: In a question about evidence: a line that backs one half of the claim but not the other, or a related point rather than the claim itself.
  • True but not the answer: A choice says something accurate about the text that does not answer this question.

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Working it out, step by step

  1. Figure out what the question asks

    This is an evidence question. Evidence is the words in a text that back up an idea. The idea here is that farmers might worry about using fire to help land. No sentence says farmers are worried. So look for a sentence that gives them a reason to fear fire.

  2. Decide what the evidence needs

    A sentence that supports this idea must show that fire can be dangerous. If fire can harm land, people have a reason to be careful with it. So test each sentence with one question: does it say fire is a threat?

  3. Look closely at paragraph 1

    Choice A quotes paragraph 1. Its first half says “one of the greatest threats to the prairie is wildfire.” That is a reason to fear fire. Its second half says controlled fires are “actually” helpful. The word “actually” pushes back against that fear. It means: you might expect fire to hurt the land, but here it helps.

  4. Check each choice

    • A is right. It names wildfire as a great threat. That gives farmers a reason to worry about fire.
    • B is wrong. It tells how early burns drew bison away from crops. It shows no danger from fire.
    • C is wrong. It tells how patch burning keeps the fire in one area. It describes a safety step but never names a threat.
    • D is wrong. It describes burning a new section each year. It shows a benefit: land that “regrows healthier than before.”

    Watch out: C hints that fire must be contained, or kept in, so it sounds careful. But it describes the solution, not the danger.

  5. Choose the answer

    Only one sentence names fire as a danger. So the answer is A, the sentence from paragraph 1: “While one of the greatest threats to the prairie is wildfire, the use of controlled fires is actually an effective way to protect this idyllic landscape.” Idyllic means peaceful and lovely.

Why this answer and not the closest wrong one

C is the closest wrong answer, because keeping fire “within a specific area” suggests caution. But C only explains how patch burning works. It never says fire can harm the prairie. A does, by calling wildfire one of the greatest threats.

More questions like this

The original DOE question
Question 32 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 45 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test B English, page 45, question 32.
The passage “Using Fire to Keep a Prairie Healthy” as printed (page 41)The passage “Using Fire to Keep a Prairie Healthy” as printed on page 41 of the DOE handbook.

Question 2 of 6

2026 Practice Test D English, question 19
Passage Wolves of the Sea

Wolves of the Sea

The cool and misty landscape of the Great Bear Rainforest can be found along the coast of British Columbia, Canada, and its nearby islands, from Vancouver Island to the Alaskan border. Within this protected area, wolves roam the forests, islands, and beaches. When biologist Chris Darimont began to study these wolves, he wanted to confer with local First Nations groups, as aboriginal Canadians are known, in order to learn what they knew about these wolves. He spoke with Chester Starr, an elder of the Heiltsuk Nation that has occupied the Great Bear Rainforest for thousands of years. What Starr had to say about the wolves changed Darimont’s perception of the animals.

Starr asked Darimont which wolves he and his team were going to study—the timber wolves (mainland wolves) or the coastal wolves on the islands. The question took Darimont by surprise. Biologists had always believed that the wolves that are sometimes spotted swimming between islands and eating salmon are the same wolves that live on the mainland. Darimont was intrigued by Starr’s classification of the wolves as two different groups. At first, he was hesitant to accept the idea. The distances between the mainland and the islands are small, less than a mile. Why would the wolves on the islands be any different from the wolves on the mainland? To find out, Darimont and his research team studied the wolves on the islands and in the densely forested territory of the Great Bear Rainforest for ten years.

Throughout the study, Darimont recorded several significant, observable differences between the “sea wolves,” as they are nicknamed, and the mainland wolves. Compared with the mainland wolves, the sea wolves are smaller in size and are strong swimmers. In 1996 sea wolves were spotted on an island nearly eight miles from any other land formation. While mainland wolves almost exclusively eat meat, such as deer and elk, and teach their young to hunt for land animals, sea wolves get as much as 90 percent of their nutrition from the sea and teach their young to dig for clams and to catch fish. Sea wolves regularly swim between islands and have been known to sneak up on a seal sunning itself on a rock and make a leaping attack from the water. Some salmon-eating mainland wolves come and go from the islands with the fish-spawning season, but the sea wolves are full-time island residents. Darimont suspects that some sea wolves live their entire life on the islands.

The sea wolves displayed not only physical and behavioral differences but also genetic variations from the mainland wolves. After collecting and analyzing the DNA in 800 samples of gray fur and wolf waste, researchers could produce hard biological evidence that sea wolves had genetic markers that made them distinct from the mainland wolves. A genetic marker is a variation in a DNA sequence that can be used to identify individuals or a species because it is passed down to offspring. Darimont hypothesizes that a change in habitat led to the eventual genetic differences between sea wolves and mainland wolves. Many years ago, loss of habitat and food sources forced some mainland wolves out to the islands. They learned to eat everything from kelp and fish eggs to the remains of sea creatures that washed up on the beach. Wolves living on the islands and mainland wolves became more isolated and rarely mated with each other. Over time the two types of wolves became more distinct.

It turned out that Chester Starr was right all along. “It sounded totally bizarre at first,” admits Darimont, “that there could be two versions of the species.” But he now realizes that this skepticism “definitely reflected my ignorance of indigenous knowledge at the time.” Learning to trust the wisdom of the Heiltsuk people opened Darimont up to knowledge accumulated over millennia and positioned him so that he could gather new scientific evidence about one of British Columbia’s most elusive species, the sea wolf.

Question

Which sentence from the passage best supports the idea that sea wolves had successfully adapted to living on the islands?

  • A“While mainland wolves almost exclusively eat meat, such as deer and elk, and teach their young to hunt for land animals, sea wolves get as much as 90 percent of their nutrition from the sea and teach their young to dig for clams and to catch fish.” (paragraph 3)
  • B“Sea wolves regularly swim between islands and have been known to sneak up on a seal sunning itself on a rock and make a leaping attack from the water.” (paragraph 3)
  • C“Darimont suspects that some sea wolves live their entire life on the islands.” (paragraph 3)
  • D“Darimont hypothesizes that a change in habitat led to the eventual genetic differences between sea wolves and mainland wolves.” (paragraph 4)
Show the answer

Correct answer: A

The question asks for the sentence from the passage that best supports the idea that sea wolves had successfully adapted to living on the islands.

A. CORRECT. This sentence from paragraph 3 describes a significant difference in the diets of the mainland and sea wolves: the mainland wolves “almost exclusively eat meat, such as deer and elk, and teach their young to hunt for land animals,” whereas the sea wolves had adapted to the point where they derive “as much as 90 percent of their nutrition from the sea and teach their young to dig for clams and to catch fish.” This sentence emphasizes the dietary difference between the two groups of wolves and best supports the idea that sea wolves had successfully adapted to living on the islands.

B. Incorrect. Although this sentence from paragraph 3 describes one technique that the sea wolves used to hunt, it does not offer evidence as strong as that provided by the preceding sentence, which explains that sea wolves were able to derive “as much as 90 percent” (paragraph 3) of their sustenance from the sea alone (versus the mainland wolves, which “almost exclusively eat meat” from land animals [paragraph 3]).

C. Incorrect. Although this sentence from paragraph 3 states that “some sea wolves live their entire life on the islands,” it does not provide strong evidence of the necessary adaptations—namely, how these wolves were able to successfully live their whole lives on the islands. Living on the islands was not necessarily an adaptation in and of itself; the adaptation was the sea-based diet that enabled the sea wolves to live on the islands without access to land animals.

D. Incorrect. Although this sentence from paragraph 4 presents Darimont’s hypothesis that “a change in habitat led to the eventual genetic differences” between the wolves, the sentence does not describe any of the sea wolves’ adaptations nor best support the idea that the sea wolves successfully adapted to living on the islands.

Question analysis

This evidence question on “Wolves of the Sea” asks which sentence best supports the idea that sea wolves had successfully adapted to living on the islands. Three choices come from paragraph 3’s list of differences between sea wolves and mainland wolves and one from paragraph 4, so students must rank closely related sentences by how directly each shows the wolves thriving there.

NYS standards
  • 7R1 textual evidence and inferences
Grade level
Grade 8 reading and task
Compared with grade 7
Above grade 7 Grade 7 evidence questions often have one clearly relevant sentence. Here three neighboring sentences all describe the sea wolves’ island life, so students must decide what counts as successful adaptation and rank strong evidence against nearly as strong.
Estimated difficulty
Hard: combines ideas, needs a plan, and has more than one tempting wrong answer.
Evidence
Answered from several paragraphs or stanzas
Reading level
Passage: about grade 10, 662 words; question and choices: about grade 12, 131 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

All four sentences are about sea wolves, and three describe their island lives, so the question turns on ranking evidence rather than spotting it. The seal attack is one of the passage’s most vivid images and shows a real island skill, which makes it hard to give up for a sentence about diet. The key wins because it shows a whole way of life changing, most food from the sea and the young taught to fish, while the other sentences offer one habit, a hedged guess or a cause.

  1. A very close wrong answer moderate Choosing the answer

    The seal-hunting sentence sits right after the key in paragraph 3 and also shows sea wolves living off the sea; it differs in showing one hunting trick instead of up to 90 percent of their food. (Embretson & Wetzel, 1987; Gorin & Embretson, 2006; Ascalon et al., 2007)

  2. Reading between the lines moderate Working it out

    No sentence uses the word “adapted,” so students must first decide what would prove an animal thrives in a new place, such as getting its food there and teaching that skill to its young. (Graesser, Singer & Trabasso, 1994; Kintsch, 1998)

  3. Every choice must be checked minor Choosing the answer

    Three of the four sentences come from paragraph 3’s list of island habits, and all four mention sea wolves or their habitat, so none can be dismissed at a glance. (Embretson & Wetzel, 1987)

Strategy: Before reading the choices, decide what would prove that an animal has adapted well to a new place, then rank the four sentences by how fully each one shows that, not merely whether it fits.

Traps

  • Supports only part of the claim: In a question about evidence: a line that backs one half of the claim but not the other, or a related point rather than the claim itself.
  • True but not the answer: A choice says something accurate about the text that does not answer this question.

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Working it out, step by step

  1. Figure out what the question asks

    This asks for evidence: the sentence that best supports a claim. The claim is that sea wolves “had successfully adapted to living on the islands.” To adapt is to change so you can live well in a new place.

  2. Decide what strong proof looks like

    Before you read the choices, ask what would prove an animal is doing well somewhere new. It can find its food there. It can also teach its young to live there. One clever trick is weaker proof. A guess is weaker still. So look for a sentence that shows a whole way of life built around the new home.

  3. Test the diet sentence

    Choice A comes from paragraph 3. It says “sea wolves get as much as 90 percent of their nutrition from the sea and teach their young to dig for clams and to catch fish.” Nutrition is the food a body needs. So almost all their food comes from the sea. They also pass those skills on to their pups. Mainland wolves, by contrast, “almost exclusively eat meat, such as deer and elk.” Exclusively means only.

  4. Check the other choices

    • B shows one hunting trick, a leap at a seal. It is a real island skill. But it shows less than a diet that is up to 90 percent from the sea.
    • C uses the word “suspects,” so it is only Darimont’s guess. It also tells where some wolves live, not how they manage there.
    • D gives Darimont’s idea about what caused the genetic differences. It does not show the wolves doing well.

    Watch out: The seal attack in B is the most exciting picture. But one exciting hunt is weaker proof than a whole new diet.

  5. Choose the answer

    Sentence A shows sea wolves getting most of their food from the sea and training their young to do the same. So the answer is A, the sentence “While mainland wolves almost exclusively eat meat, such as deer and elk, and teach their young to hunt for land animals, sea wolves get as much as 90 percent of their nutrition from the sea and teach their young to dig for clams and to catch fish.”

Why this answer and not the closest wrong one

B is the closest wrong answer. It comes right after A in paragraph 3 and also shows sea wolves living off the sea. But B shows one way of hunting. A shows where nearly all their food comes from, and that they teach it to their young. That is stronger proof that they adapted well.

More questions like this

The original DOE question
Question 19 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 29 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test D English, page 29, question 19.
The passage “Wolves of the Sea” as printed (pages 23–24)The passage “Wolves of the Sea” as printed on page 23 of the DOE handbook.The passage “Wolves of the Sea” as printed on page 24 of the DOE handbook.

Question 3 of 6

2026 Practice Test B English, question 47
Passage The End of an Era

The End of an Era

(1) In 2004, the National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) landed a rover, or robotic vehicle, named Opportunity on the surface of Mars. (2) The rover’s mission was to search for evidence of water and life on the planet. (3) The rover was designed to gather data on Mars for about 90 days, but Opportunity’s assignment did not come to an end until nearly 15 years later in 2019.

(4) During the rover’s mission, a high-resolution camera on the rover’s robotic arm took magnified photographs of the surface of Mars. (5) The photographs revealed small round rocks scattered across the surface of the planet. (6) The scientists nicknamed these rocks “blueberries” based on the rocks’ resemblance to the fruit. (7) These rocks were important because their spherical shape suggested that liquid water may have flowed over them for a substantial amount of time.

(8) Opportunity continued to provide valuable data about craters and other surface features. (9) Throughout the mission, the rover traveled a total of 28.06 miles across Mars’ surface. (10) When Opportunity had traveled nearly the length of a marathon, scientists celebrated the accomplishment by naming the valley that the rover was in Marathon Valley. (11) However, in 2018, a dust storm spread all over the planet, putting the rover’s progress on hold.

(12) Prior to this planet-wide dust storm, minor dust storms had periodically deposited a layer of dust onto the solar panels of the rover. (13) These prevented it from charging its batteries. (14) Scientists then had to rely on the passing winds and dust devils to clean off the solar panels. (15) After the massive 2018 dust storm subsided, scientists expected to be able to reestablish communication with Opportunity. (16) They made repeated attempts but to no avail. (17) In 2019, NASA finally declared Opportunity’s mission complete.

(18) Opportunity was an important asset in scientists’ study of Mars; it returned valuable data about our neighbor planet and survived powerful dust storms. (19) NASA described the mission of Opportunity as “one of the most successful and enduring feats of interplanetary exploration.” (20) Even though this rover’s journey ended, other rovers still roam the surface of Mars.

Question

What is the best way to combine sentences 12 and 13?

  • APreventing the rover from charging its batteries, minor dust storms had periodically deposited a layer of dust onto the solar panels of the rover prior to this planet-wide dust storm.
  • BPeriodically depositing a layer of dust onto the solar panels of the rover prior to this planet-wide dust storm, minor dust storms had prevented it from charging its batteries.
  • CMinor dust storms, prior to this planet-wide dust storm, prevented the rover from charging its batteries because they had periodically deposited a layer of dust onto the solar panels of the rover.
  • DPrior to this planet-wide dust storm, minor dust storms had periodically deposited a layer of dust onto the solar panels of the rover, preventing it from charging its batteries.
Show the answer

Correct answer: D

The question asks for the best way to combine sentences 12 and 13.

A. Incorrect. The phrase “this planet-wide dust storm” in the original sentence 12 makes a direct reference to sentence 11 and therefore acts as a transition that should be kept at the beginning. In this sentence, the transition phrase is placed at the end of the sentence, making the phrase confusing. In addition, the sentence is unnecessarily repetitive and wordy.

B. Incorrect. This combination unnecessarily turns sentence 12 into an overly long participial phrase, making the connection between “it” and its antecedent, “the rover,” unclear and distracting from the subject of the sentence, “minor dust storms.”

C. Incorrect. Not only does this combination move the reference to “this planet-wide dust storm” farther from sentence 11, but it is also unnecessarily wordy, adding “because” and repeating “the rover.”

D. CORRECT. This sentence efficiently and accurately adds sentence 13 to sentence 12 as a participial phrase by changing “These prevented” to “preventing,” while also retaining the meanings of the original sentences 12 and 13.

Question analysis

This sentence-combining question asks for the best way to join two sentences from the rover passage: one saying minor dust storms had periodically coated the rover's solar panels, the other saying this kept it from charging its batteries. The four versions keep the same facts in different orders, so students must judge which is clearest and most concise in context.

NYS standards
  • 7L1 grammar and usage conventions
  • 7L3a precise and concise language
Grade level
Grade 8 reading and task
Compared with grade 7
Above grade 7 Combining two sentences is grade 7 work, usually with one version clearly better. These four are long, keep the same facts and differ in order and wording, so students must weigh clarity and concision across nearly identical sentences, more than typical.
Estimated difficulty
Hard: combines ideas, needs a plan, and has more than one tempting wrong answer.
Evidence
Answered from one sentence or line
Reading level
Passage: about grade 11, 337 words; question and choices: about grade 13, 129 words.
Corrected from the DOE handbook
  • Two grammar terms in the explanation were corrected.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

None of the versions is plainly ungrammatical, so the ear gives little help, and the version with “because” looks best to students who value a clearly stated cause. Its cost is wordiness and a weaker link: the result comes first and the reference back to sentence 11 is buried mid-sentence. The question rewards keeping the original order, cause then effect, and folding sentence 13 in as a short closing phrase.

  1. How sentences fit together moderate Working it out

    “Prior to this planet-wide dust storm” points back to sentence 11, so the best version keeps it first; three versions move it later, which loosens the link between the two sentences. (Halliday & Hasan, 1976)

  2. Every choice must be checked moderate Choosing the answer

    All four versions keep every fact of sentences 12 and 13 and run 29 to 32 words, so none can be ruled out by content; order, pronouns and repetition decide. (Embretson & Wetzel, 1987)

  3. Complex sentences minor Understanding the question

    Each version is one long sentence built around a participial phrase or a “because” clause, and at that length a stranded “it” or a doubled “the rover” is easy to miss. (Abedi & Lord, 2001; Freedle & Kostin, 1993; Messick, 1989)

Strategy: Read sentence 11 first, then compare the versions on how smoothly each connects to it, how many words it uses, and whether every pronoun has a clear antecedent.

Traps

The wrong answers, classified

What was corrected from the DOE handbook, and why

  • Explanation: The DOE’s explanation of Option B says the combination turns sentence 12 into “an overly long dependent clause,” and its explanation of Option D says Option D adds sentence 13 to sentence 12 “as a dependent clause” by changing “These prevented” to “preventing.” Neither is a clause: “Periodically depositing a layer of dust onto the solar panels of the rover prior to this planet-wide dust storm” (Option B) and “preventing it from charging its batteries” (Option D) have no subject or finite verb of their own. Both are participial phrases, and the site now calls them that. The reasoning and the answer, Option D, are unchanged.

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Working it out, step by step

  1. Figure out what the question asks

    This question asks for the best way to join sentences 12 and 13 into one sentence. The best version keeps the meaning, uses few words and is clear. It should also connect smoothly to sentence 11, the sentence before.

  2. Read the sentences in order

    Sentence 11 tells about the giant 2018 dust storm. Sentence 12 begins “Prior to this planet-wide dust storm.” Prior to means before. That phrase points back to sentence 11, so it works best at the start. Sentence 12 says small storms put dust on the solar panels. Sentence 13 gives the result: “These prevented it from charging its batteries.”

  3. Learn the tool: a participial phrase

    A participial phrase is a group of words built on a verb form, often an -ing word. It describes something, but it has no subject and can’t stand alone. Example: The dog ran to the door. It wagged its tail. becomes The dog ran to the door, wagging its tail. Choice D does this. It turns “These prevented” into “preventing.”

  4. Check each choice

    • A is wrong. It starts with the result. It moves “prior to this planet-wide dust storm” to the end, far from sentence 11. It also says “the rover” twice.
    • B is wrong. Its long opening phrase hides the rover. Then “it” comes after “minor dust storms,” so it is hard to tell what “it” means.
    • C is wrong. It adds “because,” puts the result first and says “the rover” twice. It is wordier than D.
    • D is right. It keeps the link to sentence 11 first, gives the cause, then adds the result as a short participial phrase.

    Watch out: C looks clear because “because” names the cause. But it is longer, and it puts an extra phrase between “Minor dust storms” and its verb.

  5. Choose the answer

    So the answer is D: “Prior to this planet-wide dust storm, minor dust storms had periodically deposited a layer of dust onto the solar panels of the rover, preventing it from charging its batteries.”

Why this answer and not the closest wrong one

C is the closest wrong answer, because “because” makes the cause very clear. But C puts the result first and repeats “the rover.” D keeps the original order, cause then result. It also keeps the link to sentence 11 up front, in fewer words.

More questions like this

The original DOE question
Question 47 as shown on the DOE’s digital test, page 65 of its printable version.
As printed in the DOE’s printable version of 2026 Practice Test B English, page 65, question 47. This is the DOE’s version, before the corrections listed in the analysis.
The passage “The End of an Era” as printed (page 60)The passage “The End of an Era” as printed on page 60 of the DOE handbook.

Question 4 of 6

2018 Test A Math, question 54

Question

Number line with points J, K, L and M marked from left to right. Only K has a value: 3/8.

On the number line above, JK=312JK=3\frac{1}{2} , JM=934JM=9\frac{3}{4} , and LM=118LM=1\frac{1}{8} . What is the position of point LL?

  • A5185\frac{1}{8}
  • B5145\frac{1}{4}
  • C5125\frac{1}{2}
  • D6146\frac{1}{4}
Show the answer

Correct answer: C

First, use JK=312JK=3\frac{1}{2} to find the location of JJ:

38−J=312\frac{3}{8}-J=3\frac{1}{2}

J=38−312=−318J=\frac{3}{8}-3\frac{1}{2}=-3\frac{1}{8}

Now, use JM=934JM=9\frac{3}{4} to find the location of MM:

M−(−318)=934M-\left(-3\frac{1}{8}\right)=9\frac{3}{4}

M+318=934M+3\frac{1}{8}=9\frac{3}{4}

M=934−318=658M=9\frac{3}{4}-3\frac{1}{8}=6\frac{5}{8}

Finally, use LM=118LM=1\frac{1}{8} to find the location of LL:

658−L=1186\frac{5}{8}-L=1\frac{1}{8}

L=658−118=548=512L=6\frac{5}{8}-1\frac{1}{8}=5\frac{4}{8}=5\frac{1}{2}

Question analysis

This number line question gives the lengths JK, JM and LM as mixed numbers and asks for the position of point L. Students must chain three distance steps, moving left from K to J, right to M and back to L, with fractions in eighths and a negative position. Losing track of where K sits is the main danger.

NYS standards
Grade level
Grade 7 content, by NYS standard
Compared with grade 7
Above grade 7 Grade 7 students add and subtract rational numbers and find distances on a number line one at a time. This item chains three such steps with mixed numbers and a negative position, more than typical grade 7 work demands.
Estimated difficulty
Among the hardest on the SHSAT: a non-obvious approach, heavy reading, or a well-hidden trap.
Solution
4 steps
Reading level
Question and choices: about grade 9, 20 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

Every number is a mixed fraction, one position is negative, and the figure's even spacing hides how long KL really is. The distance route, KL = 9 3/4 − 3 1/2 − 1 1/8, avoids the negative entirely but ends one step short of a position unless K's 3/8 is added back. That last step is the one most students skip, which is why the question sits at the top of the scale.

  1. A very close wrong answer major Choosing the answer

    The choices 5 1/8, 5 1/4 and 5 1/2 lie within 3/8 of one another, so no estimate separates them; only exact eighths and adding K's 3/8 pick out the right one. (Embretson & Wetzel, 1987; Gorin & Embretson, 2006; Ascalon et al., 2007)

  2. Error-prone arithmetic moderate Working it out

    Every step mixes halves, quarters and eighths, and placing J means 3/8 − 3 1/2 = −3 1/8, a subtraction that crosses zero. (Brown & Burton, 1978; Junker & Sijtsma, 2001)

  3. Reading a figure, table or graph moderate Understanding the question

    Only K is labeled, and the points are drawn evenly spaced although KL is over four times LM, so the picture gives no help with sizes. (Lesh, Post & Behr, 1987; Kirsch & Mosenthal, 1990)

  4. Many steps minor Working it out

    Three linked moves, K to J, J to M and M back to L, each depend on the last, so an early slip carries through. (Daniel & Embretson, 2010; Enright, Morley & Sheehan, 2002)

Strategy: Start from K's labeled position, subtract JK to place J, add JM to place M, then subtract LM, keeping every fraction in eighths.

Traps

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Worked solution, step by step

Formulas used

Distance on a number line
d=b−ad = b - a
d is the distance between two points. b is the point on the right and a is the point on the left. Subtracting left from right always gives a positive distance. It works even when a is negative.
Equal fractions
ab=a×kb×k\frac{a}{b} = \frac{a \times k}{b \times k}
a is the top number (numerator) and b is the bottom number (denominator). Multiplying both by the same number k gives an equal fraction. It is like cutting each piece into k smaller pieces. Use it to give fractions the same bottom before you add or subtract.

  1. Sort out what you know

    Only K has a value: 38\frac{3}{8}. JK means the distance from J to K. You know JK = 3123\frac{1}{2}, JM = 9349\frac{3}{4} and LM = 1181\frac{1}{8}.

    You need the position of L, the number where L sits. The points are drawn evenly spaced, but the distances are not equal. So use the numbers, not the picture.

  2. Write the fractions in eighths

    The fractions use halves, fourths and eighths. Give them all a bottom of 8:

    312=348934=9683\frac{1}{2} = 3\frac{4}{8} \qquad 9\frac{3}{4} = 9\frac{6}{8}

    Watch out: 34\frac{3}{4} is 68\frac{6}{8}, not 48\frac{4}{8}. That slip leads to choice B.

  3. Find the distance from K to M

    JM is JK and KM put together. So take JK away from JM:

    968−348=6289\frac{6}{8} - 3\frac{4}{8} = 6\frac{2}{8}

    KM is 6286\frac{2}{8}, or 6146\frac{1}{4}. Watch out: this is a distance, not where L sits. Choice D stops here.

  4. Find the distance from K to L

    KM is KL and LM put together. So take LM away:

    628−118=5186\frac{2}{8} - 1\frac{1}{8} = 5\frac{1}{8}

    KL is 5185\frac{1}{8}. Watch out: this is still a distance. Choice A stops here.

  5. Find the position of L

    L is 5185\frac{1}{8} to the right of K, and K is at 38\frac{3}{8}. Add:

    38+518=548=512\frac{3}{8} + 5\frac{1}{8} = 5\frac{4}{8} = 5\frac{1}{2}

    So the answer is C, 5125\frac{1}{2}.

Check your answer

Place every point. J is 3483\frac{4}{8} left of K, at −318-3\frac{1}{8}. M is 9689\frac{6}{8} right of J, at 6586\frac{5}{8}. L is 1181\frac{1}{8} left of M, at 5485\frac{4}{8}, which is 5125\frac{1}{2}. Same answer.

More questions like this

The original DOE question
Question 111 as printed on page 91 of the DOE handbook.
As printed in the DOE’s Specialized High Schools Student Handbook 2018–2019, page 91, question 111. Open page 91 of the handbook (PDF)

Question 5 of 6

2024 Test A Math, question 5

Question

RESULTS FROM SURVEY OF 110 FAMILIES

Number of Children in the Family Number of Families
0 45
1 32
2 19
3 8
4 6

The table above shows the number of children in each of 110 families. What is the median number of children in these families?

Grid-in question: work out the answer and enter it as a number.

Show the answer

Correct answer: 1

Since 110 families were surveyed, the median will have 55 values less than or equal to it, and 55 values greater than or equal to it.

If the values in the table were listed in order, they would look like this:

0,…,0⏞45,1,…,1⏞32,2,…,2⏞19,3,…,3⏞8,4,…,4⏞6\overbrace{0,\ldots,0}^{45},\overbrace{1,\ldots,1}^{32},\overbrace{2,\ldots,2}^{19},\overbrace{3,\ldots,3}^{8},\overbrace{4,\ldots,4}^{6}

The first row of the table indicates that 45 families had 0 children.

The second row of the table indicates that 32 families had 1 child.

So 77 families had either 0 children or 1 child, and 45 families had 0 children.

Since 55 is between 45 and 77, the median must be a value in the second row of the table.

So the median is 1.

Question analysis

This statistics grid-in gives a frequency table from a survey of 110 families, showing how many families have each number of children from none to four. Students find the median number of children per family. The table lists counts rather than the 110 data values themselves, so locating the middle value takes a running total of the families.

NYS standards
  • 6.SP.5c range, center, and overall pattern
  • 6.SP.5a number of observations
Grade level
Grade 6 content, by NYS standard
Compared with grade 7
Above grade 7 Grade 7 median problems usually list a dozen or so values. Here 110 values are hidden in a frequency table, so students must reason about positions with a running count, a less familiar and more error-prone task.
Estimated difficulty
Hard: combines ideas, needs a plan, and has more than one tempting wrong answer.
Solution
3 steps
Reading level
Question and choices: about grade 7, 35 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

Students know a median as the middle of a list, but here the list is never written out. Treating the table's columns as the data gives quick, confident answers, 2 from the middle of the children column or 19 from the middle of the family counts, and neither can be checked against choices. The question rewards counting positions: 45 families have no children, so the 55th and 56th families both fall among the 32 with one child.

  1. Reading a figure, table or graph major Understanding the question

    The table hides 110 data values in five rows: the 0 to 4 column lists the possible values, and 45, 32, 19, 8 and 6 say how many families have each. (Lesh, Post & Behr, 1987; Kirsch & Mosenthal, 1990)

  2. No obvious method moderate Working it out

    The median of 110 values lies between the 55th and 56th; finding them takes a running count of families, 45 and then 77, a method seldom practiced with tables. (Schoenfeld, 1985)

  3. An answer in an unexpected form minor Choosing the answer

    As a grid-in there are no choices to compare, so a student who takes the middle row's 2 has nothing on the page to suggest it is wrong. (Enright, Morley & Sheehan, 2002)

Strategy: With 110 values the median sits between the 55th and 56th; add the family counts row by row until the running total passes 55, and read that row's number of children.

Traps

  • Misunderstands the concept: A wrong belief about a concept: that percents can be added, that area grows like length, that averages can be averaged, that a bigger denominator means a bigger fraction.
  • Answers a different question: A choice is right for another quantity: the other unknown, the rest instead of the part, the part instead of the whole.

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Worked solution, step by step

Formulas used

Spot of the median
middle spot=n+12\text{middle spot} = \frac{n + 1}{2}
The median is the middle value when all the values are put in order. n is how many values there are. This gives the spot of the middle value, with the same number of values before and after it. If it ends in a half, the median is halfway between the two values on either side.

  1. Sort out the table

    The table covers 110 families. The left column is a number of children. The right column says how many families have that many children. For example, 45 families have 0 children. You need the median number of children. The median is the middle value when all the values are in order.

  2. Picture the values in order

    Think of a list with one number for each family: how many children it has. The list has 45 zeros, then 32 ones, then 19 twos, then 8 threes, then 6 fours. It is already in order, from least to most.

    45+32+19+8+6=11045 + 32 + 19 + 8 + 6 = 110

    There are 110 values. Watch out: the median is not the middle row, 2. Each row stands for a different number of families.

  3. Find the middle spot

    Use the median rule with n = 110.

    middle spot=n+12\text{middle spot} = \frac{n + 1}{2}

    110+12=55.5\frac{110 + 1}{2} = 55.5

    The middle is halfway between the 55th and 56th values. So you need those two values in the list.

  4. Count down the list

    Keep a running total of families, row by row. The zeros fill spots 1 to 45. Now add the 32 families with 1 child.

    45+32=7745 + 32 = 77

    So the ones fill spots 46 to 77. Spot 55 and spot 56 are both in that range. So both values are 1.

  5. Give the median

    The 55th and 56th values are both 1. Halfway between 1 and 1 is 1. So the median is 1 child. Watch out: the median is a number of children, not of families. Gridding 19, from the families column, is wrong. So is the mean, or average, which is about 1.07. So you would grid 1.

Check your answer

Half of 110 is 55. Families with 0 children: 45, which is less than half. So the median is not 0. Families with 0 or 1 child: 77, which is more than half. So the median is not more than 1. It must be 1.

More questions like this

The original DOE question
Question 62 as printed on page 76 of the DOE handbook.
As printed in the DOE’s NYC Guide to the Specialized High Schools Admissions Test (SHSAT) for 2025 Admissions, page 76, question 62. Open page 76 of the handbook (PDF)

Question 6 of 6

2024 Test B Math, question 17

Question

A bowl contains 12 green candies, 4 yellow candies, and some red candies. The probability of choosing a green candy at random is twice as great as the probability of choosing a red candy at random. What is the probability of choosing a yellow candy at random?

  • A211\frac{2}{11}
  • B29\frac{2}{9}
  • C14\frac{1}{4}
  • D311\frac{3}{11}
Show the answer

Correct answer: A

The probability of choosing a green candy is twice as great as the probability of choosing a red candy. There are 12 green candies. Let r = the number of red candies.

12=2r12=2r

r=6r=6

So there are 6 red candies. 12 green candies + 4 yellow candies + 6 red candies = 22 total candies.

There are 4 yellow candies out of a total of 22 candies. So the probability of choosing a yellow candy is

422=211\frac{4}{22}=\frac{2}{11}.

Question analysis

A probability question about a bowl of 12 green candies, 4 yellow candies and an unknown number of red ones. A green candy is twice as likely to be picked as a red one, and students find the chance of picking a yellow candy. The missing red count has to be worked out before any probability can be found.

NYS standards
Grade level
Grade 6 content, by NYS standard
Compared with grade 7
Above grade 7 Simple probability is grade 6 content in New York, and grade 7 problems usually give every count. Working backward from a comparison of two probabilities to a missing count, then forward to a third probability, is more than typical grade 7 work.
Estimated difficulty
Hard: combines ideas, needs a plan, and has more than one tempting wrong answer.
What makes it hard
Solution
3 steps
Reading level
Question and choices: about grade 7, 49 words.
Students, last 30 days
Not enough answers yet to show (it takes 10).
Why it is hard, traps and wrong answers (shows the answer)

Why it is hard

The question withholds the red count, and everything depends on recovering it from the comparison of probabilities. Students who cannot make that step tend to leave red out altogether, while those who find 6 red candies can still slip at the end by using the wrong total or the wrong color. Writing all three counts and the total of 22 before forming any fraction prevents both endings.

  1. Turning words into math moderate Understanding the question

    “Twice as great as the probability of choosing a red candy” must become 12 = 2 × the red count, which works only because both probabilities share one total. (Hegarty, Mayer & Monk, 1995; Koedinger & Nathan, 2004)

  2. Combines ideas moderate Working it out

    An unknown count has to be found from a ratio before any probability can be written, joining proportional reasoning with probability as a part over the total. (Embretson, 1998; Daniel & Embretson, 2010)

Strategy: Turn twice as likely into a statement about numbers of candies to find the red count, add all three colors for the total, then put the yellow count over that total and simplify.

Traps

  • Answers a different question: A choice is right for another quantity: the other unknown, the rest instead of the part, the part instead of the whole.
  • Numbers taken from the question: Combines the numbers in the question without a model of the situation, or is simply a number that appears in the question.

The wrong answers, classified

How the questions are analyzed, and the research behind it

Worked solution, step by step

Formulas used

Probability
P=number of the kind you wanttotal numberP = \frac{\text{number of the kind you want}}{\text{total number}}
P is the probability, the chance that something happens. The top is how many candies are the kind you want. The bottom is how many candies there are in all. Each candy is just as likely to be picked, so this fraction gives the chance.

  1. Sort out what you know

    The bowl has 12 green candies, 4 yellow candies and some red candies. You are not told how many are red. Let r be the number of red candies.

    The chance of picking green is twice the chance of picking red. You need the probability (the chance) of picking yellow.

  2. Compare green and red

    Write each chance with the probability formula.

    P=number of the kind you wanttotal numberP = \frac{\text{number of the kind you want}}{\text{total number}}

    Green and red have the same bottom number, the total number of candies. So if the chance of green is twice the chance of red, there are twice as many green candies as red ones.

    12=2×r12 = 2 \times r

  3. Find the red candies and the total

    r=12÷2=6r = 12 \div 2 = 6

    There are 6 red candies. Now add up all the candies.

    12+4+6=2212 + 4 + 6 = 22

    There are 22 candies in all. Watch out: do not leave out the red candies just because their number was not given. Using 16 as the total gives 1/4, choice C.

  4. Find the chance of yellow

    There are 4 yellow candies out of 22.

    P=422=211P = \frac{4}{22} = \frac{2}{11}

    Divide the top and the bottom by 2 to simplify. Watch out: the question asks for yellow, not red. 6/22 = 3/11 is the chance of red, choice D. The bottom must be all 22 candies. Using 18 gives 2/9, choice B.

    So the answer is A, 211\frac{2}{11}.

Check your answer

Check the clue. The chance of green is 1222\frac{12}{22}, and the chance of red is 622\frac{6}{22}. Twelve is twice 6, so green is twice as likely. Also, the three chances add up to 1: 1222+422+622=2222=1\frac{12}{22} + \frac{4}{22} + \frac{6}{22} = \frac{22}{22} = 1.

More questions like this

The original DOE question
Question 74 as printed on page 203 of the DOE handbook.
As printed in the DOE’s NYC Guide to the Specialized High Schools Admissions Test (SHSAT) for 2025 Admissions, page 203, question 74. Open page 203 of the handbook (PDF) The handbook letters this question’s choices E–H; here they are A–D (E = A, F = B, G = C, H = D).

Sample #759997